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269 Cards in this Set

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A patientcomes to the hospital clinic and reports that he has been vomiting and haddiarrhea for 3 days. Whichlaboratory value/s would a nurse expect?


a.hyponatremia


b.hypernatremia


c. hypokalemia


d.hyperkalemia

a. hyponatremia


c.hypokalemia


Due to GI losses

A patientwith hypokalemia from diarrhea will have which of the following signs/symptoms?


a.fatigue, tetany, paresthesias


b.extreme thirst, restlessness, peripheral edema


c. Muscleweakness, irregular heart rate


d.confusion, decreased BP, tachycardia

c. muscle weakness, irregular heart rate

Gravidity

Number of pregnancies

Term

# of pregnancies to term

Preterm

# of preterm pregnancies

Abortions

# of incomplete pregnancies

PQRSTU

P-provocation/palliative


Q-quality or quantity


R-radiating or regiona


S-severity


T-time


U-understanding

You arejust starting an admission history on a patient who was in a car accident andanother nurse else is taking vital signs. The patient is complaining ofabdominal pain rated 9/10. The vital signs are: BP 84/50, P 112, RR 26, T 37.1oC. What is the priority nursing intervention?


a. Obtain an order for an analgesic


b.Perform a focused abdominal assessment


c.Complete the head-to-toe assessment as planned


d.Recheck the vital signs

b. Perform a focused abdominal assessment

Daily servings of Fruits and vegetables:

7-10 servings/day

Daily servings of Grains:

6-8 servings/day

Daily servings of meat and alt.:

2-3 servings/day

Daily servings of milk and alt.:

2 servings/day

Daily servings of oils and fats:

maximum of 30-45mL of unsaturated fats daily

Range for normal BMI


Overweight BMI


Obesity BMI


Extreme obesity BMI


Underweight BMI

18.5-24.9


25-29.9


30-39


>40


<18.5

Normal range for adult body temp

35.9-37.5

regular pulse rate

60-100bpm

Regular resp rate <65

12-20bpm and regular

Regular resp rate>65

12-24bpm and regular

Regular BP range

120-129(systolic)/80-84 (diastolic) mmHg


High normal: 130-139/85-89


High at Dr office: 140/90+


High at home 135/85+


High for diabetes: 130/80

Febrile

With fever

Afebrile

Without fever

0/4 force of pulse

non-palpable/absent

1+/4 force of pulse

weak, diminished/barely palpable

2+/4 force of pulse

strong

3+/4 force of pulse

full, increased

4+/4 force of pulse

bounding

What blood test would you order to check for fever?

CBC - to check WBC count

Why do we use the radial pulse?

It is readily accessible

When would you use the temporal pulse?

When the radial pulse isn't accessible

When would you use the carotid pulse?

During cardiac arrest/shock in adults. It determines the blood flow to the brain

When would you use the apical pulse?

When there are discrepancies with the radial pulse, with infants and children up to 3 yrs, and to monitor some medications (digoxin)

When would you use the brachial pulse site?

BP and cardiac arrest in infants

When would you use the femoral pulse site?

Cardiac arrest/shock, and to check circulation to a leg

When would you use the popliteal pulse site?

To check circulation to the lower leg

When would you use the posterior tibial pulse site?

To check circulation to the foot

When would you use the dorsalis pedis pulse site?

To check circulation to the foot.

Symptoms of bradycardia and what to do:

hypotensive, diaphoretic, dizzy.


Consider: med effects, cardiac origin, electrolyte imbalances (high K+, low Mg)


Notify RN, Dr. orders, bedrest, O2, IV

Symptoms of tachycardia and what to do:

Consider: med effects, increased work, febrile, infection, anxiety, pain, low K+.


Notify RN, Dr. orders, bedrest, O2, IV

Normal adult resp rate

10-20 breaths per minute, normal, effortless

Bradypnea

<10 breaths per minute

Tachypnea

>20 breaths per minute

Orthopnea

Unable to breath while lying flat

Dyspnea

Difficulty breathing

Normal oxygen saturation for adults

95-100%

What is a life threatening % for oxygen saturation?

<70%

Symptoms of bradypnea and what to do

Assess: narcotics/sedatives/anasthetic, resp/cardiac causes (CHF, pneumonia, COPD), blood glucose




Notify RN


give O2


position pt


IV


monitor VS


treat hypoglycemia if needed

Symptoms of tachypnea and what to do

Assess: anxiety, exertion, resp/cardiac causes (pneumothorax, haemothorax, pulmonary edema, CHF, MI), blood glucose, hypovolemia.




