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294 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A-10
1. What components make up the ICS? |
1. The intercom control panel, headset/microphone assembly, and the ground maintenance receptacle.
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A-10
2. Where is the ground maintenance receptacle located? |
2. Access F71.
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A-10
3. What provision is included in the ICS during use of the aerial refueling receptacle? |
3. Direct communication with the tanker aircraft to eliminate radio communications during refuelingprocedures.
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A-10
4. When does the ICS become functional? |
4. When aircraft power is applied.
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A-10
5. The ARC–210 Radio #2 transmitter is selected by holding the mic switch in which position? |
5. Down.
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A-10
6. What is the purpose of the HM switch? |
6. To provide hands-free intercom communication without the use of the communications mic switch on thethrottle.
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A-10
7. Which audio signals are monitored regardless of ICP switch settings? |
7. IFF, landing gear, stall and peak performance warning signals, and AN/ALR–69 RWR.
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A-10
8. What is the purpose of the rotary selector switch on the ICP? |
8. Provides for the selection of interphone and radio transmitter microphone and keying circuits.
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A-10
9. What is the function of the call switch on the ICP? |
9. It is not used on the A–10.
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A-10
10. Which ICP control would allow the adjustment of all audio outputs simultaneously? |
10. VOL control.
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A-10
Column A Column B___(1) A device that converts sound waves into usable electronicaudio signals.___(2) Strengthens, conditions, and reproduces electronic audiosignals.___(3) Electronic equipment that generates and amplifies a carrierwave modulates it with a meaningful signal and radiates theresulting signal from an antenna.___(4) A device that efficiently couples electromagnetic energy infree space with a transmitter or receiver.___(5) A device that converts incoming electromagnetic energy todistinguishable forms.___(6) A device that converts electrical audio signals to audiblesound.___(7) Displays the selected UHF/ADF frequency.___(8) Allows the pilot to manually select the upper or lower UHFantenna.___(9) The A–10 UHF radio system uses two for communication.The upper is located on the backbone behind the canopy andthe lower is on the underside of the aircraft.___(10) This LRU is used in conjunction with the UHF RT,providing bearing data relative to selected UHF radio stationsand is displayed on the HSI.a. ADF Antenna.b. Amplifier.c. Antenna.d. Antenna Select Control Panel.e. Microphone.f. RCI or RFI.g. Receiver.h. R/T.i. Speaker.j. Transimtter.k. UHF Antenna. |
(1) e.(2) b.(3) j.(4) c.(5) g.(6) i.(7) f.(8) d.(9) k.(10) a.
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A-10
2. Which UHF system component is located on the left console and consists of a control panel and areceiver/transmitter in a single unit? |
2. R/T.
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A-10
3. Which UHF system component is located on the upper left side of the main instrument panel anddisplays the selected UHF/ADF frequency? |
3. RCI or RFI.
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A-10
4. Which UHF system component is located on the aft left console and allows the pilot to manuallyselect the upper or lower UHF antenna? |
4. Antenna Select Control Panel.
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A-10
5. Where are the upper and lower UHF antennas located? |
5. The upper antenna is located on the backbone behind the canopy and the lower antenna is on the undersideof the aircraft in the center of panel F5.
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A-10
6. Where is the ADF antenna located? |
6. Under access panel F3 at the nose of the A–10.
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A-10
7. Where is the microphone switch located and what does it provide? |
7. On the right throttle grip assembly; it enables transmission of the UHF, VHF/AM, VHF/FM radios, and theintercommunications system.
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A-10
8. Which LRU is a self-contained, amplitude modulated (AM) receiver/transmitter? |
8. ARC–164 RT–1505A UHF/HQ radio R/T.
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A-10
9. What is the frequency range of the UHF RT? |
9. 225.000 MHz to 399.975 MHz.
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A-10
10. What is the maximum number of UHF R/T channels? |
10. 7000 channels.
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A-10
11. What is the channel frequency spacing? |
11. 25 KHz (.025MHz) increments.
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A-10
12. What is the number of available UHF preset channels? |
12. 20 presets.
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A-10
13. What is the operating frequency of the guard receiver? |
13. 243.000 MHz.
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A-10
14. What is the transmitted power output of the UHF RT? |
14. 10 Watts.
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A-10
15. What is the distance the UHF transmit signal can travel? |
15. 250 to 300 nautical miles.
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A-10
16. What is the UHF R/T input power requirement? |
16. 28 VDC.
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A-10
17. Which UHF radio control or indicator displays the selected channel when the MNL-PRESETGRDswitch is set to preset or the selected memory location when radio set is in the MWOD loadmode? |
17. Channel Indicator.
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A-10
18. Which UHF radio control or indicator selects desired preset channels (1 to 20) during presetoperation and selects the desired memory locations when radio set is in the MWOD load mode(20 through 14 and 1)? |
18. Preset CHAN Switch.
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A-10
19. Which UHF radio control or indicator when pressed initiates an alternate display on the F/S andCHAN indicators for five seconds? |
19. Status switch.
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A-10
20. Which UHF radio control or indicator determines the method of frequency selection? |
20. MNL-PRESET-GRD Switch.
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A-10
21. Which UHF radio control or indicator enables or disables noise quieting of the radio mainreceiver? |
21. Squelch switch.
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A-10
22. Which UHF radio control or indicator increases or decreases the audio level? |
22. Volume control switch.
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A-10
23. Which UHF radio control or indicator has a three-position toggle switch with two positions beingspring loaded? |
23. T-TONE switch.
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A-10
24. Which UHF radio control or indicator selects the overall operating modes? |
24. Function switch.
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A-10
25. Which UHF radio control or indicator is the left-most switch is the 100 MHz switch, also referredto as the 2–3–A switch? |
