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262 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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P.R.I.C.E. stands for what?
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Protection
Rest Ice Compression Elevation |
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What is the primary purpose of professional certifications
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To protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet the established levels of minimum competence.
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Trainers should screen clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design...True or False
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True
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Conducting a VO2 Max test to determine a client's need for referral to his or her physician... True or False
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False. That test is outside the scope of practice for an ACE certified fitness professional
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ACE personal trainers must complete a minimum of _______ hours of continuing education every 2 years to maintain their certifications, and stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health.
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Twenty (20)
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Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices is inside the scope of practice...True or False
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True
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A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients with tight or sore muscles can do so only if?
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The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist.
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What do the credentials for registered dietitians (RD), occupational therapists (ORT), athletic trainers (ATC), registered nurses (RN), and licensed massage therapists (LMT) have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise?
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They are all accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies.
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Unless the personal trainer has other credentials such as an RD or MD, he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements...True or False
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True
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If an ACE cerified Personal Trainer is looking to advance their knowledge, skills, and abilities beyond their ACE certification; what they should obtain?
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An advanced fitness certification that is NCCA accredited.
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What is the most important factor for an individual who is starting an exercise program?
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Readiness to change behavior related to exercise
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Which personal attribute is the most reliable predictor of an individuals participation in an exercise program?
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Past exercise program participation
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What is the most common excuse used by people when dropping out of an exercise program?
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Lack of time
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What is the best strategy for personal trainers to implement to enhance the likelihood that clients will continue working with them?
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Encouraging client ownership of the program to facilitate development of intrinsic motivation.
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A person who is confident that he or she can successfully participate regularly in an exercise program has?
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Good self-efficacy related to exercise
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Setting a series of progressively attainable short-term goals would most likely enhance program participation and goal attainment...True or False
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True
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A strong social support network can provide an individual with
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improved program adherence, extrinsic motivation, and relapse-prevention.
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Which type of exercise program would be expected to have the GREATEST drop out rate?
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A vigorous-intensity exercise program
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Age is gernerally unrelated to adherence levels in supervised exercise settings....True or False?
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True
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What is instrinsic motivation?
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Belief in one's own ability to preform an activity or be successful in an activity.
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Speaking in a firm and confidence voice, using fluid hand gestures while speaking, and quiet hands while listening is a good way for trainers to develop rapport during the initial assessment...True or False?
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True
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In order to gain a better understanding of the client, facilitate rapport building, and provide an effective program design a personal trainer must...
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practice active listening.
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What is a SMART goal?
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Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound.
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"I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes to prepare for a 5K in four months"
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Is an example of a SMART goal.
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What is the most effective way to teach a new exercise to a client?
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Tell, Show, Do...Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise, then have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback.
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What are the stages of the client-trainer relationship?
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Rapport>Investigation>Planning>Action
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What is motivational Interviewing?
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A method of speaking with people in a way that motivates them to make a decision to change their behavior.
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What are the 3 stages of motor learning?
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Cognitive, Associative, and Autonomous
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What is Cognitive Learning?
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The client is actively thinking about what to do. Their movements may appear shaky or jerky. The trainer performs the "tell, show, do" method.
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What is Associative Learning?
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Clients begin to master the basics and are ready for more specific feedback to help them refine the motor skill.
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What is Autonomous Learning?
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Clients preform motor skills effectively and naturally, with the personal trainer teaching less and monitoring more.
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What is the Health Belief Model?
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A predictor that people will engage in a health behavior based on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem, and the pros and cons of adopting the behavior.
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What are the stages of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavioral Change/Stages of Change?
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Precontemplation>Contemplation>Preparation>Action>Maintenance
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What is the Precontemplation Stage?
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People in this stage are sedentary and not considering and activity program.
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What is the Contemplation stage?
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People in this stage are still sedentary, however they start to consider activity as important and have begun to identify the implications of being inactive.
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What is the Preparation Stage?
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Marked by some physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt an activity program.
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What is the Action Stage?
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People engaged in irregular physical activity, or engaged in regular physical activity for less than 6 months.
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What is the Maintenance Stage?
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This stage is marked by regular physical activity participation for longer than six months.
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A personal trainer should help a client switch from primarily external feedback to...
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Internal feedback
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What is decisional balance?
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The perceived pros and cons of adopting and/or maintaining an activity program.
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What is operant conditioning?
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The process by which behaviors are influenced by their consequences.
