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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which Career field subdivision loads nuclear and nonnuclear air-to-air munitions, and explosives and propellant devices on aircraft?
A)Nuclear Weapons B)Aircraft Armament C)Munitions Systems D)Missile Maintenance |
B)Aircraft Armament
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Which Career Field subdivision is responsible for the overall maintence of nuclear weapons, major components, and related equipment such as test and handling equipment
A)Nuclear Weapons B)Aircraft Armament C)Munitions Systems D)Missile Maintenance |
A)Nuclear Weapons
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What steps must you take first to become a top manager of the munitions systems specialty?
a. Have 12 months experience as a manager and be assigned to the career field. b. Attend a 7-level management course and have 12 months experience as a manager. c. Complete basic training, be assigned to the career field, and complete technical school. d. Attend basic training, munitions systems specialty course, and a 7-level management course. |
c. Complete basic training, be assigned to the career field, and complete technical school.
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An Airman newly assigned to the 2W0 career field is
a. a journeyman until upgraded to the 5-skill level. b. an apprentice until upgraded to the 3-skill level. c. a craftsman until upgraded to the 5-skill level. d. a helper until upgraded to the 3-skill level. |
d. a helper until upgraded to the 3-skill level.
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Reaching the 7-skill level signifies advancement from a journeyman to a
a. craftsman. b. manager. c. worker. d. helper. |
a. craftsman
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In the munitions career field, which duty is assigned to a superintendent?
a. Evaluating operational effectiveness of munitions systems. b. Planning munitions materiel management functions. c. Handling, storing, and transporting nuclear weapons. d. Identifying munitions equipment requirements. |
b. Planning munitions materiel management functions
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Which meeting is scheduled to revise or change the Career Field Education and Training Plan?
a. Munitions Product Improvement Working Group. b. Air Force Munitions Logistics Steering Group. c. Utilization and Training Workshop. d. Worldwide Munitions Conference. |
c. Utilization and Training Workshop
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Which Air Force Base is the Utilization and Training Workshop normally held?
a. Randolph. b. Lackland. c. Sheppard. d. Eglin. |
c. Sheppard
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Which course must be completed for a craftsman to be upgraded to a superintendent?
a. Air Force Explosives Safety Course. b. Air Force Senior Munitions Manager Course. c. Air Force Combat Ammunitions Center Combat Ammunition Planning and Production Course as an (SNCO). d. AFCOMAC Combat Ammunition Planning and Production Course (Airman through TSgt). |
c. Air Force Combat Ammunitions Center Combat Ammunition Planning and Production Course as an (SNCO).
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(005) Which section of the Career Field Education and Training Plan Part II identifies the specialty training standard?
a. A. b. B. c. C. d. D. |
a. A
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Which section of the Career Field Education and Training Plan Part II contains the core task table used by supervisors for upgrade requirements
a. A. b. B. c. C. d.D |
b. B
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Who chairs the annual worldwide munitions managers’ conference?
a. Squadron commanders. b. Munitions managers. c. MAJCOM personnel. d. Air Staff personnel. |
d. Air Staff personnel.
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Which agency or organization develops command supplements or directives?
a. Office of the Secretary of the Air Force. b. Department of the Air Force. c. Major command (MAJCOM). d. Air Staff. |
c. Major command (MAJCOM).
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Which agency reviews the availability and allocation forecast and develops a call-forward schedule according to mission planning, storage capacity, and munitions requirements?
a. Office of the Secretary of the Air Force. b. Department of the Air Force. c. Major command (MAJCOM). d. Air Staff |
c. Major command (MAJCOM).
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Which ammunition control point provides direct support to smaller geographic areas within the theater?
a. Regional. b. Theater. c. Tactical. d. Global. |
a. Regional
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Which command has cradle-to-grave responsibility of a weapon system?
a. Cyber Command. b. Air Combat Command. c. Air Force Materiel Command. d. United States Africa Command. |
c. Air Force Materiel Command.
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Which organization manages and maintains the Air Force munitions stockpile?
a. Air Combat Command. b. Air Force Materiel Command. c. Warner Robins Air Logistics Center. d. Air Force Global Ammunition Control Point |
d. Air Force Global Ammunition Control Point
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Which type of wing performs the primary mission of the base and usually maintains and operates the base?
a. Air base. b. Composite. c. Specialized. d. Operational. |
d. Operational.