25. Frequency select switches.
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A-10
26. Which UHF radio control or indicator by momentarily depressing the switch will light allsegments of the F/S and CHAN indicators? |
26. Test Display switch.
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A-10
27. Which UHF radio control or indicator displays the individual frequency switch settings? |
27. The LCD F/S indicator.
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A-10
28. Which switch on the UHF radio adjusts the level of noise quieting for the main receiver? |
28. MN SQ.
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A-10
29. Which switch on the UHF radio erases all MWOD elements? |
29. Zero switch.
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A-10
30. What is used on the UHF radio for automatic loading of MWOD’s using a KYK–13/TSECdevice? |
30. Fill connector.
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A-10
31. What is the function of the load switch? |
31. Loads frequency data displayed on the F/S indicator into preset channels 1 to 19 as selected by the CHANswitch. Preset channel 20 is reserved for MWOD operating mode data. (220.0XX). Initiates data transferfrom the KYK–13 electronic keying device.
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A-10
32. Briefly describe how the have quick (HQ) operates? |
32. Frequency hopping technique in which the communication frequency hops in time over a set of differentfrequencies with the transmitter and receiver in synchronization with each other.
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A-10
33. In order for the HQ radio to provide anti-jam communications, what parameters are required? |
33. Word-of-Day, Have Quick Nets, & Time-of-Day.
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A-10
34. What does the WOD determine? |
34. The frequency-hopping pattern and which frequencies will be used.
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A-10
35. What does a HQ net determine? |
35. The starting frequency within the radio’s hopset and in what order they are used.
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A-10
36. How can aircraft on different nets operate simultaneously in the anti-jam mode? |
36. By sharing a common WOD.
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A-10
37. Why is a TOD important? |
37. In order for two or more Have Quick radios to communicate with each other in the anti-jam mode, theymust have the same TOD.
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A-10
38. What does the TOD provide? |
38. The TOD enables all Have Quick radios that are using the same WOD and net number the necessary timereference so that they ‘frequency hop’ at the same instant in time in the anti-jam mode.
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A-10
39. List three ways a TOD message can be obtained. |
39. The HQ time-of-day can be obtained directly from another HQ radio, internally from the EGI system, orfrom a master TOD generator at a remote facility.
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A-10
40. When is a TOD emergency clock start accomplished? |
40. The pilot may wish to start the radio’s clock at an arbitrary time in the event that the network TOD (Timeof-Day) is lost.
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A-10
41. What is the maximum number of WODs that may be stored in an RT–1505A? |
41. Up to six WODs.
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A-10
42. With MWODs input into an UHF radio, how does the radio know which WOD to use? |
42. To determine which WOD is used for a particular day, each WOD is appended with a “date tag”. If aWOD’s date tag matches the radio’s operational date, it is used for that particular day.
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A-10
43. What is entered into preset 20 for verify/operate mode? |
43. 220.000.
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A-10
44. What is entered into preset 20 to load multiple word-of-day information? |
44. 220.025.
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A-10
45. What is entered into preset 20 to erase all MWODs? |
45. 220.050.
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A-10
46. What is entered into preset 20 to change FMT nets? |
46. 220.075.
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A-10
47. What does a steady alarm tone heard in the headset indicate when the 100 MHz Frequency selectswitch is turned to A (active)? |
47. Indicates the WOD or TOD are missing.
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A-10
48. What does a pulsating warning tone heard in the headset indicate when the 100 MHz Frequencyselect switch is turned to A? |
48. Indicates an illegal net number has been selected.
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A-10
1. What are the two-way voice communication capabilities of the VHF/FM system? |
1. Two-way air-to-air or air-to-ground voice communication.
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A-10
2. What is a good definition of frequency modulation? |
2. The audio frequency is imposed on a carrier waveform by varying the frequency of the carrier.
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A-10
3. What is the VHF/FM frequency band? |
3. 30.000–87.975MHz.
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A-10
4. Which component is used to communicate with outside agencies and is preset for FM operation? |
4. VHF FM R/T.
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A-10
5. Which component provides operating functions and frequency selection? |
5. VHF/FM control box.
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A-10
6. What are two functions of the homing module? |
6. Serves as an interface between the homing antenna and the RT, and provides antenna switching and signalsto drive the horizontal and vertical needles on the ADI.
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A-10
7. Which VHF/FM component is used to collect or radiate energy in space? |
7. VHF/FM antenna.
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A-10
8. What is the purpose of the VHF/FM antenna coupler? |
8. To automatically tune the antenna to the operating frequency selected.
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A-10
9. What LRU looks like a towel bar? |
9. VHF/FM Homing antenna.
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A-10
10 Which component amplifies and directs audio to the proper location? |
10. ICS box.
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A-10
11. What does the operator plug the headset into? |
11. PE lead.
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A-10
12. Which switch enables transmission of VHF/FM when pressed upward? |
12. Mic switch.
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A-10
13. How many communication and home channels does the AN/ARC–186 VHF/FM system provide? |
13. 2320.
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A-10
14. What is spacing between each communication and home channel within the AN/ARC–186VHF/FM system? |
14. 25 KHz apart.
