Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
28 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
When one leg that is longer than the other. An unilateral injury to which portion of the bone during a growing phase will result in one leg being longer than the other?
A Diaphysis B Epiphysis C Metaphysis D Epiphyseal plate |
D Epiphyseal plate
The epiphyseal plate allows for lengthening of the metaphysis and diaphysis of long bones. Injuries to this growth plate may cause limb-length discrepancies. The diaphysis is the main or mid section (shaft) of a long bone. The epiphysis is the rounded end of a long bone. The metaphysis is the portion of the long bone where actual bone is deposited. With addition of new bone, the metaphysis will get longer. |
|
|
When an x-ray of a fractured humerus shows that the callus is formed, this coincides with which stage of fracture healing?
A Stage 1 B Stage 2 C Stage 3 D Stage 4 |
C Stage 3
Stage 3 is the callus formation, and it occurs during weeks 2 to 6 of healing. Stage 1 is the hematoma formation, which occurs during days 1 to 3. Stage 2 is fibrocartilage formation. Stage 4 is the ossification, which occurs from 3 weeks to 6 months after injury |
|
|
A child presents with bone deficiency and a bowlegged appearance. This assessment data supports a diagnosis of
a Rickets b Osteoporosis c Osteomalacia d Paget disease |
a Rickets
Rickets is a disease of vitamin D deficiency. Cartilage occurs when the growing epiphyses fails to calcify. Knock-knee and bowlegged appearance is common. Osteoporosis is caused by age, genetics, estrogen, and certain risk factors. It generally affects individuals older than 60 years. Osteomalacia is the adult form of rickets and is always caused by inadequate concentration of calcium or phosphorus in the body. Paget disease is a slowly progressive disease of excessive resorption followed by excessive formation of bone |
|
|
Which zone of the epiphyseal plate is characterized by the most active cell growth?
|
Zone of Proliferating Cartilage
|
|
|
Which zone of the epiphyseal plate is responsible for maintaining adherence of plate to the epiphysis?
|
Zone of resting cartilage
|
|
|
Which zone of the epiphyseal plate is characterized by enlarged/mature cartilage cells migrating toward the metaphysis?
|
Zone of maturing cartilage
|
|
|
Which zone of the epiphyseal plate is characterized by a very thin line of chondrocytes and is the weakest segment of the epiphyseal plate?
|
Zone of calcifying cartilage
|
|
|
Hematoma formation in bone healing is characterized by hematoma formation and aseptic inflammation at fracture site. What stage of healing does this occur and when does this occur?
|
Stage 1
1-3 days after injury |
|
|
Which is a cause of decreased bone mass or weakness of bone? (Select all that apply.)
• Old age • Young age • Lost estrogen • Immobilization • Internal fixation |
Old age, Lost estrogen, Immobilization, internal fixation
In old age-related bone loss, it is believed that temporarily bone loss may be accelerated. Osteoblasts have estrogen receptors, and their ability to increase bone formation may be affected by estrogen deficiency. Immobility causes bone to be resorbed, and bone mass will be decreased. This occurs because the bone is not being used. Internal fixation causes decreased bone strength, because the metal implant causes stress to be dispersed from the bone and carried by the implant. Young age in not a cause of decreased bone mass. |
|
|
All of the following may contribute to the development of osteoporosis except:
a. parathyroid hormone dysfunction b. decreased estrogen levels c. smoking d. increased intake of vitamin C |
d. increased intake of vitamin C
|
|
|
The chief pathological feature of osteoarthritis is degeneration and loss of:
a. the epiphysis b. articular cartilage c. synovial fluid d. muscle function |
b. articular cartilage
|
|
|
Most dysphasia's are associated with cerebrovascular accidents involving which artery?
a. anterior communicating artery b. posterior communicating artery c. circle of willis d. middle cerebral artery |
d. middle cerebral artery
|
|
|
Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease are caused by a deficit in which neurotransmitter?
|
Dopamine
|
|
|
Subarachnoid hemorrhage causes communicating hydrocephalus by obstructing:
a. the CSF flow between the ventricles b. the CSF flow into the subarachnoid space c. blood flow to the arachnid villi d. the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid by the arachnoid villi |
b. the CSF flow into the subarachnoid space (b/c hemorrhage is taking up that space)
|
|
|
Status epileptics is considered a medical emergency because of the:
a. loss of consciousness b. development of cerebral hypoxia c. possibility of a head injury during the seizures d. decrease in brain metabolism |
b. development of cerebral hypoxia
|
|
|
Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the:
a. ventricles b. brain tissue c. neurons d. meninges |
b. brain tissue
|
|
|
A patient presents with a large pupil that does not react to light. Which cranial nerve is responsible for these functions?
a. Cranial nerve I b. Cranial nerve II c. Cranial nerve III d. Cranial nerve VII |
Cranial nerve III
Cranial nerve III (oculomotor) emerges from the midbrain and may be subject to compression from increased intracranial pressure. It is responsible for pupil constriction. Cranial nerve I is the olfactory nerve and is strictly sensory for smell. Cranial nerve II (optic) conveys visual information from the retina to the brain. Cranial nerve VII is responsible for facial expression. |
|
|
A patient diagnosed with a damaged cranial nerve XI will most likely present with which symptom?
