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290 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which cells are responsible responsible for intestinal wave propagation?
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The interstitial cells of Cajal.
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Which substances increase or decrease the possibility complete depolarization of the intestines?
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Neurohumeral substances (neurocrines. Paracrines. Hormones)
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What is the function of the buccinator muscle?
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Propels food that has escaped the vestibule back into the mouth.
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Which structure helps guide food backwards?
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the rugae of the hard palate.
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Which pharyngeal muscles contract to move the food bolus from the oropharynx to the esophagus?
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thyropharyngeus and the cricopharyngeus (lesser include hypopharyngeus. pterygopharyngeus. palatatophayrngeus- all five constrict)
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What is the function of the stylopharyngeus (dilator muscle)?
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Widens the rostral pharynx and allows a bolus in.
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What are the three main phases of swallowing?
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the oral phase. The pharyngeal phase. The esophageal phase.
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Dysphagia during the oral phase is usually a disorder of what structure?
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The tongue.
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Which muscles close the glottis during the pharyngeal phase?
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The adductors.
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When does the pharyngeal phase end?
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When the bolus enters the proximal esophagus and the pharyngeal muscles relax.
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Which nerve sends visceral information to the medulla from the tongue- the pharynx- and the esophagus?
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The vagus.
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What five cranial nerves are involved in swallowing?
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Trigeminal (5)- Facial(7)- Glossopharyngeal (9)-Vagus (10)- Hypoglossal (12).
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Dysphagia of the pharyngeal phase is usually due to what?
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Dysfunction of the cranial and caudal constrictors.
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What is the predominant clinical sign of pharyngeal dysphagia?
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Aspiration.
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Define the esophageal phase of swallowing?
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Transport of the bolus through the esophagus through the gastroesophageal sphincter into the stomach.
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If a food bolus is broken up in the esophagus it may indicate what type of dysfunction?
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Motor deficiency (as can occur in myasthenia gravis).
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What triggers primary esophageal peristalsis?
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Pharyngeal contraction but also may need tactile or stretch stimulus.
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What triggers secondary esophageal peristalsis?
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Esophageal luminal distention and tactile stimuli.
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Is reflux through the open lower esophageal sphincter with an immediate secondary peristaltic wave normal?
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Yes.
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T/F. The LES is an anatomic structure.?
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False. (Rugal folds. Smooth muscle of esophagus. The oblique insertion of the esophagus in to the stomach. The incisura of the stomach. The oblique smooth muscle of the lesser gastric curve. |
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What may be considered another phase of swallowing?
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The cricopharyngeal phase (passage of the bolus into the UES).
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What is cricopharyngeal achalasia?
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Failure of relaxation of the cricopharyngeal sphincter.
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What is the term for the failure to close the cricopharyngeal sphincter?
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Chalasia.
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What pedunculated soft tissue masses may be seen extending into the nasopharyngeal area of young cats?
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Nasalpharyngeal polyps via the eustacian tube.
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What clinical signs may be associated with nasopharyngeal polyps of young cats?
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Stridor/stertor. Discharge. Sneezing.
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In cats is nasopharyngeal stenosis congenital or acquired?
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Acquired (from previous trauma or infection).
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In which breed is pharyngeal mucocoele common (sialocele of the pharynx)?
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Miniature Poodle.
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How common is oral neoplasia in dogs?
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fourth most common.
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What are the most common oral neoplasia in dogs (in order)?
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Malignant melanoma. Squamous cell carcinoma. Fibrosarcoma.
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What are the most common oral neoplasia in cats (in order)?
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Squamous cell carcinoma. Fibrosarcoma.
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What is a common neoplasia of the nasopharynx of the cat?
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Lymphoma.
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What is the most common neuromuscular cause of oropharyngeal dysphagia?
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Myasthenia gravis.
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What clinical signs are often seen with cricopharyngeal achaclasia?
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aspiration and dysphagia.
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Cricopharyngeal achalasia is associated with what breed of dog?
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Toy breeds.
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What is cricopharyngeal dyssynchrony?
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The UES lags behind pharyngeal contraction.
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Why should kibble not be used for a fluoro exam for pharyngeal function?
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Kibble causes too much motion of the oropharynx.
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The UES is responsive to which two substances?
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Gastrin and secretin from the stomach.