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A-10
15. Where are the 20 preset channels stored in the AN/ARC–186 VHF/FM system? |
15. In the R/T.
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A-10
16. What position must the mode select switch on the ICS control panel be placed in to enable thetransmit portion of the VHF/FM system? |
16. FM.
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A-10
17. What provides power connections on the front panel of the R/T? |
17. Two multiple-pin connectors on the front panel of the R/T.
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A-10
18. If the VHF/FM control box is used in the FM configuration, with the lockout switch on the R/Tset, what will be produced when an AM function is selected? |
18. A warning tone.
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A-10
19. What adjusts the audio level on the VHF/FM control box? |
19. The volume knob.
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A-10
20. What switches are used to select a frequency on the VHF control box? |
20. Frequency selectors.
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A-10
21. What mode selector switch position on VHF/FM control box removes power from the R/T? |
21. OFF.
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A-10
22. What position of the mode selector switch enables normal operation? |
22. TR.
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A-10
23. What position of the Mode Selector Switch enables FM homing? |
23. DF.
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A-10
24. Which VHF/FM control box switch selects one of the preset channels? |
24. Preset channel selector.
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A-10
25. Where is the preset channel displayed? |
25. Preset indicator.
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A-10
26. What switch loads frequencies into selected channel preset memory? |
26. Load push button.
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A-10
27. Which position of the frequency control select switch enables preset channel selection? |
27. PRE.
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A-10
28. Which position of the frequency control switch enables manual frequency selection? |
28. MAN.
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A-10
29. Which VHF/FM control box switch is used to select the PRE, MAN, and EMER FM positions? |
29. Frequency control switch.
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A-10
30. Which position of the frequency control switch is pre-adjusted to 40.5 MHz? |
30. EMER FM.
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A-10
31. What position of the squelch disable/tone switch disables the squelch circuits? |
31. SQ DIS.
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A-10
32. What position of the squelch disable/tone switch causes the transceiver to generate and transmit a1000 Hz tone? |
32. TONE.
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A-10
33. Which VHF/FM control box switch is used to select the SQ DIS, TONE, and CENTERpositions? |
33. CENTER.
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A-10
34. What sends a signal to the homing antenna to turn it on and off at a constant rate? |
34. Squelch disable/tone switch.
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A-10
35. Which component routes the incoming RF signal through to the FM R/T? |
35. FM homing module.
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A-10
36. What provides a signal to disable the FM communications antenna? |
36. FM homing module.
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A-10
1. Which radio(s) is/are controlled by the radio set control? |
1. Both Radio 1 and Radio 2.
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A-10
2. Where is the receiver-transmitter for ARC–210–1 located? |
2. In the right avionics compartment (access F40) on a mounting adapter assembly.
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A-10
3. Where is the receiver-transmitter for ARC–210–2 located? |
3. In the left avionics compartment (access F103) on a mounting bracket and adapter plate.
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A-10
4. What is the SATCOM uplink frequency band? |
4. 290 to 318 MHz.
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A-10
5. Using the AN/CYZ–10 DTD or equivalent, where do you load the required keys and operationalparameters for the ARC–210 receiver-transmitters? |
5. The red/black fill port, located in the left avionics compartment, access F99.
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A-10
6. Which Antenna Select Panel switches are related to the ARC–210–1? |
6. SAT ANT and EGI HQ TOD.
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A-10
7. The VHF/UHF/SATCOM Antenna is used only by which radio? |
7. ARC–210–1 radio.
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A-10
8. Which radio uses the VHF/UHF/SADL Antenna? |
8. ARC–210–2 radio.
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A-10
9. What is the purpose of the VHF/UHF/SADL diplexer? |
9. In conjunction with the VHF/UHF/SADL antenna, it permits both the ARC–210–2 and the SADL radios tooperate from a single wideband antenna without interfering with one another, providing their respectiveR/Ts the ability to transmit and/or receive simultaneously.
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A-10
10. What is the main purpose of the CICU in the AN/ARC–210 radio system? |
10. To provide the I/O functions necessary to provide head-up control of the selected ARC–210 radio via theUFC or MFCD.
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A-10
11. The ARC–210 VHF/UHF radio system provides air-to-air and air-to-ground, two-way voicecommunication in what frequency ranges? |
11. In both the VHF and UHF ranges, from 30.000 MHz to 512.000 MHz, in both normal and secure modes.
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A-10
12. What are the ARC–210 VHF/UHF radio system’s two selectable emergency (Guard)frequencies? |
12. 121.500 MHz and 243.000 MHz.
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A-10
13. How many Simplex (normal) preset channels does the ARC–210 VHF/UHF radio systemprovide? |
13. 25.
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A-10
14. What is the purpose of the 8.33 kHz channel spacing? |
14. It is used to alleviate ATC band (118–137 MHz) congestion in the VHF band.
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A-10
15. What are HQ I and II modes and what do they provide? |
15. They are both ECCM modes that provide jam-resistant UHF communications, in the 225–399.975 MHzrange.
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A-10
16. Explain SATCOM mode. |
16. It is a two-way BLOS mode using wideband (25 KHz) or narrowband (5 KHz) time-sharing of a satelliteRF channel. It also provides internal capability for cipher text in secure mode (secure text messaging).
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A-10
17. When the RSC TOD SND control is pressed, what command does it command? |
17. The R/T to transmit a TOD signal.
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A-10
18. What does the RSC R/T SELECT control provide when pressed? |
18. Toggles between RT1 and RT2.
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A-10
19. What does RSC Frequency Mode Switch provide when in the MAR position? |
19. Selects operation in one of the 57 maritime channels.
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A-10
20. What does the RSC Operational Mode switch provide when in the TR+G position? |
20. Selects R/T operations in both transmit and receive modes for both the main receiver and the guardreceiver.
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A-10
21. Where is the ARC–210 radio status displayed on the HUD? |
21. At a fixed location on the upper left side, below the Digital G Meter.
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A-10
22. What is the purpose of the switch and light test/software version check? |
22. It is performed to verify the RSC and R/T OFPs after installation of a new RSC. This test also verifies thatall light segments on the RSC function properly.