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What is shaping?
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The process of using reinforcements to gradually achieve a target behavior.
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What foundational element is the ACE IFT Model built upon?
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Rapport Building
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What assessment(s) are essential according to the ACE IFT Model and should be completed prior to a client beginning an exercise program?
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Collecting health history data to identify contraindications and the need for referral.
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What are the five primary movements that are the focus of the movement training phase?
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Squatting, Lunging, Pushing, Pulling, and Rotational Movements
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Cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 1 is performed at what intensity?
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At or below the first ventilatory threshold "VT1" (RPE 3-4)
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Cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 2 is performed at what intensity?
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Between the first ventilatory threshold "VT1" and secondary ventilatory threshold "VT2" (RPE -5)
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Cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 3 is performed at what intensity?
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Just above the secondary ventilatory threshold "VT2" (RPE 6-7)
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Personal trainers can use the talk test as an upper limit for exercise intensity to determine if a client is exercising below which cardiorespiratory marker?
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First Ventilatory Threshold (VT1)
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What is empathy?
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The ability to experience another person's world as if it were one's own.
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What is warmth?
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An unconditional positive regard, or respect for another person regardless of his or her individuality and uniqueness. this quality will convey a climate that communicates safety and acceptance to the client.
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What is genuineness?
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Authenticity, or the ability to be honest and open.
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What is the defining criteria for age in the CAD Risk factor stratification?
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Men ≥ 45 yrs old.
Women ≥ 55 yrs old. |
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When is family history a risk for CAD?
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Myocardial infarction or cornary heart disease in father before the age of 55 and before the age of 65 in women.
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When is cigarette smoking a risk for CAD?
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Current smoker or who quit within the past 6 months
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What is a sedentary lifestyle?
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Engaging in moderate to vigorous activity for <30 minutes a day at least 3 days a week.
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What is obesity?
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Body mass index ≥30
Waist girth >40" in men and >35" in women |
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What is hypertension?
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Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP) ≥140 mmHg
Diastolic Blood Pressure (DBP) ≥90 mmHg |
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What is dyslipidemia?
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LDL ≥130 mg/dL
HDL <40 mg/dL Total serum cholesterol of >200 mg/dL |
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What is prediabetes?
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A fasting blood glucose between 100-125 mg/dL.
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What is a negative risk factor that would subtract one point from a CAD score?
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A HDL ≥60 mg/dL
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Informed consent is a clients...
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"assumption of risk"
He or she is acknowledging having been specifically informed about the risks associated with activity. |
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What is the purpose of stability and mobility training?
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Restorative exercise to improve posture and movement compensations.
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Scapular winging during the shoulder push stabilization screen is likely caused by ___________.
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scapulothoracic joint instability
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What does android refer to?
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An apple-shaped individual
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What does gynoid refer to?
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A pear-shaped individual
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What is the acronym WHR?
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Waist to Hip Ratio
=waist circumference/hip circumference |
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List 4 variables that should be monitored or recorded during an exercise test.
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Heart Rate
Blood Pressure Rating of Perceived Exertion "RPE" Signs and symptoms (personal observations and comments from the client) |
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If a client is taking beta blockers, how might this affect the results of their treadmill test?
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Beta blockers may not show an accurate heart rate, due to their heart rate lowering effect.
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How to convert height from standard to metric:
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Convert height to inches, multiply the inches by 2.54, and move decimal point two places to the left to get height in meters (or multiple by 100).
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How to convert lbs to kg:
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Multiple weight in pounds by 0.45 to get kilograms
lbs*0.45 = kg |
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How to calculate age predicted Target Heart Rate (THR):
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220-age = MHR
MHR x % desired intensity (low) MHR x % desired intensity (high) = Target Heart Rate zone |
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How to calculate relative VO2:
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Oxygen uptake (mL/min) multiplied by 1000 mL/L divide by body weight in kilograms
Relative VO2 = (mL/min*1000)/kg |
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How to calculate caloric expenditure during exercise:
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Caloric expenditure = [VO2 (mL/kg/min)*BW(kg)/1000] * 5 Kcal/L/min
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How to calculate caloric expenditure during exercise with METs:
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Caloric expenditure = MET x 3.5mL/kg/min x BW (kg)
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How to calculate strength training level using a clients one repetition max (1RM):
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Desired weight = 1 RM (lbs) x desired intensity
ex: 110lbs x 60% (.60) =66lbs |
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How to calculate caloric value of a food or drink:
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Multiply # of grams by the energy of macronutrient. Get all values for the macronutrients, add values together, then divide by the total # of calories contained per serving.
