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70 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
175. Which statement is true concerning the product below?
A. The product is valid until the 3rd day of the month at 0200Z B. A warm front will reach the Cleveland control area by late Sunday afternoon C. Icing is forecast between the surface and 12,000 feet D. Pilots and dispatchers are the primary users of this product |
175. A. The product is valid until the 3rd day of the month at 0200Z (LP, p. 47)
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176. What is the forecast wind and temperature at Alamosa, CO (ALS) at FL340?
A. Wind two three two at two six, temperature four five B. Wind two three two at six , temperature minus four five C. Wind two three zero at two six gusts four five D. Wind two three zero at two six, temperature minus four five |
176. D. Wind two three zero at two six, temperature minus four five (LP, pp. 51-53)
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177. AFSSs are identified by stating name of the facility followed by what?
A. Flight Service B. Flight Watch C. Radio D. Broadcast |
177. C. Radio (LP 29, p. 24)
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178. What is the call sign for a civil aircraft with the President aboard?
A. “AIR FORCE ONE” B. “EXECUTIVE ONE PRESIDENT” C. “PRESIDENT ONE” D. “EXECUTIVE ONE” |
178. D. “EXECUTIVE ONE” (LP, p. 35)
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179. Jet route 35 would be spoken as ________.
A. “J THIRTY-FIFE” B. “JET ROUTE THREE FIFE” C. “Q - THIRTY-FIFE” D. “J THREE FIFE” |
179. A. “J THIRTY-FIFE”
(LP, p. 41) |
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180. Which of the following is the correct way to state an assigned altitude of 16,000 feet?
A. One six zero hundred B. One six zero zero zero C. One six thousand D. One six zero thousand |
180. C. One six thousand (7110.65; LP 29, p. 10)
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181. An action to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another when the aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communication is transferred is a ________.
A. point out B. handover C. handoff D. transfer |
181. C. handoff (LP, p. 50)
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182. What is the action whereby the responsibility for separation of an aircraft is transferred from one controller to another?
A. Transfer of control B. Transfer of communications C. Point out D. Handoff |
182. A. Transfer of control
(LP, p. 54) |
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183. How is a time of 6:42 a.m. stated as UTC time?
A. ”Zero six four two zulu” B. ”Zero six four two local” C. ”Zero six four two alpha mike” D. ”Oh six four two zulu” |
183. A. ”Zero six four two zulu” (LP 29, p. 12)
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184. According to the ICAO alphabet pronunciation table, in radiotelephony “C-H-A-P” should be pronounced ________.
A. CHARLIE HONEY ALFA PETER B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA C. CHARLIE HECTOR ALFA PAPA D. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PETER |
184. B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA (LP 29, p. 6)
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185. The terminology for stating an altimeter of 28.72 is ________.
A. “Altimeter two eight point seven two” B. “Altimeter two eight decimal seven two” C. “Altimeter two eight seven two” D. “Altimeter twenty-eight seventy-two” |
185. C. “Altimeter two eight seven two” (LP, p. 14)
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186. The surface wind is from 170 degrees at 20 knots. This would be stated as ________.
A. “Wind one seventy at twenty knots” B. “Wind south at twenty knots” C. “Wind one seven zero at zero two zero” D. “Wind one seven zero at two zero” |
186. D. “Wind one seven zero at two zero” (LP, p. 16)
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187. When can a pilot interrupt their communications guard?
A. When requested B. When requested and an agreeable time off frequency is established C. When requested and in VFR conditions D. At any time |
187. B. When requested and an agreeable time off frequency is established (LP 29, p. 4)
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188. How often are interphones and assigned frequencies to be monitored?
A. According to the level of traffic in the area B. At half-hour intervals C. Continuously D. Hourly |
188. C. Continuously
(LP 29, p. 3) |
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189. During which step in the relief process does the relieving specialist check, verify, and update the position information obtained?
A. Preview the position B. Verbal briefing C. Assumption of position responsibility D. Review the position |
189. D. Review the position
(LP, p. 64) |
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190. When stating flight levels, an aircraft at 28,000 feet would be said to be at an altitude of __________.
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190. ANSWER: “Flight level two eight zero” (LP, p. 11)
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191. Runway 31C would be spoken as __________.
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191. ANSWER: “Runway tree one center” (LP, p. 17)
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192. The phraseology for contacting Columbia Automated Flight Service Station would be __________.
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192. ANSWER: “COLUMBIA RADIO” (LP, p. 24)
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193. The first priority during coordination or during the transfer of information is __________.
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193. ANSWER: emergencies (LP, p. 47)
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194. List, in order, the four steps in the position relief process.