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A-10
1. The KY–58 Secure Voice/Speech system is used in conjunction with which radio systems? |
1. The AN/ARC–164 (V) UHF and/or AN/ARC–186 (V) VHF/FM radio systems.
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A-10
2. What components make up the secure voice/speech system? |
2. The secure speech (KY–58 RCU) control panel, RE–978/ARC relay assembly, and the coder/decoder.
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A-10
3. What is the function of the secure speech control panel? |
3. It provides control functions and mode selection for the coder/decoder.
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A-10
4. With which radio systems do the C/RAD 1 and C/RAD 2 switches work? |
4. The C/RAD 1 switch works with the ARC–164 UHF radio. The C/RAD 2 switch works with the ARC–186VHF/FM radio, if so equipped.
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A-10
5. Explain the purpose of the RE–978/ARC relay assembly? |
5. It serves as an interface between the secure speech equipment and the UHF, VHF/FM, and intercomsystems.
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A-10
6. Which component is the heart of the secure speech system and what is its purpose? |
6. The coder/decoder. The decoder portion converts received secure voice communications into plain voicesignals, which are routed to the pilot’s headset via the ICS. The coder portion converts plain voicecommunication from the pilot’s microphone to coded voice signals that are transmitted by the selectedradio.
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A-10
7. Setting the mode selector switch on the KY–58 RCU to C/RAD 1 will energize the mode relaysin the RE–978/ARC relay assembly. Where will the mic audio be routed? |
7. To the coder/decoder for audio encryption before being sent to the appropriate radio for transmission.
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A-10
8. Placing the KY–58 RCU MODE select switch in the “LD” position enables what function? |
8. Loading of variables (cipher codes) into the coder/decoder.
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A-10
9. What is the function of the KY–58 RCU FILL switch “1–6” positions? |
9. Six memory locations are selectable for loading variables into the KY–58 system memory.
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A-10
10. Placing the Coder/Decoder Mode switch in the “P” position enables what function? |
10. Permits normal communication in plain text (regular talk) only.
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A-10
11. What is the function of the Coder/Decoder FILL port? |
11. Connection port for the fill device. Allows loading of crypto variables using key loaders.
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A-10
12. Why does the Coder/Decoder require a battery back up? |
12. To retain the variables (secure codes) when the system is powered down. The battery prevents the codesfrom zeroizing when the system is powered down.
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A-10
13. When performing alarm checks, the alarm tone will sound in the headset until the user takes whataction? |
13. Until the mic switch is pressed and released.
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A-10
1. What does the ILS provide? |
1. Course deviation (localizer), flight path position (glide slope), and distance from runway (marker beacon)information.
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A-10
2. List the components that make up the ILS. |
2. ILS receiver, ILS control panel, glide slope and localizer antenna assembly, marker beacon antenna, andmarker beacon indicator.
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A-10
3. What is the purpose of the ILS receiver? |
3. To receive vertical and horizontal information for instrument landings, reliability alarm signals, markerbeacon information, and audible station identification.
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A-10
4. Where is the G/S and localizer antenna assembly located? |
4. In the lower half of the radome on the right wing.
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A-10
5. Describe the purpose of the marker beacon indicator. |
5. To provide a visual indication that the ILS is receiving a marker beacon signal. When the indicator is on, atone is applied to the headset.
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A-10
6. What ILS information does the flight director computer provide for the ADI? |
6. ILS navigation information pitch and bank steering commands, G/S deviation, and warning flag signals forthe ADI.
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A-10
7. What does the avionics relay box provide for the Instrument Landing System? |
7. An interface between the ILS marker beacon and localizer audio and the ICS.
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A-10
8. What is the purpose of the Nav Mode Select Panel? |
8. Its purpose is to select navigation information to be displayed on the ADI and HSI.
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A-10
9. What does the ILS localizer ground transmitter provide to aircraft? |
9. RF signals that are within 25 miles of the end-of-runway.
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A-10
10. What information does the ILS localizer ground transmitter signal provide? |
10. These RF signals provide left-right steering guidance and station identification information.
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A-10
11. Explain the signals projected from the ILS localizer ground antenna. |
11. The signal is projected into two overlapping lobes that are nearly equal in strength. One lobe is directed tothe right side of the runway and the other to the left. Each lobe is amplitude-modulated at a separatefrequency. The left lobe is modulated at 90 Hz, and the right lobe is modulated at 150 Hz.
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A-10
12. If the 90 Hz localizer signal received from the ILS ground station is stronger, where is the aircraftlocated in respect to the centerline of the runway? |
12. To the left of the centerline.
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A-10
13. What does the ground glide slope unit transmit to aircraft? |
13. Radio signals used by the aircraft ILS to determine vertical (up or down) steering guidance for the correctdescent angle to the runway.
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A-10
14. Explain the glide slope signal radiated from the ILS ground station. |
14. The signals produce two intersecting lobes, one above the other. The upper lobe is modulated with 90 Hzand the lower lobe is modulated with 150 Hz. The two signals have equal modulation along a lineextending from the end of the runway at an angle of 2° to 4° from the ground, unless obstructions or otherhazards require a steeper angle.
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A-10
15. If the 150 Hz glide slope signal received from the ILS ground station is stronger, where is theaircraft located in respect to the proper glide path? |
15. The aircraft is below the glide path (too low), meaning the pilot needs to fly the aircraft up to get back onthe proper glide path.
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16. What do the marker beacons provide? |
16. Accurate distance information along the approach course to the end-of-runway.
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17. List the marker beacon(s) and the tone(s) generated. |
17. 400-Hz tone (outer marker), 1,300-Hz tone (middle marker) or 3,000-Hz tone (inner marker).
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18. What is the frequency range of the localizer receiver? |
18. 108.10 to 111.95 MHz.
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19. What is the frequency range of the glide slope signals that are paired with the localizerfrequencies? |
19. 329.15 and 335.00 MHz.