a. Weakness of the tongue muscles b. Difficulty in hearing c. Abnormal speech d. Inability to taste |
Abnormal speech
Cranial nerve XI innervates the larynx, neck, and shoulders. A deficit in this nerve results in weak neck and shoulder muscles, as well as speech projection problems. The tongue muscles are controlled by cranial nerve XII. Cranial nerve IX is involved with hearing. Detecting taste in the anterior two thirds of the tongue is controlled by cranial nerve VII, and that in the posterior portion is controlled by cranial nerve IX. |
|
|
A patient diagnosed with Parkinson disease has a dysfunction of the
a. Brainstem b. Cerebellum c. Basal ganglia d. Diencephalon |
Basal ganglia
Parkinson disease is characterized by akinesia, rigidity, and resting tremor. This is a dysfunction of the basal ganglia. The brainstem contains the pons, medulla, and midbrain. This area controls respiratory and cardiac functions. The cerebellum is responsible for balance, posture, and coordination of smooth movements. The diencephalon is composed of the thalamus and hypothalamus. The thalamus is responsible for executing motor activities. The hypothalamus is responsible for regulation of sleep, body temperature, appetite, and sex drive. |
|
|
Which neurotransmitters are important in regulating mood? (Select all that apply.)
a. Norepinephrine b. Acetylcholine c. Dopamine d. Glycine e. Serotonin |
Norepinephrine
Dopamine Serotonin Dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin are important in regulating mood. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter in autonomic ganglii, postganglionic parasympathetic synapse, and neuromuscular junction. Glycine and GABA are inhibitory amino acids and are located throughout the spinal cord and brain. |
|
|
Which statement is true regarding intracranial pressure (ICP)?
a. The factors include the brain, CSF, and blood. b. The normal range is from 50 to 150 mm Hg. c. Increased ICP rarely occurs with trauma. d. The brain has little compliance capacity. |
The factors include the brain, CSF, and blood.
The three main components of the cranium include cerebrospinal fluid, brain tissue, and blood. Normal ICP is 0 to 15 mm Hg. Elevated ICP can occur in any type of acute brain injury, including trauma. The brain has the function of compliance in which it can accommodate small changes in volume without significant changes in pressure. |
|
|
Which is associated with early increased intracranial pressure?
a. Inability to verbalize b. Unresponsiveness c. Inability to move d. Headache |
Headache
The patient may have headache, vomiting, and altered level of consciousness. The patient may have blurry vision, and the fundi may demonstrate papilledema. At higher intracranial levels, the patient may become unresponsive and unable to move, but eventually the patient may become unable to verbalize. |
|
|
Which of the following is true about ischemic stroke? (Select all that apply.)
a. Often caused by emboli from the basilar arteries b. Has risk factors that include atherosclerosis c. Can be a result of a hypercoagulable state d. Results from hemorrhage into brain tissue e. Is associated with acute hypertension |
Has risk factors that include atherosclerosis
Can be a result of a hypercoagulable state Risk factors for ischemic stroke include atherosclerosis and hypercoagulable states. Emboli are most often cardiac in origin. Hemorrhage into the brain tissue is a result of hemorrhagic stroke; ischemic strokes are the result of a clot, either thrombus or embolus. In hemorrhagic strokes, most patients have hypertension |
|
|
Symptoms such as headache, lethargy, mood alterations, and epigastric sensations occur during which phase of a seizure?
a. Status epilepticus b. Prodromal c. Postictal d. Complex |
Prodromal
These symptoms can be part of the aura, or prodromal, phase. These often indicate pending seizure. Status epilepticus is a condition in which seizure activity occurs continuously, resulting in intense brain metabolism. Irreversible brain damage can occur. The postictal state follows a seizure, and the patient may be conscious or drift into a deep coma-like state. Complex is an actual type of seizure that may have loss or alteration of consciousness. There may also be autisms such as lip smacking or repetitive movements. |
|
|
A patient is diagnosed with dementia. There has been an increase in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume, but no increase in intracranial pressure. What type of hydrocephalus is this patient demonstrating?
a. Obstructive b. Communicating c. Normal pressure d. Non-communicating |
Normal pressure
Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is caused by increased CSF volume but no increase in intracranial pressure. This occurs when brain tissue has been lost, such as in Alzheimer disease and dementia. Obstructive hydrocephalus occurs when there is a problem with the normal flow of CSF. Communicating hydrocephalus occurs when there is malabsorption of CSF. Non-communicating is another term used for obstructive hydrocephalus. |
|
|
Characteristics of a petit mal seizure include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Rigid muscles b. Tongue biting c. Bladder incontinence d. Cessation of speaking e. Brief periods of staring |
Cessation of speaking
Brief periods of staring The patient may stop speaking or stare for a few seconds. Muscle rigidity, tongue biting, and bowel or bladder incontinence is found with tonic-clonic or grand mal seizures |
|
|
Which is a pathophysiologic change that is consistent with Alzheimer disease?
a. Amyloid plaques b. Epileptogenic focus c. Focal cerebral infarct d. Neurofibrillary tangles e. Abnormal serotonin system |
Amyloid plaques
Neurofibrillary tangles Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles occur in the brains of Alzheimer patients and are found at autopsy. Neural thread proteins (tau protein) have a normal function and stabilize microtubules. In Alzheimer disease, they are chemically altered and twist into paired helical filaments known as neurofibrillary tangles. Epileptogenic focus is associated with seizure disorder. Focal cerebral infarct is a stroke occurring in a localized area of the brain. Abnormalities in the cholinergic system are associated with Alzheimer disease; serotonin abnormalities are found in depression. |
|
|
What are the early signs of Parkinson disease? (Select all that apply.)
a. Drooling b. Small writing c. Monotone speech d. Minimal blinking e. Loss of facial expression |
Minimal blinking
Loss of facial expression The early signs of Parkinson disease include infrequent eye blinking and loss of facial expression. As the disease progresses, additional functional changes occur; these include drooling and micrographia (small handwriting). Advanced findings include low-volume, monotonous, and dysarthric speech |