Notify RN


give O2


Position pt


IV


monitor VS


Dr. orders

At what BP is hypotension considered?

Systolic <90


Diastolic <60

Symptoms of hypotension and what to do

<90/60


Assess: hypovolemia/hemorrhage, med cause (beta blockers, diuretics, nitrates, ACE inhibiters, CCB), CHF, MI, shock




Notify RN


Dr. orders


IV - fluids, blood


O2


monitor VS

Symptoms of HTN and what to do

>140/90


Assess: anxiety/stress, exertion, lifestyle (obesity, smoker), renal failure, meds (NSAIDs, cortico steroids, antidepressants, hormones), dehydration




Notify RN


IV-fluids


O2


Dr. orders (antihypertensives)


monitor VS

How wouldyou describe the following vital signs?BP 90/60,P 106, R 30 and shallow, T 36.8oC


a. hypertensive,bradycardic, eupneic, hypothermic


b.hypertensive, tachycardic, eupneic, hypothermic


c. hypotensive,bradycardic, tachypneic, hyperthermic


d.hypotensive, tachycardic, tachypneic, normothermic

d. hypotensive, tachcardic, tachypneic, normothermic

1kg =? lbs

2.2lbs

1 inch = ? cm

2.54cm

Android fat

abdominal fat

Gynoid fat

hip and thigh fat

Where should you hear resonant sounds when percussing?

over normal lung tissue, clear and hollow

Where should you hear hyper resonant sounds when percussing?

Over lungs with increased air (emphysema) - booming

Where should you hear tympani sounds when percussing?

over air-filled viscus (stomach and intestines) - musical and drumlike

Where should you hear dull sounds when percussing?

dense organs (liver or spleen) - muffled thud

Where should you hear flat sounds when percussing?

no air is present (muscle, bone or tumor) - a dead stop of sound-absolute dullness

What kind of sounds does the diaphragm hear?

high pitched sounds (breath, bowel and heartsounds)

What type of sounds does the bell hear?

low pitched sounds (murmurs)

Whatobjective sign can be indicative of pain? Pick all that apply:


a.Tachycardia


b.Profuse sweating


c. Askingfor pain medication


d. Highblood pressure


e. Lowtemperature


f. Hypoxia

a. tachycardia


b. perfuse sweating


d. high BP


f. hypoxia

What can cause premature aging?

smoking


chronic illness


enviro factors


nutritional status



Labvalues: K+3.3 and Na2+ 131 The nurserecognizes that these values are _________And it isimportant to maintain an expected range for proper:


a.Tissuerepair


b.Hairgrowth


c.Oilproduction in skin


d.Fluid andelectrolyte function.

d. fluid and electrolyte function

A patientcomes into the ER complaining of chest pain and states he has noticed blood inhis bowel movements for the last 2 days. What lab result would the nurse be most concerned about?


a.RBC


b.WBC


c.HGB


d.Na

c. Hgb

The nursenotes that the patient has an irregular heart rate. What lab work should thenurse consider and why? And what other blood work might produce and irregular heart rate?


A.Hgbbecause the patient may be bleeding


B.WBCbecause the patient may have a infection.C.Nabecause the patient may be hyponatremic.D.Mgbecause it may cause neuromuscular excitabilility.

d. Mg b/c it may cause neuromuscular excitability. K+

Abdomen

extending from diaphragm to the brim of the pelvis

Viscera

All of the organs inside the abdomen

Solid Viscera

Solid organs: organs that maintain a characteristic shape (liver, pancreas, spleen, adrenal glands, kidneys, ovaries & uterus)

Hollow Viscera

Hollow organs: shape depends on the contents (stomach, gallbladder, small intestine, colon and bladder)

A pt is hospitalized with vomiting of coffee groundsemesis of unknown cause. Which disgnostic test should be done to identify the source ofbleeding?

Endoscopy, CBC, electrolytes

What is most important for the nurse ot obtain duringinitial assessment of a pt admitted toER with vomiting of bright red blood?

Vital signs and symptoms of hypovolemia (nurses always need vital signs!)

Nurse suspect E.Colo food poisoning. What types of symptoms will the pt’s have?

Hemorrhagic diarrhea

Which stool consistency would the nurse expect to seein sigmoid colostomy?