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20. When the ILS switch/indicator on the NMSP is depressed, what signals are provided to the ADIand HSI? |
20. The ILS computed roll and pitch steering data is provided to the bank (localizer) and pitch (glide slope)steering bars on the ADI. Also, raw localizer data is provided for the course deviation indicator on the HSI.
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21. What does placing the PTR switch on the NMSP to the ABLE position provide? |
21. When the PTR switch is placed in the ABLE position (left), the bank steering bar, pitch steering bar, andcourse warning flag on the ADI are operational.
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22. What does it mean when the ADI pitch steering bar is deflected above or below horizontal center? |
22. The aircraft is off glide slope and must be maneuvered to center the bar.
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23. What does it mean when the ADI bank steering bar is deflected left or right of vertical center? |
23. The aircraft is off the desired localizer course and must be steered toward the bank steering bar to return tothe selected heading or course.
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24. How much deviation does each dot represent on the ADI glide slope deviation scale? |
24. ¼°.
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25. Explain the HSI course deviation indicator. |
25. The CDI displays localizer deviation from selected course. Full-scale deflection (left or right) represents2½° of ILS localizer deviation. The CDI is a fly-to indicator, so when the CDI is driven right (as shown),the pilot needs to steer the aircraft to the right. The opposite is true when the CDI is driven left.
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26. How much deviation does each dot represent on the HSI course deviation scale? |
26. 1¼º.
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27. Describe the function of the Intercom control panel ILS monitor switch. |
27. When pulled out, it enables localizer and marker beacon identifier audio to be monitored in the headset.When pushed in, disables localizer and marker beacon audio from being monitored.
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28. What is the function of the flight director computer when in ILS mode? |
28. It provides computed pitch and bank steering commands using G/S and localizer deviation, pitch-and-rollattitude, and course error. The FDC also commands the ADI to display the course warning flag when itdetermines that received signal strength from the ILS receiver is insufficient.
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Column A Column B___(1) Direction in which the aircraft (nose) is facing on the horizontalplane relative to a reference.___(2) Ground track an aircraft is flying.___(3) Angular direction measured from one position to another.___(4) Line-of-sight distance between two points which are not at the samelevel relative to a specific datum (longitude and latitude).a. Relative bearing.b. Slant range.c. Heading.d. Course. |
(1) c.(2) d.(3) a.(4) b
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2. What is the starting point when measuring relative bearing? |
2. The direction the aircraft is facing is always the starting point or 0°. If a destination or point of interest weredirectly aft of the aircraft, then relative bearing would be 180°.
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3. What is TACAN? |
3. A short-range, air navigation radio system operating in the UHF band. It is used to assist the pilot innavigating from station to station.
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4. Why are TACAN ground stations spaced a minimum of 500 miles apart? |
4. This ensures each station will not interfere with another.
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5. Where is the TACAN R/T located? |
5. It is installed in the shock mount located in access F103.
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6. What is the purpose of the TACAN R/T? |
6. To receive and transmit TACAN data, process distance and bearing information, and provide audioidentification tone.
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7. How many available TACAN channels are there and how many X and Y channels are there? |
7. 252 that are equally divided into 126 X-channels and 126 Y-channels.
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8. What are the airborne transmit and receive frequencies? |
8. Airborne transmit (interrogation) frequencies range from 1025 to 1150 MHz and airborne receivefrequencies from 962 to 1213 MHz.
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9. What is the purpose of the digital-to-analog adapter? |
9. To convert receiver-transmitter distance and course data from a digital format to analog (synchro) formatfor use by the HSI and ADI.
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10. Explain the purpose of the L-Band diplexer. |
10. To provide isolation between the TACAN and UHF Communication Systems, which share theUHF/TACAN (L-Band) antenna. This prevents one system from interfering with the other.
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11. What TACAN display information does the ADI provide? |
11. Aircraft bank steering (turn left or turn right). The bank steering bar displays TACAN steering directionswhich are supplied by the FDC.
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12. What is the purpose of the ground station identification signal? |
12. To identify the particular station. The signal is decoded by the airborne TACAN system to produce anaudio signal to assure the flight crew that they are receiving navigational information from the selectedsurface beacon.
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13. What is the A–10 TACAN transmit and receive frequency ranges? |
13. The transmit frequencies range from 1025 to 1150 MHz and the receive frequencies range from 962 to1213 MHz.
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14. When is the TACAN system operational? |
14. With the NMSP TCN switch depressed and the TACAN control panel mode switch in any position otherthan off.
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15. How many operational modes does the A–10 TACAN system have and what are they? |
15. Four: REC, T/R, A/A REC, or A/A T/R.
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16. The R/T receives bearing signals from a ground beacon, and provides bearing and coursedeviation for display on the HSI, and beacon identification as heard in the headset in whichTACAN mode? |
16. Receive mode.
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17. When TACAN transmits, which systems receive suppression pulses to block their reception? |
17. The IFF and RWR system receivers.
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18. What indications will be present when the Nav Mode Select Panel TCN switch is depressed? |
18. TACAN bearing and distance information will be displayed on the HSI and FDC-computed steeringinformation will be displayed on the ADI. A green triangle on the indicator will illuminate when TCN isselected.
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19. On the ADI, what does the bank steering bar indicate? |
19. The relative amount the aircraft is off course to or from the TACAN beacon (ground station or aircraft).
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20. What is the purpose of the HSI bearing pointer no. 1? |
20. Indicates magnetic bearing to a TACAN ground station or cooperating aircraft. The pointer will spin if noTACAN signal is being received. The pointer will stow at the 3 o’clock position if TACAN is off.