Fat=9 calories/gram Alcohol=7 calories/gram Protein=4 calories/gram Carbohydrates=4 calories/gram |
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What is the recommended protein intake for athletes?
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1.2-1.7 g/kg (0.5-0.8 g/lb) of body weight per day
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What is the recommended carbohydrate intake for athletes?
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6-10 g/kg (3-5 g/lb) of body weight per day
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What is the recommended fat intake for athletes?
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20-25% of total calorie intake per day.
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How to calculate age predicted MHR:
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(220 - age) = MHR
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What is The Institute of Medicine's (IOM) 2005 Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) recommended % of calories consumed from carbohydrates?
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45-65%
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What is The Institute of Medicine's (IOM) 2005 Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) recommended % of calories consumed from proteins?
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10-35%
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What is The Institute of Medicine's (IOM) 2005 Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) recommended % of calories consumed from fats?
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20-35%
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What is normal blood pressure?
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120/80
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Prehypertensive blood pressure
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139/89
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hypertension blood pressure
Stage 1 |
140/90 - 159/99
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Hypertenstion stage 2
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anything greater than 160/100
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Karvonen formula for determining THR:
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220 - age = age predicted MHR
Age predicted MHR - RHR = HHR (HRR * % intensity) + RHR = THR |
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Name 3 types of treadmill tests:
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Burce submaximal treadmill exercise test
Balke & Ware treadmill exercise test Ebbeling single-stage treadmill test |
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Name two (2) types of cycling tests:
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YMCA bike test
Astrand-Rhyming cycle ergometer test |
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Name two (2) ventilatory threshold tests:
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Submaximal talk test for VT1
VT2 threshold test |
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Name two (2) types of field tests:
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Rockport fitness walking test (1 mile)
1.5 mile run test |
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Name two (2) types of step tests:
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YMCA submaximal step test (12 inches)
McArdle step test (16 inches) |
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What is the Bruce submaximal treadmill, and who would this test NOT be appropriate for?
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Four (4), three (3) minute stages till HRss, with test termination at 85% MHR, or signs or symptoms
Deconditoned and/or elderly individuals |
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What is the Balke and Ware treadmill test, and who is this test appropriate for?
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One (1) to three (3) minute stages till THR, with test termination at 85% MHR, or signs or symptoms
De-conditioned, elderly, and individuals with a history of cardiovascular disease, because the test is held at a constant. |
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What does the Ebbeling single stage treadmill test consist of, and who is it appropriate for?
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A four (4) minute warm up stage and a single four (4) minute testing stage that should elicit HRss.
Low-risk, apparently health, non-athletic adults 20-59 years of age. |
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A cycle ergometer test would be appropriate for what type of clients?
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Individuals with balance problems, or unfamiliarity with the treadmill.
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A cycle ergometer test would NOT be appropriate for what type of clients?
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Obese individuals
Those with orthopedic problems Those with neuromuscular problems and cannot maintain the proper cadence |
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The YMCA bike test measures what?
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The HR response to incremental 3 minute workloads that progressively elicit higher heart rate responses, to determine maximal effort and estimate VO2 max.
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The Astrand Ryhming cycle test:
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Estimates VO2 max using a single stage six (6) minute submaximal cycling protocol.
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The Submaximal Talk Test:
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Uses VT1 and VT2 to provide heart rate data based on a clients unique metabolic response to exercise, allowing for very individualized program design
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ADL stands for what?
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Activities of daily living
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Blood glucose levels should be above ______ before starting exercise.
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100 mg/dL
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Recommended water intake
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17-20 oz. before exercise
7-10 oz. during exercise, every 10-20 min 16-24 oz. for every lb lost |
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How to calculate a caloric deficit based on a weight loss goal:
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Body weight client wants to lose x 3,500 kcal divided by the goal time = cal deficit
ex: client wants to lose 10lbs in 60 days 10lbs x 3500 = 35000 35000/60days=583 daily deficit |
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Plyometric progression:
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Jumping in place
Single linear jumps Multiple linear jumps Multipledirectional jumps Hops and bounds Depth jumps |
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Torso endurance test protocol
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flexion:ext ratio less than 1.0
(divide into one another) RSB:LSB no greater than 0.05 from 1.0 Side bridge score ext ratio: less than 0.75 |
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Metabolic syndrome symptoms:
Has the presence of 3 or more |
Elevated waist circumference: men ≥40 and women 35 in.