Formed stool

Pt admitted to hospital with UC and having 14-16 bloodystools a day. What should the nurse plan to implement?

Place pt NPO


Monitor CBC and electrolytes


Administer vitamin B12

Newly diagnosed pt with Crohn’s asks what to expect in the future. Best Response:

Lifelong, unpredictable periods of remissions and recurrences can occur.

What does the frontal lobe control?

complex thought (cognition)


orientation


memory


judgement


math


personality


emotional responses


behavior


impulse control


language-verbal and written


Broca's area: mediates motor speech and verbal expression




Contains precentral gyrus

What does the parietal lobe control?

sensation- temp, touch, pressure, pain (from opposite side of body)


language processing


motor and speech

What does the temporal lobe control?

hearing, speech and smell


balance


emotion


memory




Wernicke's area: language and comprehension. If this is damaged, receptive aphasia results. They can speak normally but they use the wrong words.

What does the occipital lobe control?

vision

What does the basal ganglia do?

modulates automatic movements of the skeletal system, including tone

What does the thalamus do?

major relay and gatekeeper for motor and sensory stimuli

What does the hypothalamus do?

controls temp, HR, BP, appetite drive, emotions and secretes ADH

4 areas of the brainstem:

1. Midbrain: integrates auditory and visual info


2. Pons: controls length and rate of respirations


3. Medulla- resp, cardiac and vasomotor function. Regulates smooth resp, sneezing, coughing, hiccups, swallowing


4. Reticular formation - responsible for increasing wakefulness, attention and responsiveness to sensory information.

What does the cerebellum do?

coordinates and adjusts voluntary and involuntary movements. (balance, muscle tone)




Alcohol affects cerebellum

Which nerves are included in the PNS?

Cranial nerve pairs 3-12 and 31 pairs of spinal nerves



What areas are considered to bepart of the Central Nervous System?Select all that apply.A.Brain


B.Meninges


C.Spinal Cord


D.Cranial nerve pair VII


E.Cerebellum

A. Brain


C. spinal cord


E. cerebellum

Break down the 31 pairs of spinal nerves into cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral and coccygeal

8 cervical


12 thoracic


5 lumbar


5 sacral


1 coccygeal

Your patient was in an MVA and hadthe spinal cord completely severed at L4. Select which corresponding myotome would be affected?


A.Legs


B.Abdomen


C.Chest


D.Head

A. legs


L4 might also have some bowel or bladder control issues

What are the 3 layers of the meninges?

dura mater: adheres to skull


arachnoid mater: filled with CSF


Pia mater: adheres to surface of the brain

Where on the spine is a lumbar puncture done?

Between L3 and L4

What are the 2 major pairs of arteries that supply blood to the brain?

Internal carotid arteries (anterior circulation)


Vertebral arteries (posterior circulation)

The vertebral arteries merge to form which artery?

Basilar artery

What artery supplies blood to theanterior portion of the brain?


A.Vertebral arteries


B.Spinothalmic arteries


C.Basilar arteries


D.Internal Carotid arteries

D. Internal Carotid arteries

What is the penumbra region with a stroke?

The area of dead tissue

What is the drug of choice for strokes?

tPA- needs to be given within 4.5 hours of stroke

Hemiplegia

paralysis on one side of the body

Hemiparesis

weakness on one side of the body

Hemineglect

Lack of awareness of one side of the body or visual field

Dysphagia

Difficulty swallowing

Contralateral

opposite side

Ipsilateral

same side

Aphasia

language dysfunction

Expressive aphasia

can't find words but know what they want to say (Broca's area in frontal lobe)

Receptive aphasia

difficulty with language comprehension. Speak but words not used correctly (Wenicke's area in temporal lobe)

Amnesia

problem finding correct names (forgotten)

Global aphasia

Loss of all communication and receptive function

Dysarthria

Muscular control of speech. Doesn't affect comprehension

Parasthesia

numbness and tingling

agnosia

unable to comprehend/recognize items or sounds

Homonymous hemianopsia

loss of visual field on one side. (right side of both eyes)

What happens with left hemisphere damage?

right side of body effected


Aphasia


right homonymous hemianopsia (right side of picture will be gone)


decreased short term memory


awareness of deficts

What happens with right hemisphere damage?

left side of body affected


left homonymous hemianopsia


spatial-perceptual deficits


short attn span


impulsive with poor judgement


unilateral neglect - neglect left side

Primary prevention of strokes:

control BP


control BG


Diet and exercise


stop smoking


limit alcohol


health assessments


meds for those who have had TIA

3 components in the skull:

brain tissue


blood


cerebrospinal fluid

What is the Monro-Kellie Hypothesis?