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21. Explain the purpose of the HSI course deviation indicator? |
21. It displays deviation from selected course. Full-scale deflection normally represents 10° of TACAN coursedeviation. The CDI is a fly-to indicator, so when the CDI is driven right (as shown), the pilot needs to steerthe aircraft to the right. The opposite is true when the CDI is driven left. The CDI will alternate from left toright of course as bearing pointer no. 1 spins if no TACAN signal is being received.
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22. How does the To/From indicator on the HSI operate? |
22. Displays the TO arrow if bearing to the TACAN station is less than 90° from the bearing indicated by thecourse arrow. Displays the FROM arrow if bearing to the TACAN station is greater than 90° from thebearing indicated by the course arrow.
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23. What does the range indicator on the HSI display? |
23. Slant range in nautical miles, from 000 to 999, to the selected TACAN station or cooperating aircraft. If theTACAN distance signal is unreliable, the range indicator will be concealed by a warning flag.
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24. If the intercom control panel TCN monitor switch is pulled out, what will take place? |
24. It enables TACAN receiver audio to be monitored regardless of the position of the rotary selector switch.
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25. How do you perform a manual TACAN self-test and what does it check? |
25. It is initiated by pressing the TEST button on the TACAN control panel. The TEST light will flash at thestart of the test cycle to check the indicator bulb. The self-test operates while in T/R or A/A REC modes,and it checks transmitter output power and receiver operation with test distance shutter, course deviationindicator and bearing validity flag, bearing, and distance signals applied to the HSI.
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26. When will the TACAN automatic self-test occur? |
26. Whenever the TACAN signal is lost or becomes unreliable. No operator interaction is required.
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27. If a problem is detected in the system during either the manual or automatic TACAN self-test,what indication will the operator have? |
27. The TEST light will remain on.
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A-10
1. Where is the IFF/SIF/MODE S control panel located and what does it provide? |
1. On the left console and provides mode selection, BIT capabilities, and mode 1 and 3/A code selection.
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2. What is the purpose of the IFF transponder? |
2. It receives interrogations routed from the upper or lower antenna, decodes the interrogations into the propermode, encodes the selected reply, and transmits the encoded reply through the proper antenna.
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A-10
3. What are the positions of the IFF antenna switch and which setting is the normal position? |
3. The three positions are UPPER, LOWER, and BOTH. The BOTH position receives and transmits on theantenna receiving the strongest signal and is the normal position for this switch.
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A-10
4. Which component’s main purpose in the IFF/Mode S system is to provide the input/outputfunctions necessary to control the IFF while it is in primary control mode? |
4. CICU.
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5. Where are the IFF Mode 1 and Mode 4 alarms displayed? |
5. On the HUD.
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A-10
6. List the specific discrepancies monitored by the IFF caution light circuitry. |
6. Mode 4 codes zeroed, transponder failure to reply to proper interrogation, and failure of automatic self-test.
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7. What is the IFF system receive and transmit frequencies? |
7. Receive frequency is 1030 MHz and transmit frequency is 1090 MHz.
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A-10
8. Which IFF mode provides Air Traffic Control with the aircraft tail number? |
8. Mode 2.
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9. Which IFF mode provides the altitude of the aircraft to the nearest 100 feet? |
9. Mode C.
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10. Which IFF mode provides encrypted replies to interrogations by identically configured airborneor ground equipment? |
10. Mode 4.
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A-10
11. Which IFF mode provides an enhanced version of mode 3/A and C combined? |
11. Mode S.
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A-10
12. Which special reply is activated during seat ejection? |
12. Emergency.
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A-10
13. When is the IFF system in primary control mode? |
13. When it is able to communicate with the CICU over 1553 AV Bus–3.
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A-10
14. What is the function of the IFF/SIF/MODE S control panel MASTER switch set to the NORM? |
14. The system operates with normal receiver sensitivity.
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A-10
15. What is the function of the IFF/SIF/MODE S control panel radiation test monitor switch set to theRAD TEST? |
15. It sets M4 Verify Bit in Mode 4 replies, allowing the pilot to verify Mode 4 when requested by air trafficcontrol. This switch is only functional in backup control mode.
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A-10
16. What is the function of the IFF/SIF/MODE S control panel CODE switch set to the A or Bposition? |
16. Selects either the A or B code provided by the KIT-1C transponder computer.
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A-10
17. What is the function of the IFF/SIF/MODE S control panel REPLY light when illuminated? |
17. Indicates the presence of Mode 4 replies. The light will also illuminate when depressed to check the lightbulb.
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A-10
18. In which mode will the IFF pages on the MFCD provide control of the IFF System? |
18. The primary control mode.
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A-10
19. What does the IFF CONTROLS PAGE on the MFCD provide? |
19. Mode code, antenna selection, air ground and ground radiate controls.
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A-10
20. What type of test equipment is used to provide a detailed checkout of the IFF system using anexternal signal interrogator? |
