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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. (001) The Secretary of the Air Force for Financial Management and Comptroller (SAF/FM) is
responsible for proper performance of what financial management functions?
a. All levels.
b. MAJCOM.
c. Base or wing level.
d. Nonappropriated funds (NAF) only.
a. All levels
2. (001) Which Air Staff office serves as technical advisor in carrying out the Air Force’s financial
management responsibilities?
a. SAF/FMB.
b. SAF/FME.
c. SAF/FMP.
d. SAF/AFAFO.
a. SAF/FMB.
3. (002) Which Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) center provides service to Army
and Air Force personnel?
a. Cleveland.
b. Columbus.
c. Indianapolis.
d. Kansas City.
c. Indianapolis.
4. (002) The Secretary of Defense created the Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) to
reduce costs of accounting and finance operations and to
a. eliminate redundancy.
b. consolidate DFAS centers.
c. strengthen internal controls.
d. strengthen financial management.
d. strengthen financial management.
5. (003) Although the Air Force Financial Service Center (AFFSC) processes all non-Defense Travel
System (DTS) travel, it does not entirely replace the
a. Air Force Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO).
b. base-level Financial Services Office functions.
c. base-level Financial Analysis functions.
d. customer service activities.
b. base-level Financial Services Office functions.
6. (003) Which of the three divisions within the Center of Expertise (CoE) develops new analytical
capabilities?
a. Operations.
b. Data Integration.
c. Plans and Special Projects.
d. Specialized financial analysis.
c. Plans and Special Projects.
7. (004) During the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW), who is responsible for reviewing all
job tasks and matching them to the applicable skill level?
a. Subject Matter Experts.
b. Career Field Functional Manager.
c. MAJCOM Functional Managers.
d. Air Force Occupational Measurement Squadron.
c. MAJCOM Functional Managers.
8. (004) What information does the Occupational Measurement Squadron provide through
Occupational Survey Reports?
a. Strawman task listing.
b. Functional area job tasks.
c. Specialty training standards.
d. Completed Career Field Education and Training Plan.
b. Functional area job tasks.
9. (004) Who creates the “strawman” task listing and submits it to the Utilization and Training
Workshop (U&TW) membership?
a. Subject matter expert (SME).
b. MAJCOM training managers.
c. MAJCOM functional managers.
d. Occupational measurement squadron.
a. Subject matter expert (SME).
10. (005) Benefits of electronic records include ease of use, portability with today’s expeditionary
force and
a. access to reports for metrics.
b. document training.
c. status of training.
d. consistency.
d. consistency.
11. (005) Which of the following is not a benefit of electronic training records?
a. Portability with today’s expeditionary force.
b. Consistency across the career field.
c. Visibility of training status.
d. Ease of use.
c. Visibility of training status
12. (005) The success of an on-the-job training program is the direct result of a dedicated, focused
effort by
a. trainers and trainees.
b. trainers and supervisors.
c. management and trainees.
d. management and the comptroller.
a. trainers and trainees.
13. (005) Since it is mandatory for you to use on-the-job (OJT) training guides for core task
certification, when should you download them from SAF/FM Web site?
a. The day you are ready to use them.
b. 2 months in advance of need date.
c. 1 month in advance of need date.
d. 1 week in advance of need date.
a. The day you are ready to use them.
14. (006) The nomination for the Aces High award
a. is formatted per MAJCOM instructions.
b. focuses on career background and accomplishments.
c. only lists outstanding achievement for the previous year.
d. asks for leadership, job knowledge, and community accomplishment information.
b. focuses on career background and accomplishments.
15. (007) Which listening skill is directed toward understanding the customer rather than attempting
to change that person?
a. Nondefensive.
b. Other directed.
c. Listening as a receiver.
d. Imagine the roles of others.
c. Listening as a receiver.
16. (007) Which of the six recommendations for returning a phone call recommends that you should
always be pleasant?
a. One.
b. Three.
c. Five.
d. Six.
c. Five.
17. (007) Customer satisfaction research will help you determine
a. your production capabilities.
b. your strengths and weaknesses.
c. general functional areas that need improvement.
d. what action is needed to change work center processes.
b. your strengths and weaknesses.