Elevated triglycerides: ≥150 Reduced HDL : Men <40 women <50 Elevated BP: ≥130/85 Elevated fasting blood glucose: ≥100 |
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A good predictor of low back health is...
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endurance of core and postural muscles acting on the low back
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VT2 threshold is...
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an important metabolic marker that determine a clients OBLA (onset blood lactate accumulation)
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The Rockport Fitness Walking Test...
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estimates VO2 max from a clients HRss response to the completion of a 1-mile walking course as fast as possible.
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The 1.5 Mile Run Test...
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is used by the U.S. navy to evaluate cardiorespitory fitness levels, by measuring cardiovascular endurance and muscular endurance of the legs.
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The YMCA Submaximal Step Test...
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utilizes a 12 inch step (four risers), with the individual stepping up and down for 3 minutes. Appropriate for low risk apparently healthy, non-athletic individuals between the ages of 20-59.
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The McArdle Step Test...
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evaluates recovery HR and useful for clients of higher levels of aerobic fitness
(16.25 inches - common height of a bleacher) |
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Muscular fitness tests include:
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Push-up test
Curl-up test McGills muscular endurance test battery Body weight squat test |
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Muscular strength tests include:
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1 RM testing
1 RM bench press test 1 RM leg press test 1 RM squat test |
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Sport skill assessments include:
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Power testing
Field tests |
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Power = ______x______
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Force x Velocity
or work/time |
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Name the five anaerobic power tests.
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Standing long jump (lower body)
Vertical jump (lower body) Kneeling overhead toss (upper body) Margaria-kalamen test (lower body) 300- yard shuttle run (anaerobic capacity) |
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The Standing long jump measures?
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The distance an individual can jump from a standing/stationary position.
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The Vertical Jump Test is performed...
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by a client raising one arm and the trainer marks the wall with chalk for a starting point. Then with three attempts the trainer records the highest point the client can jump and touch the wall.
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The kneeling overhead toss measures...
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the power in the upper extremeties.
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The Margaria-Kalamen stair climb...
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assesses leg power and activation of the phosphagen energy system.
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The 300 Yard Shuttle Run
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assesses anaerobic capacity or the highest rate of sustainable power over a period of time. Individuals run back and fourth over the 25 yard course to each cone 6 times.
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Speed, agility, and quickness testing includes...
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Pro Agility test
T-test 40 yard dash |
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The Pro Agility test...
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assesses a clients ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction, and accelerate again.
Sometimes called the 20 yard agility test or the 5-10-5 shuttle run. |
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How does the T-Test work?
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It is used to test agility by using multidirectional movement (forward, backward, lateral). The client sprints to one cone, shuffles to the net cone, shuffles to the next 2 cones, then runs backward to the start.
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The 40 Yard dash is...
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used to determine acceleration and speed. The only rule is to run as fast as they can for 40 yards.
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BMI:
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weight/height squared
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Low Density Lipoprotein
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bad cholesterol
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High Density Lipoprotein
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good cholesterol
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Where is the first place within the kinetic chain that should develop stability?
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Lumbar spine
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What are the 5 programming components of the stability and mobility training phase
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Proximal stability of the lumbar spine
Proximal mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine Proximal stability of the scapulothoracic spine Proximal mobility of the glenohumeral joint Distal mobility and stability of the distal extremities static balance |
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What muscles are responsible for muscle stabilization?
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Type 1 or slow twitch (endurance muscles)
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What muscles are responsible for joint movement?
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Type 2 or fast twitch muscles (strength and power type training)
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Which joint is classified as favoring stability over mobility?
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Scapulothoracic joint
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Lack of hip-joint mobility will likely lead to...
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compromised stability in the knees and lumbar spine
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What force couple creates posterior pelvic rotation to pull the pelvis out of anterior pelvic tilt?
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Hamstrings and rectus abdominis
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What muscles make up "the core"?
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multifidi, quadratus lumborum, transverse abdominis, deep fibers of the internal oblique, diaphram, and pelvic floor.
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Having a client perform supine-lying shoulder depression and shoulder retraction helps them establish?
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Scapulothoracic stability. This teaches the client how to "pack" the scapula.
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Once a client can demonstrate good balance on two feet the next progression on balance would be to...