20. Transponder Test Set TS–4530.
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A-10
1. What is the purpose of the EPLRS R/T? |
1. It receives and transmits signals via the SADL antenna to/from air and ground sources in TADIL-J messageformat.
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A-10
2. Which AHCP switches must be turned ON for the SADL system to function fully? |
2. JTRS, CICU and IFFCC.
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A-10
3. Which LRU is the aircraft interface to the EPLRS radio via the data link processor? |
3. CICU.
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A-10
4. Where is the GPS-EPLRS fill panel located? |
4. Left access bay access F99.
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A-10
5. What is the purpose of relay XK54 on the NMRB? |
5. To direct zeroization of the EPLRS radio during pilot ejection.
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A-10
6. How does the IDM control the digital mode of the KY–58 coder-decoder? |
6. Through the DDMC signal.
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A-10
7. What is the default radio selection for the improved data modem? |
7. None.
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A-10
8. Which LRU is responsible for displaying the IDM R/T selection on the HUD? |
8. IFFCC.
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A-10
9. Which LRU converts VMF digital data to RF data for transmission by the aircraft radios? |
9. IDM.
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A-10
10. Which MFCD page is always the first to display at the end of initialization? |
10. DTS Upload page.
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A-10
11. Which MFCD page is used to change the labels on the programmable OSBs? |
11. Display Program page.
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A-10
12. What indication in the STAT column of the System Status page means the IDM is notcommunicating with the CICU? |
12. NC (RED).
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A-10
13. Which component’s OFP ID can be displayed on the System Status page? |
13. IDM and CICU.
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A-10
14. How is the SADL Profile Settings page accessed? |
14. By selecting OSB 3 from the COMM PAGE.
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A-10
15. What will occur if PWR SLNT is selected from OSB 10 on the SADL Profile Settings Page? |
15. The EPLRS/SADL radio will receive information but not transmit.
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A-10
16. What do VMF profiles provide? |
16. The capability to define and modify network parameters.
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A-10
17. What types of TDN data link information are available? |
17. MA messages, test messages, and Image messages.
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A-10
18. How is a plain text message displayed? |
18. Up to 28 characters per row, with up to 15 rows per page, and a maximum of 2 pages for a total of 840characters.
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19. What is the purpose of the second MA Message Page? |
19. It allows for remarks of 6 lines of 28 characters per line.
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A-10
20. Which system checkout includes a Transmit/Receive Test, Friendly Position Test, andThroughput Test? |
20. EPLRS check using ASSE.
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A-10
1. What is the purpose of the A–10 RWR system? |
1. It detects the presence of enemy radar operating in E–J and C/D band frequency regions, and providesvisual and audio indications of threat radar emitters to the pilot.
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A-10
2. What are the components that make up the AN/ALR–69? |
2. Azimuth indicator, countermeasure signal processor, countermeasure set control, signal processor, compasssail amplifier detector, frequency selective receiver system, transmission line coupler, C/D band antenna,wide band antennas, power dividers, amplifier detectors.
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A-10
3. What is the purpose of the azimuth indicator? |
3. It displays threat symbols indicating the position, status, and relative signal strength of threat radar signals.
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A-10
4. What is the purpose of the compass sail amplifier detector? |
4. It receives RF signals in the C/D bands, detects RF exceeding certain prescribed signal levels, converts thesignals to video, and sends them to the signal processor for analysis.
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A-10
5. What is the function of the transmission line coupler? |
5. It provides impedance matching and routes the video signal to the signal processor, the FSRS receiver, andthe FSRS receiver-controller.
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A-10
6. How are the wide band antennas positioned? |
6. At 45°, 135°, 225°, and 315° relative to aircraft heading.
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A-10
7. What is the function of the power dividers? |
7. To split the RF signal and route split detected signals to corresponding amplifier-detector and antennaswitch.
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8. What is the function of the amplifier detectors? |
8. Provide directional coverage around the aircraft.
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9. Where do the amplifier detectors send their output? |
9. To the signal processor.
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10. What is the maximum number of threats that can be displayed in the open mode? |
10. Up to 16.
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A-10
11. What is the function of priority mode? |
11. Lets the pilot reduce clutter and confusion on the azimuth indicator.
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A-10
12. What type radars can be displayed when the symbol S is displayed in the bottom center of theazimuth indicator? |
12. Early warning, ground control intercept and acquisition type radars.
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13. What RF band do the wide band RF antennas detect? |
13. E-J.
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14. Where does a wide band antenna send its received RF? |
14. To the power divider.
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15. What do the band detectors in the amplifier detectors develop? |
15. A low-band, a mid-band, and a high-band video signal.
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16. What is normally associated with C/D band RF? |
16. Launch, tracking, and guidance of certain missile threats.
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A-10
17. What line LRU receives and converts C/D band RF signals? |
17. The compass sail amplifier-detector.
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A-10
18. How is the pilot alerted if there is missile activity detected? |
18. The azimuth indicator displays a steady circle around a numeric symbol.
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A-10
19. How is a pilot alerted if there is a missile launch? |
19. The azimuth indicator displays a flashing circle around a numeric symbol.
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A-10
20. What is the purpose of New Guy AUD? |
20. Highlights any new emitter found by the RWR.
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21. What is the provided AUD comprised of? |
21. The real PRF of the emitter.
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22. How is the RWR functionally checked? |
22. Through the use of the RWR BIT and operational checkouts.
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A-10
1. What is the purpose of the AN/ALE–40/47 CMD system? |
1. It provides the A–10C self-protection capability from radar and infrared guided weapons.
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2. How many chaff and/or flare cartridges can be loaded on the A–10C? |
2. 480 chaff or flare cartridges.
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3. What is the purpose of chaff and flare? |
3. Chaff is dispensed as a countermeasure against radars and radar-guided missiles. Flares are dispensed as adecoy for heat-seeking (infrared) munitions.
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4. What does the CMSC provide? |
4. It provides the primary/integrated controls for all EW systems on the aircraft. Additionally it serves as aheads up display of EW system status for the pilot.
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5. Why is the Control Stick part of the CMD system? |
5. The CMMS is located on the control stick grip. As part of the HOTAS, it allows the pilot to select thecountermeasures system program and initiate a dispense action.
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6. If a safety pin is installed in the left main landing gear safety switch assembly, what will be theresult? |
6. Inserting a pin into the safety switch in the left main landing gear pod will safe/disable both stations 1 and2.
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7. How many stations does the A–10C possess? |
7. Four.
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8. What is the purpose of the CMD dispenser and how many are there on the A–10C? |
8. The A–10C CMD system uses 16 dispenser assemblies located at four different stations. The dispenserassembly provides an electrical interface between the sequencer switch and the payload magazine and aphysical mounting point for the magazines.
