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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic
enamel on tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was most probably caused by a/an A. vitamin D deficiency. B. generalized calcium deficiency. C. high fever encountered by the patient when he had measles at age 3. D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the development of tooth 1.5. E. hereditary factor. |
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5. |
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Which of the following features would be
most indicative of a cracked tooth? A. Periapical radiolucency. B. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli. C. Pain upon biting pressure. D. Absent vitalometric response. |
C. Pain upon biting pressure.
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A 4 year old child has a normal
complement of deciduous teeth, but in appearance they are grayish and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. Radiographic examination indicates some extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. This condition is typical of A. cleidocranial dysplasia. B. amelogenesis imperfecta. C. neonatal hypoplasia. D. dentinogenesis imperfecta. |
D. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
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Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with 1. excessive orthodontic forces. 2. chronic periradicular periodontitis. 3. traumatic injury. 4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia |
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis. 3. traumatic injury |
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Which of the following results from a
necrotic pulp? A. Dentigerous cyst. B. Lateral periodontal cyst. C. Chronic periradicular periodontitis. D. Pulp polyp. |
C. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
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Which of the following is/are associated
with an unerupted tooth? 1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor. 2. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. 3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor. 4. Cementoblastoma. |
1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor. |
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An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital. B. associated with a root fracture. C. infraerupted. D. found in the permanent dentition. |
C. infraerupted.
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For which of the following pathological
conditions would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test? A. Apical cyst. B. Acute apical abscess. C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. D. Chronic apical periodontitis. |
C. Periapical cemento-osseous
dysplasia. |
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The microscopic appearance of the central
giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to that of lesions which occur in A. hyperparathyroidism. B. Paget's disease. C. cleidocranial dysplasia. D. hyperpituitarism. |
A. hyperparathyroidism.
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An ameloblastoma can develop from the
epithelial lining of which of the following cysts? A. Periradicular. B. Dentigerous. C. Residual. D. Lateral periodontal. |
B. Dentigerous.
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Radiographically, the opening of the
incisive canal may be misdiagnosed as a 1. branchial cyst. 2. nasopalatine cyst. 3. nasolabial cyst. 4. periradicular cyst. |
2. nasopalatine cyst.
4. periradicular cyst. |
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On a bite-wing radiograph of posterior
teeth, which of the following is most likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries? A. Cemento-enamel junction. B. Marginal ridge. C. Carabelli cusp. D. Calculus. E. Cemental tear |
A. Cemento-enamel junction.
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A well circumscribed 3mm radiolucent
lesion is present in the apical region of the mandibular second premolar. The tooth responds normally to vitality tests. The radiolucency is most likely A. a periradicular periodontitis. B. a dentigerous cyst. C. a rarefying osteitis. D. the mental foramen. |
D. the mental foramen.
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A patient complains of acute pain 24 hours
after the insertion of a restoration in a tooth with no preexisting periapical pathology. The tooth is vital and tender to percussion. The radiograph will show A. an apical radiolucency. B. acute osteitis. C. root resorption. D. condensing osteitis. E. normal lamina dura. |
E. normal lamina dura.
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A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will
produce a hypersensitive response if the tooth A. is nonvital. B. has a periodontal pocket. C. has a hyperemic pulp. D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis. |
C. has a hyperemic pulp.
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The most appropriate radiographic
examination for a 4 year old without visible or clinically detectable caries or anomalies, and with open proximal contacts is A. maxillary and mandibular anterior occlusals. B. a pair of posterior bite-wings. C. maxillary and mandibular posterior periapicals. D. no radiographic examination. |
D. no radiographic examination.
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One week after an amalgam restoration is
placed in the mandibular first premolar, the patient returns complaining of a sharp pain of short duration when eating or drinking something cold. Teeth respond normally to electric pulp testing and heat and the radiographs are normal. The most likely diagnosis is A. hypercementosis. B. reversible pulpitis. C. pulpal microabscess. D. acute periradicular periodontitis. |
B. reversible pulpitis.
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A 12 year old child presents with
characteristic tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and mandibular incisors and permanent first molars. The probable age at which this child received tetracycline therapy was A. 6 years. B. 4 years. C. 1 year. D. before birth. |