18. (008) Which organization writes, revises, and negotiates with the contracted credit card company
on all issues for the government travel charge card program?
a. DRU.
b. GSA.
c. SAF/FM.
d. MAJCOM.
b. GSA.
19. (008) The government travel card program currently uses
a. electronic Cash.
b. a limited spend account.
c. a controlled spend account.
d. electronic funds transfer for advances.
c. a controlled spend account
20. (009) The Management Control Program is structured to meet the requirements of the
a. installation commander.
b. Air Force Audit Agency.
c. Office of Management and Budget.
d. Federal Managers’ Financial Integrity Act.
d. Federal Managers’ Financial Integrity Act.
21. (009) A condition that has a significant negative impact on an organization’s management control
objectives is known as
a. a risk.
b. an audit finding.
c. a control weakness.
d. a material weakness.
d. a material weakness.
22. (010) Who appoints the quality assurance manager who has the primary responsibility for
administering the Quality Assurance Program?
a. FM.
b. FSO.
c. FMA officer.
d. Wing commander.
a. FM
23. (010) How often should a Quality Assurance Plan be reviewed to ensure that all planned activities
are accomplished?
a. Weekly.
b. Monthly.
c. Quarterly.
d. Annually.
b. Monthly
24. (010) Which process tool provides the comptroller with an independent review of a functional
area?
a. Compliance Review.
b. Performance Indicator.
c. Quality Assurance Review.
d. Discrepancy Tracking Form.
c. Quality Assurance Review
25. (011) The commander appointed point of contact (POC) for the self-inspection is not required to
a. explain a process.
b. validate each line item.
c. go through each line item.
d. answer a question honestly.
b. validate each line item
26. (011) What does the quality assurance manager (QAM) do once the travel review is complete?
a. Provide a report to the Financial Services Officer.
b. File a report in the quality assurance plan.
c. Provide a report to the Commander.
d. Nothing.
a. Provide a report to the Financial Services Officer
27. (011) Which Defense Joint Military Pay System transaction is processed to establish a Pay Record
Accessibility indicator for members not appearing on the Off-line Reporting Control roster?
a. SC03.
b. SC04.
c. SG03.
d. SG04.
b. SC04
28. (012) To sustain successful operations, the Air Force depends on measuring its performance and
examining its procedures through the
a. Quality Assurance Program (QAP).
b. Air Force Audit Agency (AFAA).
c. Air Force Assistance Fund (AFAF).
d. Federal Managers Financial Integrity Act (FMFIA).
b. Air Force Audit Agency (AFAA).
29. (012) Under the Air Force audit program, who selects an activity for audit?
a. Comptroller.
b. Wing Commander.
c. Air Force Audit Agency.
d. Financial Management functional areas.
c. Air Force Audit Agency
30. (013) How many steps are needed for successful decision support?
a. Five.
b. Six.
c. Seven.
d. Eight.
d. Eight
31. (013) What percentage of visual information do we retain from a presentation?
a. 7.
b. 38.
c. 55.
d. 76.
c. 55
32. (013) Normally, what is the percentage of non-value added activities in a process?
a. 70.
b. 80.
c. 90.
d. 95.
b. 80
33. (013) Waste is pervasive and difficult to see due to the distributive nature of most
a. transactional work.
b. analytical processes.
c. non value added items.
d. administrative process.
a. transactional work
34. (014) Who ensures that two terminal area security officers (TASO) are appointed at each field
site?
a. Comptroller.
b. Chief, Customer Service.
c. Chief, Customer Support.
d. Financial Services Officer.
d. Financial Services Officer
35. (014) How often should a terminal area security officer (TASO) ensure that USERID validations
are completed?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semi-annually.
d. Annually.
c. Semi-annually.
36. (015) Which of the following is not a type of inquiry request in Defense Joint Military Pay
System (DJMS)?
a. Table.
b. Group.
c. Individual.
d. Format identification (FID).
c. Individual.
37. (016) Which leave and earnings statement section lists the basic allowance for housing a member
receives?
a. Remarks.
b. Pay data.
c. ID section.
d. Current pay information.
b. Pay data
38. (016) Which leave and earnings statement section lists total entitlements and total deductions year
to date?
a. Taxes.
b. Remarks.
c. Pay Data.
d. Entitlements.
b. Remarks
39. (017) Which of the following is not characterized as a Case Management System (CMS) case?
a. Documents.
b. Processes.
c. Problems.
d. Queries.
a. Documents.