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Which type of wing often provides functional support to a major command headquarters?
a. Air base. b. Composite. c. Specialized. d. Operational. |
a. Air base.
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Which organization performs maintenance and repair on aircraft systems and components?
a. Component Maintenance. b. Maintenance. c. Operations. d. Supply. |
b. Maintenance.
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Who must select and appoint munitions inspectors?
a. Squadron commander. b. Munitions section chiefs. c. Munitions supervision personnel. d. Munitions accountable systems officer. |
c. Munitions supervision personnel.
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Who must manage the munitions portion of the war consumable distribution objective for the assigned stock record account number?
a. Squadron commander. b. Munitions flight section chiefs. c. Munitions supervision personnel. d. Munitions accountable systems officer |
d. Munitions accountable systems officer
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Who must enforce the strict use of technical orders and pertinent publications during all explosive operations?
a. Squadron commander. b. Munitions supervision. c. Munitions flight section chiefs. d. Munitions accountable systems officer |
c. Munitions flight section chiefs.
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Which element within the production section processes/certifies munitions residue from flightline and demilitarization operations for turn-in?
a. Line delivery. b. Conventional munitions maintenance. c. Precision guided munitions maintenance. d. Munitions support equipment maintenance |
b. Conventional munitions maintenance.
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Which element within the production section inspects and tests assigned missiles?
a. Line delivery. b. Conventional munitions maintenance. c. Precision guided munitions maintenance. d. Munitions support equipment maintenance. |
c. Precision guided munitions maintenance
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Which section within the munitions flight plans, schedules, controls, and directs all munitions activities?
a. Systems. b. Materiel. c. Production. d. Supervision. |
a. Systems.
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Which element within the system section develops munitions deployments plans in coordination with munitions supervision?
a. Munitions control. b. Munitions plans and scheduling. c. Conventional munitions maintenance. d. Combat plans and mobility and training. |
d. Combat plans and mobility and training
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Which element within the system section plans and arranges the maintenance of live, inert, and dummy munitions and support equipment?
a. Munitions control. b. Munitions plans and scheduling. c. Conventional munitions maintenance. d. Combat plans and mobility and training. |
b. Munitions plans and scheduling
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Which munitions element within the material section maintains and validates accountable and auditable records?
a. Storage. b. Control. c. Inspection. d. Operations. |
d. Operations.
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Which munitions element within the material section warehouses munitions stock and equipment to ensure mission supportability?
a. Operations. b. Inspection. c. Control. d. Storage |
d. Storage
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Which munitions element within the munitions flight performs surveillance inspections on munitions in stock?
a. Operations. b. Inspection. c. Control. d. Storage. |
b. Inspection.
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Which plan is primarily developed for locations without a permanent Air Force presence and may contain only the minimum data necessary to make initial bed down decisions?
a. Operation. b. Expeditionary site. c. Munitions employment. d. In-garrison expeditionary site. |
b. Expeditionary site
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When developing a munitions employment plan, what action is the most efficient way to gather information?
a. Conduct a site survey. b. Request mission statement change. c. Conduct pre-air task orders verification. d. Request munitions requirements change. |
a. Conduct a site survey.
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The chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff issues a warning or planning order when
a. the first explosion is sited. b. word is received of the first casualties. c. circumstances indicate an imminent need to begin military operations. d. circumstances indicate a reasonable need to begin military operations. |
c. circumstances indicate an imminent need to begin military operations.
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In reference to implementing an operation or munitions employment plan, which order initiates developing a course of action?
a. Execution. b. Planning. c. Warning. d. Alert. |
c. Warning.
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In reference to implementing an operation or munitions employment plan, which order gives the combatant commander all essential execution planning information?
a. Execution. b. Planning. c. Warning. d. Alert. |
b. Planning
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In reference to implementing an operation or munitions employment plan, which order is issued by the Secretary of Defense and directs the deployment and/or employment of forces?
a. Warning. b. Planning. c. Execute. d. Alert. |
c. Execute.
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One substantial benefit of contamination avoidance is that it increases the
a. effect contaminated assets have on uncontaminated assets. b. amount of critical resources contaminated after an attack. c. time personnel are required to wear protective clothing. d. survivability of personnel |
d. survivability of personnel
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What method is preferred when protecting vehicles, equipment, and munitions stores from chemical contamination?
a. Non-porous barrier material. b. Porous material. c. Outdoor storage. d. Indoor storage |
d. Indoor storage
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Which type of material provides the best protection for munitions assets from chemical absorption?
a. Wool. b. Wood. c. Cotton. d. Plastic |
d.Plastic
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Who must ensure requirements for permanent covered bomb build areas, vehicle/aerospace ground equipment storage shelters, and covered munitions trailer holding areas are developed and constructed?
a. Conventional maintenance section chief. b. Munitions storage section chief. c. Munitions flight officers/chiefs. d. Senior munitions inspector. |
c. Munitions flight officers/chiefs.