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A-10
9. What symbol on the CMSC indicates when the dispense program is running or dispensingoccurs? |
9. A flashing diamond “♦” appears in the center of the display.
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A-10
10. When the CMSP mode switch is placed in the “STBY” position, which EW systems have powerapplied to them? |
10. Dispenser, Radar Warning Receiver, Jammer, and Missile Warning Set.
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A-10
11. What is the chaff dispense firing order? |
11. Chaff dispense firing order is station 1, 4, 2, then 3.
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A-10
12. What is the flare dispense firing order? |
12. Flare dispense firing order is station 3, 2, 4, then 1.
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A-10
13. When dispense signals are being sent and switch S1 moves to the 30th position, what does switchS3 do and where does the signal go next? |
13. Switch S3 in the sequencer switch A closes, sending the next dispense signal through select switch A todriver 2. Driver 2 causes switch S2 in sequencer switch A to move to the next contact position, sendingsquib power to station dispenser A2.
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14. How is a functional check accomplished on the CMD system? |
14. By use of AN/ALM–288 countermeasure dispenser testers.
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1. What function does the AN/ALQ–213 CMS provide? |
1. Increased aircraft survivability by creating a diversion capability against early warning radar, antiaircraftartillery radar, target tracking and surface-to-air missile radar, airborne interceptor command guidance radarsignals, laser threats, and infrared seeking missiles.
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2. What systems are integrated by CMS? |
2. The CMDS, RWR, ECM, and the MWS.
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3. What is the function of the CMSC? |
3. It provides the system ‘heads-up’ indicator for EW notifications, warnings, and status display.
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4. What functions are provided by the CMSP? |
4. It serves as the main pilot controls and the ALQ–213 system computer. It also provides real-time control,mode selection, and management of each EW subsystem.
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5. On the CMSP, unless some switch action is taken by the user, an option is automatically selectedafter being displayed for how long? |
5. 2 Seconds.
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6. How are the different functions/menus selected on the CMSP? |
6. The five-position rotary MODE switch, as well as the OBS select buttons, along with the NXT and RTNswitches, as well as the display and BRT control switches.
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7. Besides using the azimuth indicator, what other means is available for the pilot to view potentialthreats as detected by the EW subsystems? |
7. The TAD page on the either MFCD.
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8. How is the CMS reprogrammed? |
8. Using a CAPRE.
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9. What does an operational check of the CMS consist of? |
9. Turning the CMSP to standby, running BIT, reviewing the system error log, and verifying that theproper/current software is loaded.
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A-10
1. What LRUs make up the Missile Warning Set? |
1. Optical Sensor Converter and Computer Processor.
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2. How many optical sensor converters are used by the missile warning set and where are theylocated? |
2. Four. There is one OSC located on each wing tip and two are located on the tail cone of the aircraft.
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3. What do the optical sensor converters detect from the rocket motor exhaust of a missile? |
3. In-band ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
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4. What is the purpose of the computer processor and where is it located? |
4. It contains the electronic hardware and software that performs all data processing and control for theAN/AAR–47 MWS, and is located in Access F10.
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5. How is the pilot notified of an infrared or laser threat? |
5. With an audio tone, while the threat is displayed on the azimuth indicator scope.
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6. When will a flare dispense action take place when a laser threat is detected? |
6. No dispense signal will be generated.
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A-10
7. Control and programming functions for the MWS are integrated in which component? |
7. ALQ–213 CMSP.
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8. Potential threats can be displayed on the azimuth indicator at the same time by which systems? |
8. Both the MWS and the RWR systems.
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9. How many types of BIT are there for the MWS and what are they? |
9. Three. PBIT, CBIT, and IBIT.
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A-10
10. What piece of test equipment is used to perform a functional check of the MWS? |
10. PLM–3.
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A-10
1. What is the purpose of the ECM pod? |
1. It provides the capability to degrade hostile radar reception by transmitting jamming signals.
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2. What is jamming? |
2. The radiation or re-radiation of signals to interfere with the operation of a radar receiver.
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3. What are the types of ECM pods used on the A–10? |
3. AN/ALQ–131 or the AN/ALQ–184.
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A-10
4. What makes up the ECM pod system? |
4. An ECM pod, along with pilot inputs and menu selections through either the CMSC or the CMSP.
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A-10
5. Where are the pods loaded on the A–10? |
5. From either weapons station 1 or 11.
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A-10
6. Where would you expect to find the CMSP? |
6. At the forward end of the pilot’s right console.
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A-10
7. What is the purpose of the CMSP? |
7. It provides an electrical interface between the separately mounted CMSC.
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A-10
8. Should you transmit on the ground? |
8. No, due to the high power RF.
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A-10
9. What are the minimum safe distances from an operating pod and its approach areas? |
9. During operational checkout, the minimum safe distance for personnel is 31 feet in front of or behind thepod. Personnel should approach the ECM pod only from the side.
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A-10
10. What is the security concern with transmitting on the ground? |
10. ECM pod jamming techniques and frequencies are classified. Unauthorized transmitting is susceptible tomonitoring by not-so-friendly personnel and could be used to render the pod ineffective against hostileradars.
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A-10
11. What systems are susceptible to interference caused by a pod transmitting on the ground? |
11. Communications, guidance, and defense systems.
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A-10
12. What determines which pod type is used? |
12. Mission requirements.
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A-10
13. What happens when the CMS MODE switch is placed in STBY? |
13. This powers the CMSC and CMSP which in turn powers the JMR system which in turn powers the pod.
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A-10
14. What equipment is used to move, upload, or download the pod? |
14. The MJ–4 bomb lift truck.
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A-10 15. What is the normal range for the pod to time-in?
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15. Three minutes, plus or minus 20 seconds after being placed in standby.
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