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Skeletal muscle of the esophagus is under the control of which nerve?
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The vagus nerve.
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What effect does esophagitis have on the lower esophageal sphincter tone?
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It decreases tone leading to more reflux and esophagitis.
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What is the most common cause of esophageal stricture?
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Foreign body and reflux from general anesthesia.
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What is the probable suspected cause of acquire idiopathic megaesophagus?
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a defect in the afferent pathway responding to dilation.
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What is the cause of 25% of cases of acquired megaesophagus?
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Myasthenia gravis (followed by dysautonomia- foreign body-stricture).
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What is the vascular ring anomaly that can affect the esophagus?
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Persistent right aortic arch.
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Which two breeds are predisposed to vascular ring anomaly?
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GSD and Irish Setter.
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What is the cause of a congenital esophageal diverticula?
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A developmental abnormality in the muscle allowing herniation of the mucosa through the muscularis.
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What is the cause of a pulsion esophageal diverticula?
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Increased pressure secondary to obstruction or altered motility.
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What type of diverticula is caused by paraesophageal inflammation and fibrosis?
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A traction diverticula (leads to eversion of the esophageal wall).
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Esophageal diverticula may be confused with what normal presentation in a brachycephalic breed?
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Esophageal redundancy.
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What rare communication can occur between the esophagus and the respiratory tract?
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An esophageal fistula.
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In the dog which lung lobe is most commonly affected by an esophageal fistula?
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The right caudal lung lobe (in cats it’s the left caudal and the accessory).
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Is esophageal neoplasia common or rare?
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Rare- it is less than 5% of all neoplasia.
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In dogs what are the most common type of esophageal neoplasia?
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Fibrosarcoma and osteosarcoma (malignant transformations from spirocerca lupi).
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What is the most common esophageal neoplasia in the cat?
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Squamous cell carcinoma.
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A sliding hiatal hernia is the cranial displacement of the esophagus and stomach through what structure?
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The esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm. |
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What is a paraesophageal hiatal hernia?
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Cranial displacement of part of the stomach into the caudal mediastinum through a defect adjacent to the esophageal hiatus.
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Which dog is predisposed to hiatal hernia?
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The male Shar Pei.
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Hiatal hernia always leads to what physiologic changes in the esophagus?
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Decreased LES pressure. Reflux. Esophagitis. Hypomotility.
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In which condition does the stomach +/- spleen duodenum and pancreas herniate into the esophagus?
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Gastroesophageal intussusception.
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What is the mortality rate of gastroesophageal intussusception?
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95%.
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The Migrating myoelectric complexes are stimulated by which substance?
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Motilin.
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The parietal cells of the gastric mucosa produce what substance?
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Acid. Pepsinogen A and intrinsic factor.
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What do the chief cells produce?
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Pepsinogen A.
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Somatostatin is produced by which cells in the mucosa of the stomach?
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The neuroendocrine cells.
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Gastrin is produced by which cells of the stomach mucosa?
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G cells.
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What is the function of somatostatin?
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It is released when pH is <3 to decrease histamine/gastrin/ and acid secretion.
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The production of which substance is important for maintaining the gastric mucosal barrier?
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Prostaglandin.
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Which is expelled faster from the stomach: liquids or solids?
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Liquids.
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What is the function of pepsin?
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Protein digestion.
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Pepsin is first secreted as what substance?
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Pepsinogen and is responsive to Histamine and acetylcholine.
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What substance is responsible for fat digestion?
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gastric lipase.
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What is the function of intrinsic factor?
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Absorption of B12.
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What size do food particles need to be to pass through the pylorus?
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< 2mm.
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Passive expulsion of fluid or food from the esophagus or stomach is the definition of what?
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Regurgitation.
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Regurgitation never contains what type of material?
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Bilious.
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Vomiting is what type of reflux?
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centrally mediated.
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What condition precedes vomiting?
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Nausea.
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What is the organ of nausea?
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The duodenum (from tension and chemoreceptors).
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Where is the vomiting center located?
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The medulla.
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After how many days is diarrhea considered chronic?
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> 14 days.
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What cells produce the brush border enzymes?
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enterocytes.
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What substance is required for energy for the enterocytes?
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Glutamine.
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In what part of the small intestine is folic acid absorbed?
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the proximal.