The mechanism of equilibrium in the brain.


equilibrium in the skull is maintained by the relationship btw the 3 components.


If 1 component rises, the other 2 will attempt to decrease. This can increase ICP

Normal range for ICP:

0-15 mmHg.


Anything above this that lasts for more than 5 minutes is considered abnormal

What is Cerebral blow flow?

The amount of blood that passes through the brain per minute. Approx: 750mls/min.




Increased ICP with decrease cerebral blood flow

How often is a neuro recheck done?

q 15 mins x1 hr to weekly

What is the single most important factor in the neuro recheck?

change in LOC

Which of the following lab values would the nurse expect to see in a patient with long-standing COPD? Choose all that apply.Select one or more:


a. elevated pC02 (hypercapnia)


b. decreased bicarbonate level (HC03)


c. hypoxemia


d. elevated pa02


e. polycythemia


f. decreased hemoglobin

a. hypercapnia d.t retained CO2


increased bicarb


c. hypoxemia


hypercapnia


neutrophils in sputum samples d.t bacterial inf.


Elevated hct and hgb if chronically hypoxemic


decreased PaO2


e. polycythemia

What is for pulmonale?

enlargement of the right side of the heart as a result of disease of pulmonary hypertension.

Contraindications of percussion/vibration:

•Rib #•Chestor abd traumaor surgery•PE orembolism (clot)•Coagulopathy•Mastectomy•Chestmalignancy•Pulmonaryedema•Asthma•Cervicalcord trauma-especially new•TB

contraindications of postural drainage:

•IncreasedICP•Aftermeals or during tube feeding•Hypoxiaor respiratory instability•Hemodynamicinstability•Recenteye surgery-(increases IOP)•HiatalherniaObesity

A person who is the "yellow zone" of the Asthma Action Plan is experiencing symptoms of asthma along with increased need for a short-acting:

Bronchodilator

Which of the following are clinical manifestations of asthma? Choose all that applySelect one or more: a. prolonged inspiratory phase of breathingb. wheezingc. breathlessnessd. coughing that occurs predominantly in the middle of the daye. coughingf. sensation of chest tightness

b.


c.


e.


f.

A patient with COPD is sitting up in a chair, complaining of dyspnea, and very restless. Oxygen saturation is 85%. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?Select one:a. Administer prn salbutamol nebulizerb. Notify the physician.c. Assist patient to assume position of comfortd. Administer oxygene. Perform a focussed respiratory assessment.

d. administer oxygen

An acute exacerbation of COPD is defined as ... (choose all that apply)Select one or more:a. sustained worsening of coughb. sustained worsening of sputum productionc. sustained need for supplemental oxygend. sustained worsening of dyspneae. sustained need for bronchodilator therapy

b.


c.


d.


e.

When assessing a patient neurologically, the nurse notes uncoordinated movement of extremities. The nurse would document this asSelect one:a. Ataxia Correctb. Apraxiac. Anosognosiad. Anisocoria

a. ataxia

As people age, several neurological changes occur. Neurons, brain size, and neurotransmitters decrease. What are some of the results of aging on the neurological system?Select one or more:a. reduced response to stimuli b. inability to process nutrientsc. More frequent seizuresd. delayed reflexes e. slower thought processes

a.


d.


e.

Intracranial pressure is the combination of the force measured in the brain exerted by which components?Select one or more:a. Brain tissue Correctb. Blood c. Lymphatic tissued. Dura Matere. Cerebral spinal fluid

a. brain tissue


b. blood


c. cerebral spinal fluid

A nurse is teaching a small group of older adults about the early warning signs of a stroke. Which of the following would be included in this teaching?Select one or more:a. Sudden numbness or weakness of the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body b. Pain in the left arm radiating to the neck and jawc. Sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes d. Sudden trouble walking, dizziness, or loss of balance or coordination

a.


c.


d.

