Human action is shown as determined as everything else. It also shows that it cannot be the case that causes are the reason events occur (uncaused or undetermined by cause). This definition of free will takes into account that in order to be held morally responsible for ones actions, one must be justly punished or rewarded. It also takes into account that one should not punish a man for what he cannot help doing. It begs the important question of “how can you punish a man for what was evident that he would do prior to committing the …show more content…
In these situations, it is difficult to judge if the acts were done freely or the individual was compelled. In the event that the fear of death was used to coerce an individual into acting, the definition of ‘free will’ signifies that the act was committed upon ones own free will. A valid counter argument to this claim could be that the weapon used to create the fear approximated to actual force. This creates the narrative that compulsion was used in the act.
In the event that an action was pre-expected prior to the actions occurrence, how could one expect that the individual(s) was/were going to act otherwise? It is realistic to state that the action could have not occurred. It is fair to note that the action wouldn’t have occurred had the causes that produced this action been more desirable. This symbolizes the illusion that predictability and free will are incompatible. Common sense is on this arguments side.
Based on the theory that states if Complete Determinism is true and we are