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narrow the base of support.
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Static stretches are:
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Stretches taken to the point of tension and holding for 15-60 seconds
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Myofascial release:
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Using a foam roller, client performs a back and forth motion over the tight or tender region for 30-60 seconds.
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Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF):
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Clients perform a hold-relax stretch, holding the isometric contraction of the agonist for a minimum of six seconds, followed by a 10-30 second assisted or passive static stretch.
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Active isoloated stretching is:
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A client can perform one or two sets of five to ten repetitions at a controlled tempo, holding the end range for one to two seconds.
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Dynamic and ballistic stretches:
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Perform one or two sets of 10 repetitions.
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What is the progression for stance positions?
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Hip-width stance
Staggered stance (split stance) Tandem stance Single-leg stance |
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What are abilities?
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Inherited traits that are stable and enduring.
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What are skills?
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Developed and modified with practice.
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The ACL connects?
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The posterior-lateral part of the femur to an anterior medial part of the tibia within the knee joint. A very important stabilizer of the femur on the tibia during knee extension.
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How much muscle tissue will an average non-strength trained adult lose each decade due to disuse atrophy?
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5 lbs per decade loss of muscle tissue (~.5lbs/yr)
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Concentric contraction is...
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muscle shortening
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Eccentric contraction is...
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muscle lengthening
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Isometric contraction or static
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with out changing the muscle length
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Muscular strength intensity should be at what resistance?
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between 80-90% of maximum resistance
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Load training for muscular hypertrophy should be at what resistance?
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between 70-80% of maximum resistance
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Specificity is...
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exercising the appropriate muscles based on the clients needs
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Overload is...
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the process of gradually adding more exercise resistance than the muscles have previously encountered.
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Reversibility is...
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the principle that suggests any improvement in fitness due to physical activity is entirely reversible with the discontinuation of the training program.
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Diminishing Returns:
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After a certain level of performance is achieved, there will be a decline in effectiveness of training at furthering a persons performance level.
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Supersets are...
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performing back to back exercises with no rest in between while working opposing muscles to fatigue
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Name the variable(s) that effect the intensity of lower body plyometrics:
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Points of contact, Speed, Vertical height, Body weight, and Complexity of the exercise
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This is necessary for the synthesis of hemoglobin and myoglobin
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Iron
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This is an essential nutrient for energy production; used in times of muscular fatigue
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riboflavin
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This is important for immune function, protein synthesis, and blood formation
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zinc
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This is important for the normal metabolism of nerve tissue, protein, fat, and carbohydrates
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Vitamin B12
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This is important for blood clotting, nerve transmission, and muscle stimulation
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calcium
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This is necessary for calcium absorption
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vitamin D
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This is the source of the white color of milk
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casein
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Strength gains during the first few weeks of resistance training are primarily due to ___________
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improved neuromuscular function
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How do you calculate training volume?
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Multiply the sets by the repetitions by the weight to equal the training volume
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Which muscles are prime movers for external rotation of the shoulder?
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teres minor and infraspinatus
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As muscle fibers contract to provide the necessary movement force, they use 2 fuel sources called ______and _____ for energy production. The by product of these results in the build up of ___________
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creatine phosphate and glycogen
-lactic acid |
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This is the product of muscular strength and movement speed
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muscular power
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Recommended training volume for muscular endurance is...
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2-3 sets
12 or more reps |
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Recommended training volume for muscular hypertrophy is...
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3-6 sets
6-12 reps |
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Recommended training volume for muscular strength is...
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2-6 sets
6 or less reps |
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For most general muscular conditioning, a ________ rest interval between exercises is sufficient.
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one minute
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During a double progression method first add _______ then ________
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more reps
increase weight by 5% |
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Macrocycle refers to what amount of time?
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6-12 months, and program timeframe
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Mesocycle refers to how much time?
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A division of the macrocycle (generally 3 months), and provides specific training goals
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Microcycles refers to how much time?
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two (2) to four (4) weeks, and progressive training segments for each mesocycle
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What is the appropriate rate of progression for muscular strength?
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Frequency- 72 hour recovery
Intensity- 80-90% max Repetitions- 4-8 Sets- 3-4 Type- standard machine and free weights |
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What is the appropriate rate of progression for muscular hypertrophy?