C. 1 year.
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A 6 year old patient has a larger than
average diastema between the maxillary central incisors. The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens. In order to manage the diastema, you should extract the mesiodens A. after its complete eruption. B. once the patient has reached the age of 12. C. only if it develops into a cystic lesion. D. as soon as possible. |
D. as soon as possible.
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A large carious exposure occurs on a
permanent first molar of a 7 year old. There is no periapical involvement and the tooth is vital. The treatment should be to A. cap the exposure with calcium hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and eugenol. B. perform a pulpotomy and place calcium hydroxide. C. perform a pulpectomy. D. extract the tooth and place a space maintainer. |
B. perform a pulpotomy and place
calcium hydroxide. |
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The most appropriate treatment following
the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4 year old child is A. regular assessment of arch development. B. to perform space analysis. C. insertion of a space maintainer. D. extraction of the contra-lateral molar. E. extraction of the opposing molar. |
C. insertion of a space maintainer.
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A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a
A. fracture of the zygomatic arch. B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla. C. fracture of the malar complex involving the floor of the orbit. D. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla. E. craniofacial dysjunction. |
B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla.
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Which of the following will impede
healing following the surgical closure of an oroantral fistula? 1. Poor flap design. 2. Excessive tissue tension. 3. Blowing the nose. 4. Sinus infection. |
E. All of the above.
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An 8 year old patient with all primary
molars still present exhibits a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. The management of this patient should be to A. plan serial extractions for more normal adjustment of the occlusion. B. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation. C. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars. D. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars. E. observe. |
E. observe.
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A 7 year old patient has a left unilateral
posterior crossbite and a left functional shift of the mandible. The most appropriate treatment for this patient is A. bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch. B. unilateral expansion of maxillary arch. C. placement of a maxillary repositioning splint. D. observation until the permanent teeth erupt. E. bilateral constriction of the mandibular arch. |
A. bilateral expansion of the maxillary
arch. |
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To prevent mesial drift of a permanent
first molar, the ideal time to place a distal extension space maintainer is A. as soon as the tooth erupts through the gingival tissue. B. after the permanent second molar has erupted. C. immediately after extraction of the primary second molar. D. as soon as the extraction site of the primary second molar has completely healed. |
C. immediately after extraction of the
primary second molar. |
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Immediately following a posterior superior
alveolar block injection, the patient's face becomes quickly and visibly swollen. The immediate treatment should be to A. use pressure followed by cold packs over the swelling. B. use hot packs over the swelling. C. refer the patient to a hospital. D. administer 100mg hydrocortisone intravenously. E. administer diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl®) 50mg intravenously |
A. use pressure followed by cold packs
over the swelling. |
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Epinephrine should NOT be used as a
vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled A. hyperthyroidism. B. hyperparathyroidism. C. myxedema. D. asthma. |
A. hyperthyroidism.
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A known insulin-dependent diabetic
patient feels unwell following the administration of a local anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty. This condition does not respond to placing the patient in a supine position. The most likely cause is A. syncope. B. adrenal insufficiency. C. hyperglycemia. D. hypoglycemia. E. carotid sinus reflex. |
D. hypoglycemia.
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Generally, glass ionomer cements contain
A. zinc oxide and distilled water. B. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid. C. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and orthophosphoric acid. D. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and polyacrylic acid. |
D. fluoroaluminosilicate powder and
polyacrylic acid |
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A fracture in an all-ceramic crown may be
caused by 1. inadequate ceramic thickness. 2. sharp line angles in the tooth preparation. 3. excessive occlusal load. 4. use of an inappropriate luting material. |
E. All of the above.
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Which of the following conditions would
NOT require antibiotic premedication before endodontic therapy? A. Valvular heart disease. B. Cardiac prosthesis. C. Persistent odontogenic fistula. D. Immunosuppressive therapy. E. Organ transplant. |
C. Persistent odontogenic fistula.
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Under normal conditions, the most
definitive test to confirm the loss of pulp vitality is A. applying warm gutta percha to the crown. B. cutting into the dentin without anesthetic. C. applying ethyl chloride to the crown. D. performing a radiographic examination of the tooth. E. performing an electric pulp test. |
B. cutting into the dentin without
anesthetic. |
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A radiopaque area within the alveolar
process containing several rudimentary teeth suggests a/an A. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. B. ameloblastoma. C. compound odontoma. D. complex odontoma. E. Pindborg tumor. |