Which of the following risk factors for stroke would be MOST important for the nurse to include when planning a community education program?Select one:a. Hypertensionb. Hyperlipidemiac. Oral contraceptives d. Alcohol consumption

a. hypertension

A nurse is assessing a client with emphysema. The nurse should report which of the following client assessment findings?a. Fatigueb. Cyanotic lipsc. Barrel-shaped chestd. Crackles in posterior chest

b. cyannotic lips

A nurse is providing instruction to a client on how to use montelukast (Singulair) to treat chronic asthma. The nurse should recognize that the client understands the teaching when he states,a. "I will take this medication with each meal."b. "I will take this medication during my asthma attacks."c. " I will take this medication up to three times a day when I begin to wheeze."d. " I will take this medication every evening, even when I do not have symptoms."

d.

A nurse should take which of the following action when providing endotracheal suctioning for a client who is in respiratory distress?a. Suction the client's endotracheal tube using clean techniqueb. Remove the suction catheter using a rotating motionc. Suction the oropharyngeal cavity prior to suctioning the endotracheal tubed. Suction the client's endotracheal tube every 2 hr.

b. rotating motion. This reduces tissue trauma

A nurse is caring for a client in respiratory distress. Which of the following devices should the nurse use to provide the highest level of oxygen via a low-flow system?a. Nasal cannulab. Nonrebreather maskc. Simple face maskd. Partial rebreather mask

b. non-rebreather

A nurse is positioning a client with emphysema to promote effective breathing. The nurse should place the client in which of the following positions?a. Lateral position with a pillow over the chest to support the armb. High-Fowler's position with arms supported on the overbed tablec. Semi-Fowler's position with pillows supporting both armsd. Supine position with the head of the bed elevated 15 degrees

b. high-fowler's position

A nurse is caring for a client with adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the client's work of breathing has worsened?a. Increase in respiratory rateb. Increase in oxygen saturationc. Decrease in carbon dioxide retentiond. Decrease in adventitious breath sounds

a. increased resp rate

A nurse is caring for a client who has COPD. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the primary care provider?a. An oxygen saturation of 89%b. Productive cough with green sputumc. Clubbing of fingersd. Use of pursed-lip breathing with exertion

b. green sputum is an indication of infection

A nurse should plan to administer which of the following medications to a client during an acute asthma attack?a. Cromolyn sodium (Intal)b. Albuterol (Proventil)c. Fluticasone and salmeterol (Advair Discus)d. Prednisone (Deltasone)

b. this is a short acting beta2 agonist

Which is administered first: the bronchodilator or the corticosteroid?

Bronchodilators are always administered before glucocorticoids when both are to be given on the same schedule. This allows for widening of the air passages by the bronchodilator, which then makes the glucocorticoid me effective.

A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medicationa. Should always be taken with food or antacidsb. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgottenc. Causes orange discloration of sweat, tears, urine, and fecesd. May be discontinued independently if symptms are gone in 3 months

c.

A nurse has given a client taking ethambutol (Myambutol) information about the medication. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states to report immediately:a. Impaired sense of hearingb. Gastrointestinal side effectsc. Orange-red discoloration of body secretionsd. Difficulty in discriminating the color red from green

d.

A nurse teaches a client about the effects of diphenhydramine (Benadryl), which has been prescribed as a cough suppressant. The nurse determines that the client needs further instructions if the client states that he or she will:a. Take the medication on an empty stomachb. Avoid using alcohol while taking this medicationc. Use sugarless gum, candy, or oral rinses to decrease dry mouthd. Avoid activities requiring mental alertness while taking this medication

a. need food to decrease GI upset

A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan) intravenously to a client with an intravenous opioid overdose. Which supportive medical equipment would the nurse paln tohave at the client's bedside if needed?a. Nasogastric tubeb. Paracentesis trayc. Resuscitation equipmentd. Central line insertion tray

c.

A nurse is instructing a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of emphysema about measures that will enhance the effectiveness of breathing during dyspneic periods. Which of the following positions will the nurse instruct the client to assume?a. Sitting up in bedb. Side-lying in bedc. Sitting in a reclinerd. Sitting on the side of the bed and leaning on the overbed table

d. this is the tripod position

An oxygen delivery system is prescribed for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to deliver a precise oxygen concentration. Which oxygen delivery system would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed?a. Face tentb. Venturi maskc. Aerosol Maskd. Tracheostomy collar

b.

A nurse is assessing a client with chronic airflow limitation and notes that the client has a "barrel chest." The nurse interprests that this client has which of the following forms of chronic airflow limitation?a. Emphysemab. Bronchial asthmac. Chronic obstructive bronchitisd. Bronchial asthma and bronchitis

a.