40. (018) In the Case Management System (CMS) what do you do after you enter a member’s social
security number in the Enter/Upgrade/Request status on a “case” section?
a. Click on the Add New Case button.
b. Read the comment sections section.
c. Select the applicable subject from the pull-down menu.
d. Determine if the individual is being paid through the normal DJMS system.
c. Select the applicable subject from the pull-down menu.
41. (018) What is your first action if you need to add comments or attachments to a case that is not
currently assigned to your agency?
a. Refer the case.
b. Click the update link.
c. Select the case you want to update.
d. Add comments or attachments to the case and click update.
c. Select the case you want to update
42. (019) Which Defense Travel System (DTS) report lists members who may be entitled to foreign
duty pay?
a. Trip status.
b. Unsubmitted voucher.
c. Management Information System (MIS).
d. Outside the Continental United States (OCONUS).
d. Outside the Continental United States (OCONUS).
43. (020) A member’s longevity is based on the member’s
a. grade.
b. pay date.
c. time in grade.
d. time on station.
b. pay date.
44. (020) How many days of pay would a member receive for the pay period if he or she entered
active duty on 19 February in a non-leap year?
a. 9.
b. 10.
c. 11.
d. 12.
d. 12.
45. (020) If a member separates from active duty on 28 February of a non leap year, what is the
maximum number of days of basic pay he or she receives for February?
a. 27.
b. 28.
c. 29.
d. 30.
d. 30.
46. (020) How many days of basic pay does a member who only serves on active duty from 15 March
through 5 April receive?
a. 20.
b. 21.
c. 22.
d. 23.
c. 22.
47. (021) The Initial Enlistment Bonus (incentive) is offered to enlistees as an incentive to enlist
a. as military linguist.
b. in hard-to-fill jobs.
c. in critical career fields.
d. in hazardous duty positions.
c. in critical career fields
48. (021) Who determines if a member is eligible to receive hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP)?
a. Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM).
b. Financial Services Office (FSO).
c. Member’s major command (MAJCOM).
d. Member’s unit commander.
a. Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM).
49. (021) If all other qualifications are met, which pay must the member be entitled to in order to
receive hostile fire pay?
a. Basic pay.
b. Foreign duty pay.
c. Special duty assignment pay.
d. Hazardous duty incentive pay.
a. Basic pay
50. (021) To make a Career Status Bonus selection, a member must fill out and submit which form?
a. AF Form 2157.
b. DD Form 2839.
c. AF Form 616.
d. DD Form 1081.
b. DD Form 2839.
51. (022) What is the first step when processing hostile fire/imminent danger pay?
a. Log into Defense Military Pay Office (DMO) system.
b. Ask member for social security number.
c. Verify source document.
d. Verify country code.
c. Verify source document
52. (022) When reporting HF/IDP in Defense Military Pay Office (DMO) what do you do after you
input your initials in the source of input section?
a. Type in 2301.
b. Fill in the member’s country code.
c. Type in the format identification (FID).
d. Fill in the hostile fire/imminent danger pay (HFP/IDP) qualifier.
c. Type in the format identification (FID).
53. (022) In the Defense Military Pay Office (DMO) system, what action is taken after selecting “new
cycle” from the drop down box?
a. Click ok.
b. Add cycle number.
c. Choose the transaction type.
d. Type in the format identification (FID).
b. Add cycle number
54. (023) The medical special pay for physicians, which is based upon training status and years of
creditable medical service, is
a. Board Certified Pay (BCP).
b. Incentive Special Pay (ISP).
c. Variable Special Pay (VSP).
d. Additional Special Pay (ASP).
c. Variable Special Pay (VSP)
55. (024) What action must the Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) take if it cannot
convince a bank to waive charges against an employee’s account because of faulty delivery of
pay?
a. Contact the Federal Reserve Bank (FRB) that services that particular institution for assistance.
b. Reimburse the employee and provide letters of explanation to any holder of dishonored checks.
c. Request reimbursement of check charges from the FRB with assistance from the employee’s
union.
d. Request reimbursement of check charges from the treasury through the local FRB.
b. Reimburse the employee and provide letters of explanation to any holder of dishonored checks.
