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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Which of the following properties of
freshly cut dentin does cavity varnish eliminate or reduce? A. Resiliency. B. Hardness. C. Regenerative powers. D. Permeability. |
D. Permeability.
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A hinge axis facebow records
A. Bennett angle. B. centric relation. C. lateral condylar inclination. D. horizontal condylar inclination. E. opening and closing axis of the mandible. |
E. opening and closing axis of the
mandible. |
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Compared to unfilled resins, composite
resins have 1. reduced thermal dimensional changes. 2. increased strength. 3. reduced polymerization shrinkage. 4. better polishability. |
1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
2. increased strength. 3. reduced polymerization shrinkage |
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There is a differential between girls and
boys with respect to the age at which the growth velocity reaches its peak. That difference is A. boys six months ahead of girls. B. girls six months ahead of boys. C. girls one year ahead of boys. D. girls two years ahead of boys. |
D. girls two years ahead of boys.
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Excessive orthodontic force used to move
a tooth may 1. cause hyalinization. 2. cause root resorption. 3. crush the periodontal ligament. 4. impair tooth movement. |
E. All of the above.
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Which of the following is/are correct?
A. There is no histological difference between basal and alveolar bone. B. There is no difference in the response of basal and alveolar bone to pressure. C. Osteoid is a highly mineralized bundle bone. D. All of the above. |
B. There is no difference in the response
of basal and alveolar bone to pressure. |
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The optimal time for orthodontic treatment
involving growth manipulation is during A. late primary dentition. B. early mixed dentition. C. late mixed dentition. D. early permanent dentition. |
C. late mixed dentition.
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The predominant type of movement
produced by a finger spring on a removable appliance is A. torque. B. tipping. C. rotation. D. translation. |
B. tipping.
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Following loss of a permanent mandibular
first molar at age 8, which of the following changes are likely to occur? 1. Distal drift of second premolar. 2. No movement of second premolar. 3. Mesial drift of second permanent molar. 4. No movement of second permanent molar. |
1. Distal drift of second premolar.
3. Mesial drift of second permanent molar. |
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The best space maintainer to prevent the
lingual collapse that often occurs following the early loss of a mandibular primary canine is a A. Nance expansion arch. B. lingual arch. C. band and loop space maintainer. D. distal shoe space maintainer. |
B. lingual arch.
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Mouth breathing is most commonly
associated with Angle's malocclusion Class A. I. B. II, Division 1. C. II, Division 2. D. III. E. None of the above. |
B. II, Division 1.
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Recurring tooth rotations occur most
frequently after orthodontic correction due to A. density of the cortical bone. B. persistence of tongue and finger habits. C. free gingival and transseptal fibres. D. oblique fibres of the periodontal ligament. |
C. free gingival and transseptal fibres.
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Which of the following conditions can
make an older patient short of breath on mild exertion? 1. Anemia. 2. Cardiac failure. 3. Obesity. 4. Osteoarthritis. |
1. Anemia.
2. Cardiac failure. 3. Obesity. |
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Which of the following drug groups can
cause xerostomia? 1. Diuretics. 2. Antibiotics. 3. Antidepressants. 4. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents. |
1. Diuretics.
3. Antidepressants. |
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When assessing the difficulty of removal
of an impacted mandibular third molar, you should consider 1. depth in the alveolus. 2. periodontal ligament space. 3. root width. 4. angulation. 5. size of the pulp chamber. |
1. depth in the alveolus.
2. periodontal ligament space. 3. root width. 4. angulation. |
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The design of a mucoperiosteal flap
should 1. provide for visual access. 2. provide for instrument access. 3. permit repositioning over a solid bone base. 4. be semilunar in shape. |
1. provide for visual access.
2. provide for instrument access. 3. permit repositioning over a solid bone base. |
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In the surgical removal of an impacted
mandibular third molar, which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. Mesio-angular. B. Horizontal. C. Vertical. D. Disto-angular. |
D. Disto-angular.
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Final treatment planning for the combined
surgical-orthodontic correction of a dentofacial deformity should include A. predetermined occlusion on dental models. B. mock surgery on appropriately mounted models. C. cephalometric analysis with prediction tracing. |
D. All of the above.
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Hydroxyapatite
1. can be used to eliminate osseous undercuts. 2. is derived from coral. 3. is biocompatible. 4. is resistant to fracture. 5. is osteogenic. |
1. can be used to eliminate osseous
undercuts. 2. is derived from coral. 3. is biocompatible. |
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An alveoplasty is performed to
1. facilitate removal of teeth. 2. correct irregularities of alveolar ridges following tooth removal. 3. prepare the residual ridge for dentures. |
2. correct irregularities of alveolar ridges
following tooth removal. 3. prepare the residual ridge for dentures. |
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Sutures can be
1. used to hold soft tissues into position. 2. used to stretch soft tissues into position. 3. used to control bleeding. 4. resorbable or non-resorbable. |
1. used to hold soft tissues into position.