A nurse instructs a client to use the pursed-lip method of breathing and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of this type of breathing. The nurse responds, knowing that the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing is to:a. Promote oxygen intakeb. Strengthen the diaphragmc. Strengthen the intercostal musclesd. Promote carbon dioxide elimination

d. allows better expiration

The nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas results for a 25-year-old trauma patient who has new onset of shortness of breath and demonstrates shallow and irregular respirations. The pH is 7.26. What imbalances does the nurse suspect this patient has?a. Respiratory acidosisb. Respiratory alkalosisc. Metabolic acidosisd. Metabolic alkalosis

a.

The nurse makes observations about several respiratory patients' abilities to perform activities of daily living in order to quantigy the level of dyspnea. Which patient is considered to have Class V dyspnea?a. Experiences subjective shortness of breath when walking up a flight of stairsb. Limited to bed or chair and experiences shortness of breath at restc. Can independently shower and dress, but cannot keep pace with similarly aged peopled. Experience shortness of breath during aerobic exercise such as jogging

b.

For a healthy adult, what is the expected normal range for the respiratory rate per minute?a. 10 to 12b. 12 to 15c. 12 to 20d. 20 or more

c.

What is a pulse oximeter used to mesure?a. Oxygen perfusion in the extremitiesb. Pulse and perfusion in the extremitiesc. Generalized tissue perfusiond. Oxygen saturation in the red blood cells

d.

The patient with chronic respiratory disease presents with a decreased level of consciousness, dusky skin, pale mucous membranes, decreased capillary refill, and an increased respiratory rate. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?a. Ineffective airway clearanceb. Ineffective tissue perfusionc. Decreased cardiac outputd. Acute confusion

b.

The nurse reviews the complete blood count results for the patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and lives in a high mountain area. What lab results does the nurse expect to see for this patient?a. Increased red blood cellsb. Decreased neutrophilsc. Decreased eosinophilsd. Increased lymphocytes

a.

Which assessment finding is an objective sign of chronic oxygen deprivation?a. Continuous cough productive of clear sputumb. Audible inspiratory and expiratory wheezec. Chest pain that increases with deep inspirationd. Clubbing of fingernails and a barrel-shaped chest

d.

What observations does the nurse make when performing a general assessment of the patient's lungs and thorax? (Select all that apply)a. Symmetry of chest movementb. Rate, rhythm, and depth of respirationsc. Use of accessory muscles for breathingd. Comparison of the anteroposterior diameter with the lateral diametere. Measurement of the length of the chestf. Assessment of chest expansion and respiratory excursion

a.


b.


c.


d.


remember GENERAL ASSESSMENT

The nurse is taking a history on a patient who reports sleeping in a recliner chair at night because lying on the bed causes shortness of breath. How is this documented?a. Orthopneab. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspneac. Orthostatic nocturnal dyspnead. Tachypnea

a. orthopnea

Upon assessing the lungs, the nurse hears short, discrete popping sounds "like hair being rolled between fingers near the ear" in te bilateral lower lobes. How is this assessment documented?a. Rhonchib. Wheezesc. Fine cracklesd. Coarse crackles

c. fine crackles

What is the characteristic of normal lung sounds that should be heard throughout the lung fields?a. Short inspiration, long expiration, loud, harshb. Soft sound, long inspiration, short quiet expirationc. Mixed sounds of harsh and soft, long inspiration and long expirationd. Loud, long inspiration and short, loud expiration

b. soft sounds!

The nurse is performing a physical assessment of the respiratory system. Although the patient is currently confined to bed, he has the strength and mobility to move and reposition himself. The nurse instructs him to assume which position for the assessment?a. Side-lyingb. Semi-Fowlersc. Supined. Sitting upright

d. sit up

The older patient is confined to bed and is therefore prone to decreased alveolar surface and elastic recoil. Which intervention is best to address these physiologic changes?a. Adequate nutritional intakeb. Coughing and deep breathingc. Fluids to thin secretionsd. Periods of rest and sleep

b. C&DB

The patient demonstrates labored shallow respirations and a respiratory rate of 32/min with a pulse oximetry reading of 85%. What is the priority nursing intervention?a. Notify respiratory therapy to give the patient a breathing treatmentb. Start oxygen via nasal cannula at 2L/minc. Obtain an order for a stat arterial blood gas (ABG)d. Encourage coughing and deep-breathing exercises

b.