C. compound odontoma.
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The usual adult dosage of codeine
administered orally is A. 500-1000mg. B. 250-500mg. C. 30-60mg. D. 2-5mg. |
C. 30-60mg.
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An anterior endodontically treated tooth
has been restored with a carbon fibre, a direct restorative core and a porcelain fused to metal crown. What is the most important factor influencing the prognosis of this tooth? A. Type of core material. B. Type of luting cement. C. Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure. D. Alloy composition of the post. |
C. Amount of remaining coronal tooth
structure. |
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The primary etiological factor for the
development of root caries is A. gingival recession. B. acquired xerostomia. C. poor oral hygiene. D. cigarette smoking. |
A. gingival recession.
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For a cast gold restoration, a gingival
bevel is used instead of a shoulder because a bevel 1. protects the enamel. 2. increases retention. 3. improves marginal adaptation. 4. increases the thickness of gold. |
1. protects the enamel.
3. improves marginal adaptation. |
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The most appropriate management for a
tooth with a history of previous trauma that now exhibits apical resorption is A. observation over 6 months for further resorption. B. complete instrumentation and medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. C. immediate instrumentation and obturation followed by apical curettage. D. extraction, apical resection, retrofilling and replantation. E. extraction and replacement with a fixed or removable prosthesis. |
B. complete instrumentation and
medication with intracanal calcium hydroxide. |
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The coefficient of thermal expansion of
the metal relative to the porcelain for constructing a ceramometal (porcelain fused to metal) crown should be A. slightly less. B. the same. C. slightly more. D. significantly less. |
C. slightly more.
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Overlapping contacts on a bitewing
radiograph result from 1. malalignment of teeth. 2. incorrect vertical angulation of the xray beam. 3. incorrect horizontal angulation of the x-ray beam. 4. patient movement during the exposure. |
1. malalignment of teeth.
3. incorrect horizontal angulation of the x-ray beam. |
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The primary retention of a Class II gold
inlay is achieved by 1. adding an occlusal dovetail. 2. increasing the parallelism of walls. 3. lengthening the axial walls. 4. placing a gingival bevel |
1. adding an occlusal dovetail.
2. increasing the parallelism of walls. 3. lengthening the axial walls. |
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The mesial furcation of maxillary first
molars is best probed from the A. buccal. B. buccal or lingual. C. lingual. |
C. lingual.
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Which of the following substances causes
inflammation and pain when released by pulpal fibres? A. Prostaglandin E2. B. Calcitonin gene related peptide. C. Neuraminase. D. Acetylcholine. |
A. Prostaglandin E2.
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With the exception of third molars, the
crowns of all permanent teeth are completely calcified at the age of A. 6 to 7 years. B. 4 to 6 years. C. 8 to 9 years. D. 11 to 12 years. |
C. 8 to 9 years.
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A cast partial denture replacing teeth 3.5 -
3.8 and 4.5 - 4.8 was permanently relined with acrylic resin. At the delivery appointment, when the rests of the framework are fully seated on the abutment teeth the denture base does not contact the supporting tissues. The most likely cause of the problem is A. the denture reline resin shrunk during polymerization. B. excess pressure was placed on the rests during the impression procedure. C. excess pressure was placed on the denture base area during the impression procedure. D. the patient’s tissues have remodelled |
C. excess pressure was placed on the
denture base area during the impression procedure. |
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Which of the following agents is most
effective in cold testing? A. Ice water. B. Air jet. C. CO2 (dry ice). D. Ethyl chloride. |
C. CO2 (dry ice)
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A Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency
usually arises in patients 1. who are elderly. 2. with acute infection. 3. consuming a high protein or fat diet. 4. taking systemic antibiotics. |
E. All of the above.
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The most likely indication of a poor
periodontal prognosis for a furcation involved tooth is the presence of A. wide root separation. B. narrow root separation. C. a bifurcation ridge. D. an enamel pearl. |
B. narrow root separation.
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On a semi-adjustable articulator, the
incisal guide table represents A. a reference point for the establishment of occlusal vertical dimension. B. the anterior equivalent of condylar guidance. C. a mechanical equivalent of the horizontal and vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. D. the mechanical equivalent of the Curve of Wilson. |
C. a mechanical equivalent of the
horizontal and vertical overlap of the anterior teeth. |