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In which part of the small intestine is cobalamin absorbed?
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the distal.
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What is the usual cause of malabsorptive diarrhea?
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Loss of GI epithelium (viral/bacterial/protozoal).
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Define secretory diarrhea?
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Rate of intestinal secretion overwhelms the absorptive capacity.
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Secretory diarrhea is due to abnormal stimulation of which type of intestine?
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The small intestinal crypts.
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What condition causes maldigestion?
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Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency.
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What test is used to distinguish maldigestion from malabsorption?
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TLI.
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In which small animal species is maldigestion not seen?
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Cats.
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Rapid intestinal transit resulting in malabsortion may be due to what condition?
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Hyperthyroidism in cats.
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Malabsorption is divided into which two categories?
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PLE or non-PLE.
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PLE malabsorption is based on the lab value of which substance?
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Albumin (non TP).
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What is the most common cause of PLE malabsoprtion in dogs?
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IBD (lymphangiectasia/lymphoma/fungal).
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What are the two common causes of PLE malabsorption in a cat?
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IBD and LSA.
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Parvovirus colonizes which cells in the body?
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crypt cells/bone marrow/lymphoid.
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What viral infection causes acute diarrhea and leukopenia in kittens?
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Panleukopenia virus (aka feline parvovirus).
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Feline coronavirus can mutate to what other virus?
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FIP.
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FIP can cause palpable masses in the colon secondary to what?
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Pyogranulomatous lesions.
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How often does FIV cause chronic enteritis?
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10-20%.
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Campylobacter is seen in young animals in the presence of what other conditions?
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parasitism or immune compromise.
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Salmonella infection in cats can also be called what?
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Songbird fever.
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What bacteria can cause enteritis and multisystemic granulomatous infection?
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Tuberculosis mycobacterium.
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Salmon poisoning is categorized as what type of infectious diarrhea?
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Rickettsial diarrhea.
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What type of infection of the large intestine can lead to severe diarrhea/ataxia/death?
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Blue green algae (prototheca).
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What is the most common fungal enteritidies?
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pythiosis.
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Which fungus can invade the Gi tract and is typically disseminated?
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Histoplasmosis capsulatum.
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Which helminth is associated with diarrhea and failure to thrive?
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Rounds worms (Toxacara canis and cati).
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Which helminth causes haemorrhagic enteritis with anemia in dogs?
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Hook worms (Ancylostoma).
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Haemorrhagic enteritis in puppies my be caused from ingesting milk infected with what organism?
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Strongyloides.
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What is the most common tape worm of the dog and the cat?
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Dipylidium (flea is the intermediate host).
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Is cryptosporidium more common in dogs or in cats?
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Cats as self-limiting diarrhea.
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Inflammatory bowel disease is usually an infiltration of which type of cells?
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Lymphoplasmacytic (occasionally eosinophils).
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What are the components of triaditis?
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Pancreatitis/IBD/Cholangitis.
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Diarrhea secondary to Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth may be caused by what?
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Antibiotic use.
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Which breed is associated with hereditary Lymphocytic-plasmacytic causes severe intractable diarrhea?
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Basenji.
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Eosinophilic enteritis may be secondary to what?
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parasitism/food hypersensitivity/ visceral larval migrans/idiopathic.
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Why does hyperthyroidism cause diarrhea?
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More rapid transit time.
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Why does infiltrative neoplasia cause diarrhea?
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Impaired enterocyte function/ blood or lymph derangement/ dead enterocytes secondary to ischemia.
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What are the most common GI tumors of the dog?
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Adenocarcinoma-leiomyo(sarc)oma- GIST.
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What are the common intestinal tumors of the cat?
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LSA- adenocarcinoma- MCT.
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What ultrasound findings is highly predictive of intestinal neoplasia?
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Loss of wall layering.
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In the dog adenocarcinoma is more common in the large intestine. When it occurs in the small intestine where does it tend to occur?
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The duodenum.
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In which portion of the small intestine does adenocarcinoma occur more commonly in the cat?
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Jejunum and ileum.
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GIST arise from which cells?
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The interstitial cells of Cajal.
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What are the common causes of acute diarrhea?
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Dietary change or indiscretion/ hypersensitivity/ drugs/ toxins.
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Is haemorrhagic gastroenteritis seen more often in small or large breed dogs?