1.) Preview position 2.) Verbal briefing 3.) Assumption of position responsibility 4.) Position review |
194. List, in order, the four steps in the position relief process.
1.) Preview position 2.) Verbal briefing 3.) Assumption of position responsibility 4.) Position review (LP, p. 61) |
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195. Which item is always included in a clearance?
A. Aircraft identification B. Departure procedure C. Holding instructions D. Altitude |
195. A. Aircraft identification (LP, p. 6)
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196. The purpose of an ATC clearance is to ________.
A. relieves controller stress. B. provides classified instructions to pilots. C. prevent collision between known aircraft. D. provide for emergency situations. |
196. C. prevent collision between known aircraft. (LP, p. 3)
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197. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall comply with all provisions of an ATC clearance unless an amended clearance has been obtained, an emergency exists or _______.
A. conducting military operations B. participating in a speed run C. operating aircraft in IFR conditions D. responding to a TCAS resolution advisory |
197. D. responding to a TCAS resolution advisory (LP, p. 5)
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198. Select the correct sequence of the following clearance items:
1. Route of flight 2. Holding instructions 3. Aircraft identification 4. Clearance limit 5. Mach number, if applicable 6. Altitude data in order flown 7. Frequency and beacon code information 8. Departure procedure or DP/FMSP 9. Any special instructions A. 3,4,8,1,6,5,2,9,7 B. 3,8,1,2,4,5,9,6,7 C. 3,9,8,7,4,1,6,2,5 D. 3,1,6,4,8,5,2,7,9 |
198. A. 3,4,8,1,6,5,2,9,7
(LP, p. 6) |
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199. Use prefixes when relaying ________, ________, or ________ through non-ATC facilities.
A. clearances, instructions, reports B. information, instructions, requests C. clearances, information, requests D. instructions, reports, requests |
199. C. clearances, information, requests (LP 31, p.8)
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200. The type of clearance that provides for intermediate stops while en route is a/an ________ Clearance.
A. Approach B. Through C. Composite D. Cruise |
200. B. Through (LP, p. 18)
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201. An authorization for a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the IFR clearance is a/an ________ Clearance.
A. Cruise B. Landing C. Approach D. Composite |
201. A. Cruise (LP, p. 21)
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202. Considering the prescribed order of clearance items, which of the following clearances is correct?
A. “United seventy seven, descend and maintain one zero thousand, fly heading two four zero for spacing.” B. “Lifeguard tree echo foxtrot, cleared to the Tulsa VORTAC, hold west, descend and maintain one zero thousand.” C. “Continental twenty tree, cleared to the Little Rock airport, climb and maintain flight level two three zero via J twenty, squawk four four two seven.” D. “November six seven x-ray, cleared direct Bartlesville V-O-R, climb and maintain one two thousand.” |
202. D. “November six seven x-ray, cleared direct Bartlesville V-O-R, climb and maintain one two thousand.” (LP, p. 6)
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203. Holding an aircraft is NOT used for ________.
A. en route traffic B. position relief C. flow control D. spacing |
203. B. position relief
(LP 4, p. 41) |
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204. The minimum vertical separation required for aircraft above FL600 is _______ feet.
A. 10,000 B. 5,000 C. 2,000 D. 1,000 |
204. B. 5,000 (LP 4, p. 7)
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205. The minimum vertical separation for IFR flight at and below FL410 is _______ feet.
A. 5,000 B. 2,000 C. 1,000 D. 4,000 |
205. C. 1,000 (LP 4, p. 7)
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206. Minimum vertical separation below an aircraft which is dumping fuel is ______ feet.
A. 4,000 B. 2,000 C. 1,000 D. 500 |
206. B. 2,000 (LP 4, p. 11)
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206. To clear aircraft to hold over different fixes at the same altitude, you must ensure that all
A. aircraft are cleared to make right turns. B. holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap. C. leg lengths are specified in minutes. D. aircraft are using the same NAVAID to hold from. |
206. B. holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap.
(LP 4, p. 45) |
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207. What type of separation is defined as the spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of time or miles?
A. Lateral B. Longitudinal C. Vertical D. Visual |
207. B. Longitudinal
( LP 4, p. 15) |
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208. Standard radar separation provided by an en route facility between two aircraft at FL270 is ______ miles.
A. 3 B. 5 C. 10 D. 20 |
208. B. 5 (LP 4, pp. 29, 30)
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209. Terminal radar separation minima require that when two aircraft are less than 40 miles from the antenna, ________ separation is required; when two aircraft are 40 miles or more from the antenna, ________ separation is required.