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Frequency- 72 hour recovery (2 muscle groups/day)
Intensity-70-80% max Repetitions- 8-12 Sets- 3-4 with 30-60sec rest interval Type- multi-muscle and isolated exercises |
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Iron deficiency is known as
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anemia
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This is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute
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cardiac output
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This is known as the "power plant" of the cells where aerobic metabolism occurs
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mitochondria
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This method of monitoring exercise intensity is the most widely used but strongly discouraged
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% MHR
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Use of this marker of intensity requires an estimation attained via mathematical formula and has a high degree of inherent error
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% MHR
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Does not correlate strongly with performance and is generally not influenced by training
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% MHR
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Discrepancies in individual resting heart rates are taken into account when using this method
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% HRR
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Because of the debate regarding body position when measuring resting heart rate when using this method, two sets of training zones may be necessary, one for seated recumbent positions and one for standing positions
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% HRR
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This is a subjective method of gauging exercise intensity
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Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE)
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Very sedentary individuals often find this difficult to use, as the find any level of exercise fairly hard
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Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE)
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Moderate = 70% MHR
Somewhat hard= 80% MHR Hard = 85% MHR |
Rating of Perceived Exertion (RPE)
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Although the evidence base for this method is very deep the very large range of acceptable percentages makes it difficult to use when recommending exercise intensities
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VO2
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Though this is considered the "gold standard" it may be less useful that widely believed
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VO2
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Involves using multiples of an assumed average metabolic rate of 3.5 mL/kg/min
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Metabolic Equivalents (METs)
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Calculated by measuring or estimating the total quantity of O2 consumed per minute and multiplying by 5 Kcal/liter O2
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caloric expenditure
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Works on the premise that about at the intensity of VT1 the increase in ventilation is accompanied by an increase in breathing frequency
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Talk test
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Is based on an individual's unique metabolic or ventilatroy responses
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Talk test
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Separates Zones 2 from Zone 3 in the three-zone training model
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VT2
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Is associated with the flattening of the heart rate response to increase intensity
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VT2
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When working with a beginner client, the most appropriate progression variable to manipulate is
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duration
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List the 4 cardo training phases of the ACE IFT model
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Aerobic base
Aerobic efficiency Anaerobic endurance Anaerobic power |
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The Talk Test for VT1 is conducted during which phase?
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Phase 2 - Aerobic efficency
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In what phase should the VT2 threshold test be conducted?
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Phase 3- anaerboic endurance
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When performing steady state exercise, what limits exercise duration?
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Availability of oxygen
Willingness to continue Availability of energy from stored glycogen and or blood glucose |
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What causes cardiovascular drift?
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Increased heart rate to compensate for reduced blood volume due to sweat production for thermoregulation
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What is the primary reason for having all clients perform an adequate cool down?
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To enhance venous return to prevent blood pooling in the extremities
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What is the greatest limitation associated with using heart rate reserve?
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Accurate programming using HRR requires actually measuring max heart rate and resting heart rate
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The onset of blood lactate accumulation (OBLA) occurs in which threshold?
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VT2
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What is the primary focus of aerobic base training in the ACE IFT model?
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Creating a positive experience and early success through achievable zone 1 exercise of increased duration
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Research shows a full cardiorespiratory exercise program should be composed of:
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Zone 1 (below VT1): 70-80%
Zone 2 (VT1 to just below VT2): <10% Zone 3 (at or above VT2): 10-20% |
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Decreasing the number of recovery days per week to accommodate additional interval work can cause
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overtraining syndrome
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What are the 4 phases of Functional movement and resistance training of the ACE IFT model?
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1- Stability and mobility
2- Movement training 3- Load training 4- Performance Training |
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The affective and neuroendocrine response to mind-body exercise is mediated through the hyphthalmic-pituitary-adrinal axis and results in a decreased production of which hormones that are associated with stress?
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catecholamines and cortisol
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Regular participation of mind body exercise will have the following benefit...
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increase self efficacy
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What is considered a classical form of mind body exercise?
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Hatha yoga
Tai Chi Qigong Spiritual and ethnic dance Some ancient martial arts (karate, judo, aikido) |
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What is a metabolic benefit of practicing yoga and Tai Chi on a regular basis?
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Increased glucose tolerance and insulin sensitivity
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What is the primary method for progressing the principal challenge in hatha yoga?
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increasing the complexity of the asanas
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A client who is deconditioned or has a chronic disease should avoid this during a mind body exercise
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poses with the head below the heart
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This is a form of mind body exercise that re-educates the body to break inefficient movement patterns
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Pilates
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How can a personal trainer most effectively incorporate mind body into a session for a client?