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small breed.
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What is a primary cause of lymphangiectasia?
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Not enough lymph vessels.
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What are the secondary causes of lymphangiectasia?
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Obstruction of lymphatic vessels or hypertension.
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In which breeds is lymphangiectasia more common?
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The small terriers (yorkies and maltese)- rotties- Norwegian lundehund.
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What are the ultrasound findings of lymphangiectasia?
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Wall thickening greater then 3 mm/ hyperechogenicity of the mucosal layer/ corrugation/ hypermotility/ and indistinction of wall layering.
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Define short bowel syndrome.?
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Two thirds of small intestine is absent due to congenital abnormality or resection.
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What are the classic signs of large bowel diarrhea?
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increased urgency/frequency/mucus and tensemus as well as haematochezia.
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Is a loss of body condition expected with large bowel diarrhea?
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No unless there is severe blood loss.
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What is the screening test for histoplasmosis as a cause of large bowel diarrhea?
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Rectal scraping.
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What is the intermediate host for schistosomiasis?
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The snail.
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Tritrichomonas foetus causes chronic diarrhea in which small animal species?
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The cat.
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In which breed is histiocytic ulcerative colitis more common?
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The boxer- usually young.
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In the dog which is more common tumors of the colon or the stomach or the small intestine?
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The colon.
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In the dog what are the common neoplasias of the colon?
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Adenocarcinoma/ Lymphoma/ GIST (including leiomyoma)
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What are the common neoplasias of the cat colon?
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Adenocarcinoma/ LSA/ MCT.
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What clinical sign can indicate colon disease in the cat?
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vomiting.
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What is the most common extraluminal cause of large intestinal obstruction?
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Intussusception.
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What is the most common cause of intussusception?
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Idiopathic (then viral/parasitic/foreign body).
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What is the most common cause of intussusception in older animals?
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Neoplasia.
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What is the normal barium gastric emptying time in Beagles?
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30 min to 2 hours (some studies have taken 4 hours).
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What is normal small intestinal transit time in the dog?
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30 min to 2 hours (intestinal emptying time 3-5 hours).
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What are the two types of ileus?
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Mechanical and functional.
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What are two types of primary causes of delayed gastric emptying?
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Outflow obstruction and impaired propulsion.
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What modality is the gold standard for gastric emptying?
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Nuclear medicine.
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Most of the time is diarrhea associated with hypomotility or hypermotility?
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Hypomotility.
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What are some causes of an intramural obstruction of the intestines?
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Neoplasia/granuloma/hematoma.
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What is the most common location for intussusception?
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Ileocolic.
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In which type of animal is intussusception most common?
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young animals after gastroenteritis or surgery.
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Strangulation of the intestine will usually occur secondary to what?
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Inguinal or umbilical hernia/ occasionally in the mesentery.
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What is the common cause of constipation in cats?
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Idiopathic megacolon.
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In which cat breed can sacral spinal cord deformities cause constipation?
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The manx cat.
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In which condition is there protrusion of the rectal wall +/- bladder colon etc through a weakened part of the pelvic diaphragm?
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Perineal hernia.
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In people radiography of ulcers are divided into what two categories?
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Benign versus malignant.
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What is the most common cause of chronic gastritis?
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lymphocytic-plasmacytic gastritis with lymphoid follicle hyperplasia.
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What cause of chronic gastritis would be expected with a concurrent dermatopathy?
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Food intolerance.
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What radiographic signs may indicate hypertrophic gastropathy?
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Gastric distention and delayed gastric emptying.
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Atrophic gastritis may progress to which neoplasm?
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Adenocarcinoma
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What is the location for most gastric adenocarcinomas of the dog?
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The pylorus and the lesser curvature.
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Which cat breed is predisposed to hypertrophy of the pylorus?
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The Siamese cat.
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What is the most common condition secondary to pythiosis of the stomach?
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Transmural thickening and pyloric outflow obstruction.
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In GDV the pylorus is displaced to what position?
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dorsally and the left.
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What is the radiographic sign of gastric dilation without volvulus?
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Normal anatomical position with distention.
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What is a radiographic sign of gastric pneumatosis?
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Curvilinear gas in the stomach wall.
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In which part of the pancreatic acinar cell are the enzymes produced?
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The rough ER.
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Protein digesting enzymes are stored in what type of granules?