56. (025) What figure is used as the basis for Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA) tax?
a. Total net pay for each pay period.
b. Total gross pay for each pay period.
c. Net pay and any entitlement not subject to federal tax.
d. Gross pay and any entitlement not subject to federal tax.
b. Total gross pay for each pay period.
57. (025) Employees covered under the Civil Service Retirement System (CSRS) are subject to
a. Medicare and Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA) tax.
b. Federal Income Tax Withholding (FITW) and FICA tax.
c. Medicare tax only.
d. FITW tax only.
c. Medicare tax only.
58. (026) What documentation is required in order to show relationship to a stepchild?
a. Marriage certificate and final adoption decree.
b. Marriage certificate and birth certificate.
c. Marriage certificate only.
d. Birth certificate only.
b. Marriage certificate and birth certificate.
59. (026) When are members not required to recertify their Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH)
entitlement?
a. Upon Permanent Change of Station (PCS) arrival.
b. Within 60 days of separation or retirement.
c. Upon PCS departure.
d. Every 4 years.
c. Upon PCS departure.
60. (026) What is entered into Defense Military Pay Office (DMO) system when processing normal
Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) and the action indicator has already been entered?
a. Assignment to government quarters.
b. The format identification (FID).
c. The effective date.
d. The amount due.
c. The effective date
61. (027) Which of these is not considered a primary dependent?
a. Spouse.
b. Parent.
c. Stepchild under 21 years of age.
d. Child born out of wedlock whose paternity is established.
b. Parent
62. (027) Who performs dependency redeterminations, and how often are they done?
a. Military Personnel Flight (MPF); annually.
b. Financial Services Officer (FSO); annually.
c. Financial Services Office (FSO); biannually.
d. Defense Finance and Accounting Service-Indianapolis (DFAS-IN); annually.
d. Defense Finance and Accounting Service-Indianapolis (DFAS-IN); annually.
63. (028) Enlisted permanent party members assigned single government quarters may be authorized
Basic Allowance for Subsistence (BAS) without deductions when they miss
a. 20 percent of meals over 7 months in a 12-month period.
b. 20 percent of meals over 12 months in a 12-month period.
c. 25 percent of meals over 7 months in a 12-month period.
d. 25 percent of meals over 12 months in a 12-month period.
a. 20 percent of meals over 7 months in a 12-month period.
64. (028) If a member is entitled to a different type of Basic Allowance for Subsistence (BAS) and is
not receiving it, when you get an AF Form 220 authorizing the change, you process what
transaction?
a. DN01.
b. DN02.
c. DN03.
d. DN04.
b. DN02.
65. (028) When computing Basic Allowance for Subsistence (BAS), in step 2, you
a. deduct meals.
b. deduct meals for days of leave.
c. deduct the full daily entitlement.
d. determine if there is anything to deduct.
d. determine if there is anything to deduct.
66. (028) When processing retroactive meal collections what option for accomplishing retroactive
collections requires multiple inputs and manual tracking of the amount collected?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.
b. Two.
67. (028) What transaction code in the Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) will create a
sizeable meal charge for the period of uncharged days?
a. DN01.
b. DS01.
c. DN03.
d. DS03.
a. DN01.
68. (029) An officer is restricted from entitlement to an initial uniform allowance when the period of
duty does not require wearing of the uniform and the officer is
a. not physically qualified for active duty before entitlement.
b. physically qualified for active duty before entitlement.
c. disqualified from his/her career field.
d. not qualified to attend training.
a. not physically qualified for active duty before entitlement.
69. (029) A member enters the Air Force in January 2008. When will the first payment of standard
clothing maintenance allowance be paid?
a. End of month (EOM) January 2011.
b. EOM December 2011.
c. EOM January 2012.
d. EOM December 2012.
c. EOM January 2012
70. (029) A temporary duty civilian clothing allowance is paid when a member performs a temporary
duty (TDY) for at least how many cumulative days in a 30-day period?
a. 10.
b. 15.
c. 20.
d. 25.
b. 15
71. (030) When computing family separation allowance-T (FSA-T) you would never pay
a. delays en route.
b. the day of return.
c. the day of departure.
d. the 29th day of February in a leap year.
b. the day of return
72. (030) If block 11 of the DD Form 1561is filled out, what type of separation allowance is being
claimed?
a. Family Separation Allowance-Permanent Change of Station (FSA-R).
b. Family Separation Housing Allowance (FSH).
c. Family Separation Allowance-TDY (FSA-T).
d. None, there is no such block in the DD Form 1561.
a. Family Separation Allowance-Permanent Change of Station (FSA-R).