A. 3 miles; 5 miles B. 3 miles; 6 miles C. 5 miles; 3 miles D. 5 miles; 10 miles |
209. A. 3 miles; 5 miles
(LP 4, p. 28) |
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210. Controllers may use visual separation ________.
A. up to, but not including, FL180 B. at FL180 and below C. up to and including 18,000 feet MSL D. up to but not including 18,000 feet AGL |
210. A. up to, but not including, FL180 (LP 4, p. 35)
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211. Runway separation is applied by ________ controllers.
A. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT) C. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) D. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) |
211. B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT) (LP 4, p. 37)
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212. Which radar system uses both a ground-based interrogator and an aircraft-based transponder?
A. Primary radar B. Airport radar C. Secondary radar D. Global position radar |
212. C. Secondary radar
(LP, p. 22) |
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213. What is a radio detection device which provides information on the range, azimuth, and/or elevation of objects?
A. Transponder B. Radar C. Nondirectional beacon D. VORTAC |
213. B. Radar (LP, p. 3)
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214. The primary radar display depicts the ________ and ________ of objects that reflect radio energy.
A. position; altitude B. position; movement C. altitude; speed D. movement; speed |
214. B. position; movement
(LP 6, p. 8) |
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215. What are two types of radar jamming?
A. Position and passive B. Action and active C. Precise and passive D. Passive and active |
215. D. Passive and active
(LP, p. 19) |
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216. Which is not a component of a primary radar system?
A. Transmitter B. Interrogator C. Antenna D. Receiver |
216. B. Interrogator (LP 6, p. 6)
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217. Which radar feature reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation?
A. Circular Polarization B. Linear Polarization C. Passive radar D. Inversion |
217. A. Circular Polarization (LP, p. 13)
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218. What causes Anomalous Propagation clutter on primary radar systems?
A. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal D. Cool air over warm air reflecting the radar signal |
218. B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal
(LP, p. 16) |
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219. What causes temperature inversion clutter on primary radar systems?
A. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal D. Cool air over warm air reflecting the radar signal |
219. C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal
(LP, p. 17) |
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220. Secondary radar interference caused by a transponder replying excessively is called _______.
A. Ring around B. Anomalous Propagation C. Range interference D. Inversion |
220. A. Ring around (LP, p. 29)
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221. Which of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system?
A. It displays weather echoes. B. It only displays aircraft with transponders. C. Radar responses are not degraded by weather or ground clutter. D. Signal strength is affected by aircraft orientation. |
221. C. Radar responses are not degraded by weather or ground clutter. (LP, p. 30)
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222 Broadcasts interrogator transmission
223 Processes transponder replies and forwards data to the radar display 224 Ground-based transmitter 225 Airborne receiver/transmitter 226 Depicts an electronic presentation of radar-derived information. A. Transponder B. Radar display C. Decoder D. Interrogator E. Antenna |
222. E. Antenna
(LP, p. 24) 223. C. Decoder (LP, p. 27) 224 D. Interrogator (LP, p. 24) 225. A. Transponder (LP, p. 26) 226. B. Radar display (LP, p. 27) |
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227. The purpose of an LOA is to supplement established operational procedures for ________ use.
A. regional B. intrafacility C. interfacility D. military |
227. C. interfacility (LP, p. 2)
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228. Which of the following is NOT an example of typical SOP content?
A. External Coordination B. Position relief briefing C. Equipment usage D. Local stripmarking procedures |
228. A. External Coordination (LP 8, p. 10)
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229-236. In the following list, identify the content/procedures that would require the implementation of an LOA/SOP. Write A for LOA or B for SOP in the blanks provided.