The patient's pulse oximetry reading is 89%. What is the nurse's priority action?a. Recheck the reading with a different oximeterb. Apply supplemental oxygen and recheck the oximeter reading in 15 minutesc. Assess the patient for respiratory distress and recheck the oximeter readingd. Place the patient in the recovery position and monitor frequently

c.

The nurse is assessing an older adult patient who reports a decreased tolerance for exercise and that she must work harder to breathe. Which question assists the nurse in determining if these are normal changes related to aging?a. "How old are you?"b. "When did you first notice these symptoms?"c. "Do you or have you ever smoked cigarettes?"d. "How often do you exercise?"

b. Remember PQRSTU!

The nurse is caring for the older adult who is temporarily confined to bed. Which intervention is important in promoting pulmonary hygiene related to age and decreased mobility?a. Obtain an order for PRN oxygen via nasal cannulab. Encourage the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe.c. Reassure the patient that immobility is temporaryd. Monitor the respiratory rate and check pulse oximetry readings.

b.

The patient comes to the physician's office for an annual physical. The patient reports having a persistent nagging cough. Which question does the nurse ask first about this symptom?a. "When did the cough start?"b. "Do you have a family history of lung cancer?"c. "Have you been running a fever?"d. "Do you have sneezing and congestion?"

a. remember PQRSTU!

1. The nurse assesses a patient with shortness of breath for evidence of long-standing hypoxemia by inspecting: A. Chest excursion B. Spinal curvatures C. The respiratory pattern D. The fingernail and its base

d. remember long-standing!

6. The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. Upon assessment, the nurse notes a temperature of 101.4° F, a productive cough with yellow sputum and a respiratory rate of 20. Which of the following nursing diagnosis is most appropriate based upon this assessment? A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness B. Ineffective thermoregulation related to chilling C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pneumonia D. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions

a.

7. Which of the following physical assessment findings in a patient with pneumonia best supports the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance? A. Oxygen saturation of 85% B. Respiratory rate of 28 C. Presence of greenish sputum D. Basilar crackles

D.

Circular flatdiscoloration,<1 cm brown, blue, redor hypopigmented

Macule

Circular, elevated, solidlesion, >1cm

Nodule

Circumscribed flatdiscoloration, >1cm

Patch

Superficial solidelevated, ≤0.5 cm,color varies

Papule

Superficial elevatedsolid flat toppedlesion, >1 cm

Patch

Vesicle containingpus (inflammatorycells)

Pustule

Circular collection offree fluid, ≤1 cm

Vesicle

Edematous, transitoryplaque, may last fewhours

Wheal

Linear erosion

Excoration

Loss of epidermis (superficial);Part or all of the epidermis hasbeen lost

Erosion

Thickening of theepidermis seen withexaggeration of normalskin lines

Lichenification

round or circular with centralclearing

Annular

round, circular > arciform: partialcircle

circinate

connecting arcs

gyrate

meandering; wander as though following the track of a snake.

Serpiginous

Jane Smith, age 30, is admitted tohospital with an asthma attack. She has audible wheezing, dyspnea, and isextremely anxious. She can speak only one to three wordsentences. RR: 34/ min.Auscultation reveals no air entry in lower lobes. 1.Whatare nursing care priorities?

Vitals, resp assessment, cardio assessment. Put her on O2, monitor pulse and O2 sats, admin drugs (nebulizer)

Jane Smith, age 30, is admitted to hospital with an asthma attack. She has audible wheezing, dyspnea, and is extremely anxious. She can speak only one to three word sentences. RR: 34/ min. Auscultation reveals no air entry in lower lobes.2.What complications could occur based on assessment data?

Hypoxemia (silent lungs), arrhythmias, pneumothorax, resp muscle fatigue=respiratory arrest

Jane Smith, age 30, is admitted to hospital with an asthma attack. She has audible wheezing, dyspnea, and is extremely anxious. She can speak only one to three word sentences. RR: 34/ min. Auscultation reveals no air entry in lower lobes.3.What should be included in the discharge plan?

Ensure asthma action plan in place, medications, enviro control strategies

Where does gas exchange occur?

Alveoli

Paroxysmalnocturnal dyspnea

awakeningfrom sleep with SOB and needing to sit upright

What words are used during palpable assessment for tactile fremitis:

Ninety nine or blue moon (5 places on the back 4 on the front)

When would there be increased fremitus?

Pneumonia

When would there be decreased fremitus?

something is obstructing the transmission: pleural effusion or pneumothorax

What sound should you hear when percussing the thorax?

resonance

Where are bronchial sounds heard? What do they sound like? What is the length of inspiration and expiration?