3. used to control bleeding. 4. resorbable or non-resorbable. |
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A dental laboratory has returned a
removable partial denture framework. The framework fit the master cast well but when tried in the mouth, a stable fit could not be achieved. The possible cause(s) of the problem is/are 1. distortion in the final impression. 2. insufficient retention. 3. improper pour of the master cast. 4. casting error. |
1. distortion in the final impression.
3. improper pour of the master cast. |
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Which of the following is/are essential
when using spherical rather than admix alloy for a routine amalgam restoration 1. a larger diameter condenser. 2. an anatomical wedge. 3. decreased condensing pressure. 4. a dead soft matrix band. |
1. a larger diameter condenser.
2. an anatomical wedge. 3. decreased condensing pressure. |
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Composite resin is contraindicated as a
posterior restorative material in cases of: 1. Allergy to benzoyl peroxide. 2. Bruxism. 3. Lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface margin. 4. Inability to maintain a dry operating field. |
E. All of the above.
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Which of the following constituents of a
local anesthetic cartridge is most likely to be allergenic? A. Lidocaine. B. Epinephrine. C. Metabisulfite. D. Hydrochloric acid. |
C. Metabisulfite.
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Which one of the following describes the
position of the needle tip during administration of local anesthetic for the inferior alveolar nerve block? A. Anterior to the pterygomandibular raphe. B. Medial to the medial pterygoid muscle. C. Superior to the lateral pterygoid muscle. D. Lateral to the sphenomandibular ligament. |
D. Lateral to the sphenomandibular
ligament. |
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Which one of the following factors is least
important in determining the appropriate dose of drug for a patient? A. Lean body weight. B. Medical history. C. Age. D. Gender. |
D. Gender.
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Benzodiazepines have which of the
following effects? 1. Anxiolytic. 2. Sedative. 3. Anti-convulsant. 4. Analgesic. |
1. Anxiolytic.
2. Sedative. 3. Anti-convulsant. |
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The tooth preparation for a porcelain
veneer must create a/an A. rough surface for improved bonding. B. space for an appropriate thickness of the veneering material. C. margin well below the gingival crest. D. definite finish line. |
B. space for an appropriate thickness of
the veneering material. |
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A 78-year old patient presents with several
carious lesions on the root surfaces of the maxillary posterior teeth. The restorative material of choice is A. microfilled composite resin. B. hybrid composite resin. C. silver amalgam. D. glass ionomer cement. E. reinforced zinc oxide and eugenol cement. |
D. glass ionomer cement.
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The dimensional stability of polyether
impression material is considered to be good EXCEPT if the material is A. dehydrated. B. allowed to absorb water after setting. C. used in uneven thickness. D. distorted by rapid removal of the impression from the mouth. E. contaminated with latex. |
B. allowed to absorb water after setting.
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Acid etching of dentin with 10-15%
phosphoric acid for 15-20 seconds 1. removes the smear layer. 2. increases dentinal permeability. 3. opens the dentinal tubules. 4. decalcifies the intertubular and peritubular dentin. |
E. All of the above.
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For amalgam restorations, a 90
cavosurface angle accommodates the 1. condensing of amalgam. 2. compressive strength of amalgam. 3. tensile strength of amalgam. 4. compressive strength of enamel. |
E. All of the above.
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Tooth reduction for anterior tooth
preparation for porcelain fused to metal and all ceramic crowns is dictated by the following imperative(s) 1. length for adequate retentionresistance. 2. porcelain/ceramic thickness for fracture resistance. 3. clearance for occlusal function. 4. parallelism of axial walls for facilitating the path of insertion. |
E. All of the above.
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Composite resin is
CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior restorative material in cases of 1. cusp replacement. 2. bruxism. 3. lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface margin. 4. inability to maintain a dry operating field. |
E. All of the above.
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Which of the following affect(s)
polymerization of visible light cured composite resins? 1. Intensity of the light source. 2. Thickness of composite resin. 3. Proximity of light source. 4. Shade of composite resin. |