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While in a contaminated environment, ensuring munitions personnel remain informed and monitoring all activities closely must be done by munitions personnel in which areas?
a. Supervision and munitions control. b. Supervision and munitions storage. c. Control and munitions accountability. d. Accountability and munitions storage. |
a. Supervision and munitions control.
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In reference to operational decontamination procedures, which item is issued in small booklets and when dipped in a suspected chemical, immediately changes color?
a. M291 kit. b. M295 kit. c. M9 tape. d. M8 Paper |
d. M8 Paper
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In reference to operational decontamination procedures, which item is used to decontaminate equipment and munitions?
a. M291 kit. b. M295 kit. c. M9 tape. d. M8 paper. |
b. M295 kit.
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Under which physical security protection level do nuclear weapons fall?
a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. |
a.1
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Under which physical security protection level do nonnuclear alert forces fall?
a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. |
b.2
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Under which physical security protection level do F–16 fighters fall?
a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. |
c.3
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How many entry control points should be set up for each restricted area?
a. One. b. Two. c. Three. d. Four. |
a.one
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How do you mark the boundary for a restricted area?
a. Every 50 feet. b. Every 100 feet. c. Clearly with warning signs. d. Clearly with explosive signs. |
c. Clearly with warning signs
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Which system is normally used to gain entry to a nonnuclear munitions storage area?
a. Sign-in, sign-out. b. Authentication. c. Armed guard. d. Badge. |
d.badge
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Controlled inventory item codes are used to
a. control the issue of munitions items to authorized personnel only. b. ensure the protection to munitions items while in storage. c. control the security needed while the munitions item is in transit. d. identify the degree of security while the munitions item is in storage or transit. |
d. identify the degree of security while the munitions item is in storage or transit.
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Classified items require the kind of protection that is
a. stated by the item manager. b. stated by the munitions flight chief. c. in the interest of national security. d. in the interest of national defense. |
c. in the interest of national security.
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What code is used to indicate that a specific item has a ready resale value, civilian utility or application, and is, therefore, especially subject to theft?
a. Pilferable item code. b. Sensitive items code. c. Controlled item code. d. Unclassified item code. |
a. Pilferable item code
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Standards and procedures for protecting arms and munitions vary according to
a. controlled item code. b. classified items. c. sensitive items. d. risk category. |
d. risk category.
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Which Department of Defense risk category consists of complete man-portable nonnuclear missiles and rockets?
a. I. b. II. c. III. d. IV. |
a. I.
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Which piece of information is a logistics and maintenance support indicator to operation security vulnerability?
a. Call signs. b. Power sources. c. Military orders. d. Deviations of normal procedures. |
d. Deviations of normal procedures.
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The major goal of the Air Force nuclear weapons surety program is to achieve maximum safety consistent with
a. major command directives. b. operational requirements. c. national defense policy. d. base requirements |
b. operational requirements.
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What reason is behind the Nuclear Weapons Personnel Reliability Program?
a. Ensure personnel meet the highest possible standards of individual reliability. b. It is necessary to identify personnel with emotional problems. c. Ensure personnel do not have emotional disorders. d. All people have stress in their lives. |
a. Ensure personnel meet the highest possible standards of individual reliability.
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What categories of duty positions fall under the Personnel Reliability Program?
a. Sensitive and limited. b. Controlled and critical. c. Sensitive and controlled. d. Controlled and sensitive |
b. Controlled and critical.
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Performing duties in a critical personnel reliability program position normally requires
a. detailed technical knowledge of nuclear weapon systems. b. the individual to control entry into a no-lone zone. c. a Federal Bureau of Investigation check. d. a National agency check. |
a. detailed technical knowledge of nuclear weapon systems.
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The two-person concept is designed to
a. ensure that a lone individual never has the opportunity to tamper with a nuclear weapon. b. ensure that an individual has some assistance when working around or near a nuclear weapon. c. prevent non-critical personnel from having access to nuclear weapons, or nuclear weapons delivery systems. d. prevent non-controlled personnel from having access to nuclear weapons, or nuclear weapons delivery systems. |
a. ensure that a lone individual never has the opportunity to tamper with a nuclear weapon.