229 Define coordination procedures between two air traffic facilities 230 Define coordination procedures between internal operational positions 231 Define coordination procedures between AFSS Inflight and ARTCC Radar Associate positions 232 Define responsibilities between an air traffic control facility and the Airport Manager 233 Describe operating position/sector 234 Define coordination procedures between two control towers within the same approach control airspace 235 Establish local stripmarking procedures 236 Delegate the responsibility for ATC services to the tower, approach control, and the ARTCC |
229. A (LP, p. 2)
230 B (LP, p. 11) 231. A (LP, p. 3) 232. A (LP, p. 2) 233. B (LP, p. 11) 234. A (LP, p. 3) 235. B (LP, p. 10) 236. A (LP, p. 5) |
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MATCHING
237. Aircraft 238. Airport 239. Air Traffic Control 240. Air Traffic Clearance 241. Flight Plan A. A service operated by appropriate authority to promote the safe, orderly, expeditious flow of air traffic. B. A device that is used or intended to be used for flight in the air. C. An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft. D. Specified information relating to the intended flight of an aircraft, that is filed orally, in writing, or by E. An authorization by air traffic control for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft, and for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace. |
237. B (LP, p. 5)
238. C (LP, p. 6) 239. A (LP, p. 6) 240. E (LP, p. 4) 241. D (LP, p. 7) |
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MATCHING
242. Flight Level 243. Positive Control 244. Approved Separation 245. Reporting Point A. Separation of all air traffic within designated airspace by air traffic control. B. A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury. C. A geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft is reported. D. Separation in accordance with the applicable minima in FAA Order JO 7110.65. E. Weather conditions equal to or better than the minimum for flight under visual flight rules. |
242. B (LP, p. 7)
243. A (LP, p. 7) 244. D (LP, p. 8) 245. C (LP, p. 7) |
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246. A pilot in command may deviate from FAR 91 if ________.
A. the aircraft is within Class G airspace B. there is an emergency requiring immediate action C. the aircraft is in visual conditions D. an ATC clearance is requested |
246. B. there is an emergency requiring immediate action
(LP, p. 27) |
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247. Which of the following Right-of-Way rules is not correct?
A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way B. Overtaking, aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way C. Head-on, both aircraft give way to the right D. Landing, aircraft on final approach has right-of-way |
247. A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way (LP 10, p. 16)
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248. Pilots of two aircraft may operate as a formation flight when ________.
A. authorization is obtained from ATC B. flight visibility is at least 3 miles C. prior arrangements are made and no paying passengers are aboard D. flight is conducted at or above 1,500 feet MSL |
248. C. prior arrangements are made and no paying passengers are aboard (LP, p. 14)
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249. ATC specialists who are age 40 and above shall be scheduled by facility managers for medical examinations every __________ if in the terminal/center environment.
A. 3 years B. year C. 2 years D. 6 months |
249. B. year (LP 10, p. 41)
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250. The maximum speed authorized by FAR for aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL is ________ knots.
A. 250 B. 200 C. 180 D. 150 |
250. A. 250 (FAR, 91.117; LP, p. 19)
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251. Airspeed in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace shall not be more than ________ knots.
A. 150 B. 180 C. 200 D. 250 |
251. C. 200 (LP, p. 21)
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252. A pilot operating below 18,000 feet MSL shall set the altimeter to ________.
A. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft B. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 200 NM of the aircraft C. 29.29 in/hg D. 29.92 in/hg |
252. A. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft (LP, p. 25)
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253. When operating an aircraft at an airport in Class G Airspace that has an operating control tower, unless otherwise authorized, the pilot must have ________.
A. a transponder with Mode C B. a transponder only C. radar contact and two-way communications D. two-way radio communications with the tower |
253. D. two-way radio communications with the tower (LP, p. 28)
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254. The minimum age required to obtain an ATC control tower operator certificate is: ________.
A. 18 B. 21 C. 30 D. No age requirement |
254. A. 18 (LP, p. 38)
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255. Bernoulli’s Principle states: “The internal pressure of a fluid ________ at points where the speed of the fluid ________.”
A. increases; increases B. decreases; increases C. increases; decreases D. decreases; decreases |
255. B. decreases; increases (LP, p. 3)
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256. Regarding helicopters, the cyclic controls the _______ of the rotor blades and the collective controls the _________.
A. pitch; tilt B. speed; pitch C. tilt; pitch D. angle; speed |
256. C. tilt; pitch (LP 12, pp. 40 and 42)
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257. Which of the following does NOT affect aircraft performance?
A. Temperature B. Moisture C. Pressure D. Relative wind |
257. D. Relative wind (LP 12, p. 15)
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258. A secondary form of lift is a(n) __________ generated by air striking the underside of the airfoil and being deflected __________.
A. upward force; downward B. downward force, upward C. pressure differential; over the wing D. upward force; over the wing |
258. A. upward force; downward
(LP 12, p. 5) |
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259. An imaginary straight line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge of a cross section of an airfoil is called the _______.
A. chord line B. camber C. relative wind D. angle of attack |
259. A. chord line (LP, p. 8)
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260. When ________ and ________ are in equilibrium, the aircraft neither gains nor loses airspeed.
A. thrust; drag B. lift; thrust C. lift; weight D. weight; drag |
260. A. thrust; drag (LP 12, p. 14)
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261. What force in flight counteracts lift?
A. Pressure B. Thrust C. Weight D. Relative wind |
261. C. Weight (LP, p. 13)
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