E. All of the above.
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In order to achieve a proper interproximal
contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential? 1. A larger sized condenser. 2. A thinner matrix band. 3. An anatomical wedge. 4. Use of mechanical condensation. |
1. A larger sized condenser.
2. A thinner matrix band. 3. An anatomical wedge. |
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Which of the following cements can
chemically bond to enamel? 1. Zinc phosphate cement. 2. Polycarboxylate cement. 3. Ethoxy benzoic acid cement. 4. Glass ionomer cement. |
2. Polycarboxylate cement.
4. Glass ionomer cement. |
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Which of the following SHOULD NOT be
corrected with a porcelain veneer? A. Peg lateral incisor. B. Diastema between 1.1 and 2.1. C. Cross bite on tooth 1.3. D. Enamel hypoplasia. |
C. Cross bite on tooth 1.3.
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The most likely cause of postoperative
sensitivity with Class II composite resin restorations is A. acid etching of dentin. B. microleakage at the interface. C. toxicity of the restorative material. D. overheating during the finishing process. |
B. microleakage at the interface.
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Which of the following would be a
CONTRAINDICATION for the use of a resin bonded fixed partial denture (acid etched bridge or “Maryland Bridge”)? A. Class II malocclusion. B. An opposing free end saddle removable partial. C. Previous orthodontic treatment. D. Heavily restored abutment. |
D. Heavily restored abutment.
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The "smear layer" is an important
consideration in A. plaque accumulation. B. caries removal. C. pulp regeneration. D. dentin bonding. |
D. dentin bonding.
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A silane coupling agent is used to
A. control polymerization shrinkage in composite resins. B. enhance the bond between a porcelain veneer and the resin cement. C. enhance use of a heat cured composite resin inlay. D. reduce the surface tension when investing a wax pattern. E. facilitate the soldering of gold castings. |
B. enhance the bond between a
porcelain veneer and the resin cement. |
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A 22 year old presents with a fracture of
the incisal third of tooth 2.1 exposing a small amount of dentin. The fracture occurred one hour previously. There is no mobility of the tooth but the patient complains that it is rough and sensitive to cold. The most appropriate emergency treatment is to A. open the pulp chamber, clean the canal and temporarily close with zinc oxide and eugenol. B. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply glass ionomer cement. C. smooth the surrounding enamel and apply a calcium hydroxide cement. D. place a provisional (temporary) crown. |
B. smooth the surrounding enamel and
apply glass ionomer cement. |
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Zinc phosphate cement, when used as a
luting agent for cast restorations, has which of the following properties? 1. Insolubility. 2. Anticariogenicity. 3. Chemical adhesion. 4. Mechanical retention. |
4. Mechanical retention.
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To achieve optimum strength and
esthetics, a porcelain fused to metal restoration with a porcelain butt joint margin requires a 1. 0.8 - 1.2mm shoulder. 2. sharp, well defined axiogingival line angle. 3. 90- 100 cavosurface margin. 4. finish line that is 2mm subgingival. |
1. 0.8 - 1.2mm shoulder.
2. sharp, well defined axiogingival line angle. 3. 90- 100 cavosurface margin. |
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As a dentist in Canada, it is ethical to
refuse to treat a patient on the basis of 1. religious beliefs. 2. physical handicap. 3. infectious disease. 4. recognition of lack of skill or knowledge. |
4. recognition of lack of skill or
knowledge. |
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According to the principles of ethics that
are generally accepted in Canada, a dentist may refuse to treat a patient with HIV infection for a specific procedure for the following reason(s). 1. Inadequate experience in the specific procedure. 2. Inadequate knowledge of the specific procedure. 3. Lack of instruments or equipment for this procedure. 4. Infection control procedures that are not designed for infectious patients. |
1. Inadequate experience in the specific
procedure. 2. Inadequate knowledge of the specific procedure. 3. Lack of instruments or equipment for this procedure. |
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A 8-year old child has an 8mm central
diastema. The etiology could include 1. frenum. 2. cyst. 3. mesiodens. 4. normal development. |
1. frenum.
2. cyst. 3. mesiodens. |
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The most appropriate treatment following
the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4-year old child is A. regular assessment of arch development. B. to perform space analysis. C. insertion of a space maintainer. D. extraction of the contra-lateral molar. E. extraction of the opposing molar. |
C. insertion of a space maintainer.
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