73. (031) If a member, a spouse (not entitled to basic pay), and one 12 year old dependent claim
temporary lodging expense (TLE) for their CONUS to CONUS move, what applicable
percentage is multiplied against the meals and incidentals (M&IE)?
a. 65%.
b. 100%.
c. 125%.
d. 135%.
d. 135%.
74. (032) The maximum number of days authorized for temporary lodging allowance is
a. Temporary Lodging Allowance-Initial (TLA-I) is 60 days; Temporary Lodging Allowance-
Departure (TLA-D) is 20 days.
b. TLA-I is 20 days; TLA-D is 60 days.
c. TLA-I is 10 days; TLA-D is 60 days.
d. TLA-I is 60 days; TLA-D is 10 days.
d. TLA-I is 60 days; TLA-D is 10 days.
75. (032) When cooking facilities are available, computation for Temporary Lodging Allowance
(TLA) is based on what percentage of meals and incidentals (M&IE) rate?
a. 25.
b. 46.
c. 50.
d. 66.
c. 50.
76. (033) What station allowance is used to make a residence habitable using average expenses?
a. Overseas Housing Allowance (OHA).
b. Cost-of-Living Allowance (COLA).
c. Move-In Housing Allowance (MIHA) rent.
d. MIHA miscellaneous.
d. MIHA miscellaneous.
77. (033) What percentage of the utility/recurring maintenance allowance is used when computing
monthly overseas housing allowance for members without dependents?
a. 90.
b. 75.
c. 65.
d. 50.
b. 75.
78. (033) What effect does the permanent change of station departure transaction have on payment of
cost-of-living allowance?
a. Starts it the day of arrival at the outside continental United States (OCONUS) locations.
b. Starts it the day after arrival date in the OCONUS location.
c. Stops it one day prior to the departure date/OCONUS to CONUS.
d. Stops it one day after the departure date/CONUS to OCONUS.
c. Stops it one day prior to the departure date/OCONUS to CONUS.
79. (034) Under normal circumstances, if a member chooses to deposit money into the Savings
Deposit program you first
a. process a DS01.
b. prepare a DD Form 1131.
c. count the member’s deposit amount three times.
d. compute the amount the member can deposit.
d. compute the amount the member can deposit.
80. (035) What is the maximum number of discretionary allotments authorized?
a. Four.
b. Five.
c. Six.
d. Seven.
c. Six.
81. (035) Which allotment is for a defined period of time?
a. Bond.
b. Savings allotment.
c. Dependent allotment.
d. Combined Federal Campaign.
d. Combined Federal Campaign
82. (036) In the financial services office, you will not
a. answer Thrift Savings Plan (TSP) related questions.
b. forward TSP contributions to the National Finance Center.
c. process enrollment forms in the Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS).
d. forward original TSP–1 to HQ Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) for filing.
b. forward TSP contributions to the National Finance Center
83. (037) Factors that affect the amount of federal tax are marital status,
a. dependency status, and deductions.
b. number of dependents, and deductions.
c. number of exemptions, and dependency status.
d. number of exemptions, and additional withholding.
d. number of exemptions, and additional withholding.
84. (037) Which step in computing Federal Income Tax Withholding (FITW) has you adding all
items of pay?
a. Step 1.
b. Step 2.
c. Step 3.
d. Step 4.
a. Step 1.
85. (037) What step in computing Federal Income Tax Withholding (FITW) has you multiplying the
number of exemptions claimed times the exemption amount?
a. Step 1.
b. Step 2.
c. Step 3.
d. Step 4.
b. Step 2.
86. (038) When are residents of Arizona exempt from State Income Tax Withholding (SITW)?
a. While serving inside the state.
b. While serving outside the state.
c. While assigned overseas.
d. Never, Arizona residents must pay SITW.
d. Never, Arizona residents must pay SITW.