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Zymogens.
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Secretion of pancreatic enzymes are stimulated by what two substances?
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Acetylcholine and Cholecystokinin.
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Which pancreatic cells produce glucagon?
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Alpha cells.
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The beta cells of the pancreas produce which substance?
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Insulin.
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Somatostatin is produced by which cells of the pancreas?
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the delta cells.
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Pancreatic polypeptide is produced by which cells of the pancreas?
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the F cells or the PP cells.
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In the dog which type of pancreatitis is associated with fibrosis and atrophy?
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Chronic.
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In the US which dog breed is over represented for pancreatitis?
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the Miniature Schnauzer.
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What is the first step of the pathogenesis of pancreatitis?
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Autodigestion from the enzymes.
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Once active enzymes are in the pancreas inflammatory mediators are released from which cells causing more damage?
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Neutrophils and Macrophages (they also release free radicals).
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What are the common clinical signs of pancreatitis?
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Vomiting/anorexia/weakness/diarrhea/ abdominal pain/depression.
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What the sensitivity of ultrasound in pancreatitis?
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70% in dogs and miss 50% surgical lesions.
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What are the sonographic findings of chronic pancreatitis?
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decreased pancreas size/mixed echogenicity/nodular echotexture/ mineralization/ irregular widening of the pancreatic ducts.
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What are the three types of pancreatitis in the cat?
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Acute necrotizing/acute suppurative/ chronic non-suppurative.
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What are the primary histologic characteristics of acute necrotizing pancreatitis?
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Acinar cell and peripancreatic fat necrosis with inflammation/haemorrhage/ mineralization and fibrosis.
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Acute necrotizing pancreatitis in the cat is associated with what other concurrent disease?
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Biliary tract disease (cholangitis >> stricture/neoplasia)
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In the cat what is another GI risk factor that may lead to acute necrotizing pancreatitis?
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IBD (bacteria and vomiting associate with).
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What are the clinical signs of acute necrotizing pancreatitis?
|
anorexia/lethargy (less vomiting and abdominal pain than the dog).
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What test is better than ultrasound for feline pancreatitis?
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fPLI.
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What are the ultrasound findings of acute necrotizing pancreatitis?
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Hyperechoic peripancreatic fat/ hypoechoic pancreas/ gall bladder enlargement.
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What is the appearance of the lymph nodes in most symptomatic cats?
|
Lymphadenopathy/lymphadenectasis.
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A sterile collection of pancreatic fluid surrounded by a fibrous tissue capsule is the definition of what pathologic structure?
|
A pancreatic pseudocyst.
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T/F A pancreatic abscess is usually infected.?
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False (almost all are not infected).
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What is the preferred therapy for a pancreatic abscess?
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Drainage.
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In what condition is there insufficient production and secretion of pancreatic enzymes?
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Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency.
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What is the most common cause of EPI?
|
Acinar cell atrophy or chronic pancreatitis.
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Which breeds are predisposed to pancreatic acinar atrophy?
|
GSD and rough coated collie.
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What affect can chronic pancreatitis have on acinar cells?
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Destroy and fibrose them.
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What percentage of exocrine pancreatic function must be lost for EPI to become evident?
|
greater than 90%.
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What is the difference in the appearance in pancreatic nodular hyperplasia versus a pancreatic adenoma?
|
They looks similar but the adenoma has a capsule.
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What is the most common tumor of the exocrine pancreas?
|
Adenocarcinoma.
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What is the sensitivity of pancreatic ultrasound in the dog?
|
70% (rare to see a mass in cats).
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What percentage of older dogs have pancreatic nodular hyperplasia?
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80%.
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What condition is indicated by a tiger striped appearance of the pancreas on ultrasound?
|
Pancreatic edema (seen with pancreatitis or portal hypertension).
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Pancreatic cysts are commonly seen with what other concurrent disease?
|
Polycystic kidney disease.
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Which is the most common islet cell tumor?
|
Insulinoma.
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What is the usual location of an insulinoma?
|
Either limb and not the body.
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Where does an insulinoma commonly met to?
|
Lymoh node or liver.
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What substances are released in response to hypoglycemia?
|
Glucagon and catecholamines.
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What percentage of insulinomas are found on ultrasound?
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50%.