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Which area would not be considered a no-lone zone?
a. An aircraft loaded with nuclear weapons. b. A storage structure with critical components. c. The convoy route of a truck carrying nuclear weapons. d. A storage structure with limited life component containers. |
d. A storage structure with limited life component containers.
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Which Air Force Instruction provides detailed criteria for Dull Sword categories and reporting?
a. 91–101. b. 91–104. c. 91–201. d. 91–221. |
d. 91–221.
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Who provides all Air Force personnel a safe and healthy work environment in which recognized hazards have been eliminated or controlled?
a. Weapons safety staff. b. Chief of safety. c. Commanders. d. Supervisors. |
c. Commanders.
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Which major command (MAJCOM) gives technical assistance to mishap investigation boards and implements corrective action involving materiel safety aspects of mishap reports?
a. Air Combat Command. b. Air Mobility Command. c. Air Force Materiel Command. d. United States Air Forces in Europe. |
c. Air Force Materiel Command.
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What Air Force (AF) form does a supervisor use to document safety training?
a. AF Form 55. b. AF Form 68. c. AF Form 623. d. AF Form 688. |
a. AF Form 55
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Which category of human factors leading to accidents includes attitude and distraction?
a. Mental. b. Physical. c. Emotional. d. Psychological |
a. Mental.
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When handling items manually, what parts of the body are most likely to receive an injury?
a. Head and shoulders. b. Hands and fingers. c. Back and spine. d. Legs and feet. |
b. Hands and fingers.
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Government owned vehicles other than those in the actual process of being loaded or unloaded may not be parked closer than how many feet from an explosives storage area or facility?
a. 10. b. 25. c. 50. d. 100. |
b. 25.
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How often are fire drills conducted within an explosive storage area?
a. Monthly. b. Quarterly. c. Semi-annually. d. Annually. |
c. Semi-annually
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When explosives are being handled, how many suitable fire extinguishers must be available for immediate use?
a. One. b. Two. c. Three. d. Four. |
b. Two.
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An electrical storm is considered “in the near vicinity” when it is within approximately how many miles of the munitions storage area?
a. Two. b. Three. c. Five. d. Six. |
c. Five.
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Conditions, procedures, and practices directly related to the work environment that create a potential for producing occupational injuries or illnesses to exposed personnel within the workplace are defined as
a. hazards. b. problems. c. situations. d. potential problems |
a. hazards
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In the Department of Defense hazard classification system, ammunition and explosives hazard classes are further subdivided into divisions based on the
a. compatibility grouping. b. intended use of the item. c. physical size of the explosive. d. nature of the hazard and its potential for injury or damage |
d. nature of the hazard and its potential for injury or damage
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Munitions are grouped into the same hazard division when they have
a. different explosive characteristics. b. like explosive characteristics. c. the same explosive weight. d. different explosive weights. |
b. like explosive characteristics.
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Hazard class 1 of the Department of Defense hazard classification system has how many divisions?
a. Two. b. Four. c. Six. d. Eight |
c. Six
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Which class/division explosions generally cause severe structural damage to adjacent objects?
a. 1.1. b. 1.2. c. 1.3. d. 1.4. |
a. 1.1.
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Some items included in explosive class/division 1.2 are
a. missiles. b. guided bomb units. c. 20mm and 30mm ammunition. d. shape charges and small arms. |
c. 20mm and 30mm ammunition.
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Which explosive class/division includes items that burn vigorously and fires that are difficult to put out?
a. 1.1. b. 1.2. c. 1.3. d. 1.4. |
c. 1.3.
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What type of report may be submitted on any event or condition that affects flight, ground, or weapons safety or occupational health?
a. Safety. b. Health. c. Hazard. d. Conditions. |
c. Hazard.