87. (038) Which state requires members arriving on permanent change of station to recertify
exemption from State Income Tax Withholding (SITW)?
a. Connecticut.
b. Arizona.
c. Florida.
d. Texas.
a. Connecticut
88. (038) You should brief anyone claiming Puerto Rico for state income tax purposes of their
liability since
a. Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) does not withhold State Income Tax Withholding
(SITW) and the member is liable.
b. most members will receive refunds for all amounts withheld.
c. the laws of Puerto Rico are subject to federal interpretation.
d. tax withholding is inadequate.
a. Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) does not withhold State Income Tax Withholding
(SITW) and the member is liable.
89. (039) A military contingency operation area designated by public law to receive the same tax
benefits as a combat zone, but must be designated as a hostile fire/imminent danger pay area is
called a
a. CCA.
b. HDOA.
c. QHDA.
d. IDCA.
c. QHDA.
90. (040) What responsibility does the Joint Personal Property Shipping Office (JPPSO)—San
Antonio have before submitting a rebuttal for excess cost of household goods?
a. Processes a DR01 to start collection action.
b. Forwards the DD Form 139 to the member for notification.
c. Sends the DD Form 139 to you and processes a suspended DR01.
d. Sends the DD Form 139 to you and collects the debt immediately.
c. Sends the DD Form 139 to you and processes a suspended DR01.
91. (041) After contacting a member concerning a tax levy, the member must report to the financial
services office within how many workdays to be briefed on resolving the debt?
a. 10.
b. 7.
c. 5.
d. 3.
d. 3.
92. (041) Who processes debt transactions relating to Deferred Payment Program debts?
a. Financial Services Office (FSO).
b. Headquarters, Army-Air Force Exchange Services (HQ AAFES).
c. Defense Finance and Accounting Service-Cleveland (DFAS-CL).
d. Defense Finance and Accounting Service-Indianapolis (DFAS-IN).
b. Headquarters, Army-Air Force Exchange Services (HQ AAFES).
93. (041) What action do you take when you receive a UR03 management notice concerning a debt to
the Army-Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES)?
a. Take no action.
b. Suspend the debts.
c. Contact the member about 20 percent rule.
d. Ensure the two-thirds rule is followed.
d. Ensure the two-thirds rule is followed.
94. (042) You are required to provide written notification to a member regarding a debt
a. within 15 days of discovery of the debt.
b. which affects pay and allowances only.
c. when they were given no prior notification.
d. when it exceeds two-thirds of disposable pay.
c. when they were given no prior notification.
95. (042) Within how many days should you perform follow-up if a remission case has not appeared
on the open case listing?
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.
c. 45.
96. (042) When submitting a letter to the commander for appeal of a debt, the member must include
all of the following except
a. evidence refuting the debt.
b. the reason for protesting the debt.
c. a statement that collection would cause undue hardship.
d. AF Form 1782, Application for Waiver of Erroneous Payments.
d. AF Form 1782, Application for Waiver of Erroneous Payments.
97. (042) What option does a member have if a rebuttal for an excess household goods debt is
disapproved?
a. No options.
b. Appeal the debt.
c. File a remission.
d. Submit more evidence.
c. File a remission.
98. (042) Dishonored commissary checks are
a. prorated if approved.
b. not subject to the two-thirds rule.
c. subject to the same repayment options as other debts.
d. processed directly by Headquarters, Army-Air Force Exchange Service (HQ AAFES).
b. not subject to the two-thirds rule.
99. (043) What corrective action is taken if a code on the Open or Suspended Questionable
Indebtedness Listing is a B, action indicator 18 over 5 months old?
a. Determine reason for suspension if the action code is Q8.
b. Process a resume transaction to begin collection if member has accrued pay.
c. Determine the approval level before processing a change to accelerate repay.
d. Determine the approval level before processing a change to increase deduction amount.
a. Determine reason for suspension if the action code is Q8
100. (044) Which type of pay is subject to a loss of entitlement known as forfeiture?
a. Bonuses.
b. Special pays.
c. Hardship duty pay.
d. Involuntary allotments.
c. Hardship duty pay