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Which type of diabetes mellitus is more common in dogs?
|
Type I-insulin dependent.
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Which type of diabetes mellitus is present in cats?
|
Type II- non-insulin dependent.
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What common ocular condition is associated with canine diabetes mellitus and is rare in cats?
|
Cataracts.
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What type of neuropathy is common in cats with diabetes mellitus?
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Peripheral neuropathy resulting in plantigrade stance.
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Bile is made from which substance?
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cholesterol.
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What is the most common bile pigment?
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Bilirubin.
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Bile is released at the sphincter of Oddi in response to which substance?
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Cholecystokinin.
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Bile acids help with fat absorption in which part of the small intestine?
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Jejunum.
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Under the influence of insulin what happens to glucose in the hepatic cells?
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Converted to and stored as glycogen.
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Glycogen storage is limited. What happens to the remaining glycogen under the influence of insulin?
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It is converted to fatty acids.
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What two processes occur in liver in response to glucagon?
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Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis.
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Fatty acids produced in the liver are absorbed into the blood as what product?
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Non-essential fatty acids (NEFAs are converted to VLDL for distribution to tissues).
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80% of amino acids are absorbed from which bloody supply by the liver?
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the Portal.
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What are the early clinical signs of liver disease?
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Anorexia. Lethargy. Vomiting. Pu/pd.
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GI tract bacterial degradation of amines and amino acids can produced what substance that causes hepatic encephalopathy?
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Ammonia.
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Which cells of the liver are part of the reticuloendothelial system?
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Kupffer cells.
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Bilirubin is bound to what substance and secreted into bile?
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albumin.
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Which clotting factor is not produced by the hepatocytes?
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VIII.
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What are the vitamin K dependent clotting factors?
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2-7-9-10.
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Urolithiasis in liver disease is secondary to what process?
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Chronic hyperammonemia and hepatic processing of uric acid.
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Which percentage of hepatocytes are affected in hepatic lipidosis that will produce clinical signs/considered severe?
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>80%.
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Is hepatic lipidosis typically a primary or secondary process?
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secondary.
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What are the two common types of vacuolar hepatopathy?
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Steroid or glycogen hepatopathy.
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Wha is the appearance of liver on ultrasound with steroid hepatopathy?
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Hyperechoic.
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What clinical signs are seen with a vacuolar hepatophathy?
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None.
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Inflammation in other organ systems can produce what change in the liver?
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Hepatic amyloidosis.
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What type of organism is almost never the cause of acute idiopathic hepatitis?
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bacterial.
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What are two causes of acute toxic hepatitis?
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Phalloidin mushrooms and acetaminophen.
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What is a bacterial cause of acute infectious hepatitis?
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Leptospirosis.
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Chronic hepatitis is characterized by inflammation hepatocellular apoptosis/necrosis and what else?
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Fibrosis.
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Classic chronic hepatitis (aka chronic active hepatitis) can last how long?
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>4-6 months. |
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Chronic hepatitis can progress to what conditions?
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Fibrosis and cirrhosis.
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What type of hepatitis is one of the most common liver disease in dogs?
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Idiopthic chronic.
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Which hepatitis is characterized by macrophage infiltration?
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Granulomatous hepatitis.
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What is the pathogenesis of hepatic fibrosis and cirrhosis?
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Inflammatory cells cause necrosis which create space filled by more inflammatory cells. Damage to cell membrane attracts collagen producing cells.
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At which point does cirrhosis occur?
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When there is enough fibrosis to cause hepatic distortion/regenerative nodules/portocentral vascular anastomosis.
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What component of fibrosis and cirrhosis causes portal hypertension?
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Collagen limits vascular expansion.
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In newborns hepatic abscess may be secondary to what condition?
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Ascending infection from portal umbilical veins.
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In older dogs hepatic abscess is commonly secondary to what condition?
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Tumor.
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What two organisms are commonly found in hepatic abscess?
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Staph and clostridia.
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Which breed is predisposed to Copper storage disorder?
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Beddlington terriers and Doberman pinschers.
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Is Doberman hepatitis more common in females or males?
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Females 5-7 years.
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Copper overload causes inflammation as a result of what?
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Hydroxl radical formation.
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Which dog breed is predisposed to hepatic amyloidosis?
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the Chinese Shar-Pei.