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One of the most difficult problems a supervisor has in training crewmembers is getting them to
a. follow technical order (TO) procedures. b. performing the job from memory. c. perform steps in sequence. d. verify their work. |
a. follow technical order (TO) procedures
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What is a basic principle to follow when using technical orders (TO)?
a. Memorize which TO is needed to perform a job. b. Know how to locate information. c. Know who writes TOs. d. Memorize warnings. |
b. Know how to locate information
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The typical new 11A series technical order is broken down into
a. guides. b. outlines. c. chapters. d. work packages |
d. work packages
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The cardinal principle for explosives safety is to
a. not drop, tumble, or roll munitions. b. clearly post personnel limits for the operations being conducted at each operating location. c. expose the minimum number of people to the minimum amount of explosives for the minimum amount of time. d. allow only trained personnel under supervision of someone who understands the hazards and risk of an operation may handle explosives. |
c. expose the minimum number of people to the minimum amount of explosives for the minimum amount of time
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What number of feet is the initial withdrawal distance of partially armed munitions with no fire involved?
a. 300. b. 600. c. 2,500. d. 4,000. |
a. 300
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Which category is not a hazard associated with missile systems?
a. High noise. b. Flammables. c. High voltage. d. Low pressures |
d. Low pressures
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Which munitions pose a forward firing ordnance hazard?
a. Fuzes. b. Squibs. c. Missiles. d. Guided bomb units. |
c. Missiles
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The Air Force instruction (AFI) that governs the intrinsic radiation safety program is
a. AFI 91–115. b. AFI 91–110. c. AFI 91–109. d. AFI 91–108. |
d. AFI 91–108
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What level of radiation is the annual maximum permissible amount for occupationally exposed workers?
a. 5 rems. b. 10 rems. c. 15 rems. d. 20 rems. |
a. 5 rems.
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What do you call a group of XB3 items kept on hand in a work center to enhance productivity?
a. Working stock. b. Supply stock. c. Ready stock. d. Bench stock |
d. Bench stock
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Before a container is considered reusable, which requirements must it meet?
a. Manufactured from a durable, heavy gage steel. b. Expose serviceable items to natural and induced environments and physical damage. c. Protect unserviceable items against further deterioration when returned to the depot or manufacturer. d. Highest total packaging, maintenance, storage, and transportation costs for the expected lifetime of the item it protects. |
c. Protect unserviceable items against further deterioration when returned to the depot or manufacturer
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The maintenance data documentation collection system is described as a system
a. for emergency reporting in a high-security mode. b. with a collection process, a storage process, and a retrieval process. c. that shows exactly what nuclear weapons and components are in your inventory. d. designed to automate nuclear ordnance commodity management accounting |
b. with a collection process, a storage process, and a retrieval process
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Management uses maintenance data collection information for all of the following purposes except to
a. identify equipment configuration. b. generate weapon status reports. c. project workload and scheduling requirements. d. assure accomplishment of time compliance technical orders. |
b. generate weapon status reports
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Periodic maintenance is also referred to as what other kind of maintenance?
a. Known. b. Modified. c. Scheduled. d. Predictable |
c. Scheduled
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In-progress inspections are required for operations that
a. include critical internal component connections. b. are used for task certification. c. involve war reserved materiel. d. involve element core tasks. |
a. include critical internal component connections
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Each remark entered on an AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data Record is preceded by the date of the inspection or maintenance action and suffixed with the name of the
a. organization making the entry. b. person making the entry. c. equipment repaired. d. equipment certifier |
a. organization making the entry.
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When using the “CORRECTIVE ACTION” block on AFTO Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, how do you correct an erroneous red dash or red diagonal entry?
a. Erase it and enter the correct symbol. b. Line through it and initial the SYMBOL block. c. Enter “Symbol entered in error, no discrepancy exits” and enter their minimum signature in the “CORRECTED BY” block. d. Enter “Symbol entered in error, no discrepancy exits” and enter their minimum signature in the “INPSECTED BY” block. |
c. Enter “Symbol entered in error, no discrepancy exits” and enter their minimum signature in the “CORRECTED BY” block.
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The emphasis on reliability has evolved from all of the following except for the
a. present policy of securing warranties on newly purchased weapons system require reliability data be gathered and maintained to enforce the warranty, should the situation arise. b. need to determine how well a piece of equipment meets its functioning requirement and/or how that piece will perform in the future. c. DOD has seen the value of reliability studies and has issued a series of mandates and regulations that directs the implementation of these programs. d. fact that today’s weaponry systems must be as accurate as possible. |
d. fact that today’s weaponry systems must be as accurate as possible
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Performing periodic functional testing on missile systems falls under which maintenance level?
a. Organizational. b. Intermediate. c. Depot. d. Base. |
b. Intermediate
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All of the following missiles are tracked using the tactical missile reporting system except for
a. AGM–65. b. AGM–86. c. AIM–9. d. AIM–7. |
b. AGM–86.
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