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include some Iyengar poses and yogic breathing in the cool down
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Prior to exercising, a clients fasting blood glucose level should be over...
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100 mg/dL
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When working with people who have lower back pain, exercises most benefit when performed how often?
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on a daily basis
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How many repetitions are recommended to stimulate bone change in clients who have osteopenia and or osteoporosis?
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6-8
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Where is the scapular plane?
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30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane
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An inflammation of the wrist etensors near their origin is commonly referred to as
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Tennis elbow
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Which nerve is commonly compressed due to carpal tunnel syndrome?
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Median nerve
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Clients returning to exercise following greater trochanteric bursitis should generally avoid __________.
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side-lying positions that compress the lateral hip
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When working with a client who has a history of iliotibial (IT) band syndrome, which muscle group acting on the hip is most likely to be weak?
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Hip Abductors
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Tightness in which of the following structures can be a cause of patellofemoral pain syndrome due to its lateral fascial connections to the patella?
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IT band complex
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Stretching which muscles has been shown to help relieve symptoms associated with medial tibial stress syndrome (MTSS) and or anterior shin splints?
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soleus and anterior compartment of the lower leg
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What exercises would be most important to include for a client who has recovered from Achilles tendinitis and wants to prevent it from returning?
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eccentric strengthening for the calf complex through controlled dorsiflexion against gravity and stretching the calf muscles
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When working with a client who has a history of plantar fasciitis, it would be most important to include stretching exercises for the ______________
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gastrocnemius, soleus and plantar fascia
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What is the most important step a fitness facility can take to minimize risks of cardiovascular events?
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Having each member complete a medical history form
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Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA) of 1996
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Ensures individual privacy by requiring confidentiality of health documents
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What should you do first when a person falls to the floor while exercising?
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Assess if the person is conscious and asking if they are alright.
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What is the most common heart rhythm during during cardiac arrest?
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ventricular fibrillation
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A heart attack is characterized by these signs and symptoms?
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A squeezing pressure in the chest that can be mistaken for indigestion or heart burn
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How is a transient ischemic attack (TIA) different from a stroke?
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Signs of TIA last less than one hour
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What should you do when you suspect a client is having a mild hypoglycemic incident?
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Help the client sit down and give them a sugary drink if they can swallow
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Altered mental status
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is a symptom of a heat stroke and needs to be treated as an emergency
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What business structure puts a personal trainer at the greatest risk for losing personal assets in the event of a lawsuit filed by a client for an incident related to personal training services provided?
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Sole proprietorship
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What business structure combines the limited liability and flow through taxation of the S-corp with easier creation and operation requirements?
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Limited Liability partnership
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A Signed contract
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ensures that all aspects of the client - personal trainer relationship are properly established
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This is a legal term used to describe a situation where a trainer fails to act and a client is injured, but the client is determined to have played a role in his or her own injury?
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contributory negligence
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What form is used to have the client acknowledge that they have been specifically informed about the risks associated with the activity in which they are about to engage?
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Informed consent
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Before training a client in their home a personal trainer must check with their insurance company to see if they are covered for training in these settings or if they need to add a _____________ policy to their existing professional liability insurance.
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specific insurance rider
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Using the ACE certified logo to promote nutritional products, DVD's, or equipments sold by the trainer is ______________
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a violation of intellectual property laws.
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The mission statement and business model should be detailed in which component of the business plan?
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Business description
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What is the primary energy system utilized during a resistance training exercise set that is 60-90 seconds in duration?
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Anaerobic glycosis
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How many carbohydrates are recommended for long duration events?
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30-60 grams of carbs per hour
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The Anterior Superior Iliac Spine (ASIS) and pubic bone should be lined up____________-
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vertically
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To calculate how much protein or carbohydrates a person should intake....
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you multiply their weight in Kg by the number range.
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If the knees fall inward during a bend and lift screen what muscles would be tight?
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gluteus medius and maximus
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Deliberators are:
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Low Dominance and Low Sociability
More cognitive/thinking, and less affective/emotional |
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Directors are:
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High Dominance and Low Sociability
More cognitive/thinking, and less affective/emotional |
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Collaborators are:
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Low Dominance and High Sociability
Less cognitive/thinking, and more affective/emotional |
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Expressors are:
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High Dominance and High Sociability
Less cognitive/thinking, and more affective/emotional |