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What is the ultrasound appearance of the liver in a patient with hepatic amyloidosis?
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Hypoechoic with masses suggestive of hematomas.
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What is the radiographic appearance of liver lobe torsion?
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usually see a mass.
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Which liver lobe is most commonly torsed?
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Left lateral ( although current lit states no predilection)
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What is the ultrasound appearance of liver torsion?
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Hypoechoic or heterogenous mass/decrease flow in hepatic vessels/ peritoneal effusions.
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What is the second most common liver disease of cats?
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Cholangitis.
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What is the usual cause of neutrophilic cholangitis in cats?
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Ascendign bacterial infection.
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Which organism is the usual organism implicated in cholangitis in cats?
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Escherichia Coli.
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What are the ultrasound findings of cholangitis?
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Dilated gall bladder with thickened wall and inspissated bile with distended bile ducts (hepatic parenchyma may patchy and echogenic).
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What are the components of triaditis?
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IBD/Cholangitis/pancreatitis.
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What type of cholangitis is more often seen in young cats?
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Cholangiohepatitis (lymphocytic cholangitis).
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Where do the inflammatory cells center in lymphocytic cholangiohepatitis?
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the periportal areas but don’t infiltrate the bile ducts.
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What is the ultrasound appearance of the bile ducts secondary to chronic inflammation from lymphocytic cholangitis?
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Fibrotic bile ducts are irregular and wide (prone to infection). The liver appears heterogenous.
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On ultrasound distended bile ducts secondary to cholangitis need to be differentiated from what other pathology?
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Extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
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Destructive cholangitis is almost always due to what?
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Idiosyncratic reaction to sulfonamides.
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Chronic cholangitis can also be associated with what type of parasitic infection?
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Liver fluke (Paragonimus).
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What is another term for cystic mucinous hyperplasia of the gall bladder?
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Mucocoele. |
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What is the ultrasound appearance of the liver in the case of a gall bladder mucocoele?
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Hyperechoic liver representing vacuolar hepatopathy and hypoechoic nodules.
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On ultrasound of the gall bladder a thickened GB wall +/- laminar appearance may suggest what condition?
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A gall bladder rupture.
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Which dog breeds are predisposed to Mucocoele?
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Sheltie/mini schnauzers and cocker spaniels.
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What are the presdiposing factors of cholecystitis?
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bile stasis/mucocoele/ascending infection/parasite/neoplasia
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Which type of cholecystitis is severe and called a separate disease entity?
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Necrotizing cholecystitis.
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Emphysematous cholecystitis is associated with what other disease in the dog?
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Diabetes mellitus.
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Choleliths are comprised of what substances?
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Cholesterol and bilirubin.
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What is the term for stones in the common bile duct?
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Choledocholithiasis.
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With biliary obstruction extra bile duct distention is seen at which time frame?
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48 hours.
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Intrahepatic biliary duct distention secondary to extrahepatic biliary obstruction occurs in what time frame?
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5-7 days.
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Which liver fluke can infect the biliary tree in the cats?
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Platynosomum
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Extensive calcification of the gall bladder wall is also known as what?
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Porcelain gall bladder.
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What are the ultrasound findings of generalized gall bladder disease?
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50% mucocele/ echogenic peritoneal fluid/ thickened GB wall (>3 mm)/ echogenic fluid in the GB fossa.
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Which percentage of show no visible abnormality on ultrasound with general GB disease?
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18%.
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What are the ultrasonographic signs of GB rupture?
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Discontinuous wall/ echogenic material in the GB fossa/ echogenic reaction of tissues in the fossa/ echogenic peritoneal fluid/mucocoele freely mobile in the abdomen.
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Is hepatocellular carcinoma of the dog and cat common or uncommon?
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uncommon.
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From which ducts does biliary carcinoma usually arise in the dogs?
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Intrahepatic (in the cat it can be intra or extrahepatic).
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In cats is biliary cystadenoma considered benign or malignant?
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Benign however may cause problems in the porta hepatis and has risk of malignant transformation. |
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What other structures are the primary sites of primary hepatic tumor metastatsis?
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the lymph nodes/the lung/ the peritoneum.
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Biliary tumors in the cat can expand to what other organ?
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The pancreas.
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What type of ultrasound findings has a 74% positive predictive value for malignancy of the liver?
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target lesions.
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