Heard over the trachea/manubrium, they are loud, hard and high pitched, short inspiration, long expiration.

Where are bronchovesicular sounds heard? What do they sound like? What is the length of inspiration and expiration?

Heart over bronchi anteriorly btwn 1st and 2nd intercostal spaces and posteriorly btwn scapula, moderate pitch, inspiration and expiration are equal.

Where are vesicular sounds heard? What do they sound like? What is the length of inspiration and expiration?

Heard over lung fields, soft and low pitched, long inspiration and short expiration.

Normal breath sounds are described by what 3 things?

Duration, pitch, intensity

What are the 3 types of voice sounds?

1. Bronchophony- 99


2. whispered pectoriloquy- whisper 1,2,3


3.Egophony- repear 'e-e-e-e-e-e-e' (should hear e, with pneumonia you would hear a)

What do fine crackles sound like?

high pitched, short crackling, popping sound (CHF, pneumonia, COPD)

What do coarse crackles sound like?

Loud, low pitched, bubbling sounds.(pulm. deem, CHF, pneumonia)

What does a stridor sound like? Where do you hear it?

high-pitched, over neck (can mean obstruction)

What does a pleural friction rub sound like?

coarse and low pitched, sounds like bubble wrap being rubbed together (pleuritis)

Apnea:

cessation of spontaneous respirations >10s.

hypopnea:

shallow respirations

What can occur during sleep apnea?

hypoxemia (low O2) and hypercapnia (high CO2)

People with increased risk of sleep apnea with:

obesity, > 50y.o, neck circumference >43cm, craniofacial abnormalities, acromegaly (increased hands, feet and face), >men, >smokers

How long does sleep apnea last during an apnea stage?

15-90 seconds

People with sleep apnea are at a higher risk of which cardiovascular events?

MI. CVA, disrhythmias, HTN

2 appliances used for sleep apnea?

CPAP and oral appliances (mouth guard that pushes mandible and tongue forward)

COPD

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

S&S of COPD

dyspnea, SOB

Advanced disease of COPD can also cause what else within the body?

skeletal m.s. dysfunction, right sided heart failure, 2ndary polycythemia, depression, altered nutrition.

2 conditions associated with COPD:

emphysema, chronic bronchitis

emphysema:

destruction of alveoli

chronic bronchitis:

productive cough x 3 months for 2 years

Causes of COPD:

smoking, chemicals, dust, recurring resp infections, hereditary, aging

Defining feartures of COPD:

airflow limitations during forced exhale, mucus hyper secretion, mucosal edema, bronchospasm, prolonged expiratory phase

Hypoxia

inadequate O2 reaching tissues

S&S of asthma:

wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, cough (at night or early morning), prolonged expiratory phase

Apatient is admitted to hospital with acute exacerbation of COPD related toinfluenza. ABGs and CXR are ordered and Sa02 is 86%. BP 168/102, P 104, RR 28•Whatis your priority intervention? a. Administer antihypertensiveb. Apply oxygen via nasal prongs at2L/min c. Apply non-rebreather maskd. Administer bronchodilator

b.

What is the rate of flow for nasal prongs?

1-6l/m - 20-40% O2

What is the rate of flow for a simple mask?

6-8 l/m- 35-50% O2

What is the rate of flow for a non-rebreather?

10l/m - 60-80% O2

Superficial spreading melanoma (SSM):

occurs on legs and upper back, most common and curable

Lentigo maligna melanoma (LMM):

precursor lesion that increase in size over time. Most on elderly as a flat brown irregular patch.

Acral-lentiginous melanoma (ALM):

on soles, palms, mucous membranes and phalanges. More common in asians and those with dark skin

Nodular melanoma (NM):

invades rapidly, often misdiagnosed. Mostly in men

Basal cell carcinoma

most common, don't metastasize

Squamous cell carcinoma-

metastasize

Edema stages

1+:mild pitting, no swelling


2+moderate, indentation subsides rapidly


3+ deep pitting, indent remains for a short time


4+ very deep pitting, indentation lasts for a long time

edema

fluid accumulation in intercellular spaces

Mobility of skin

ease of rising

skin turgor

skin's ability to return to place

Example of an annular or circular shaped lesion

ringworn

Confluent lesions

lesions that run together. Ex. hives

Dicrete lesions

individual lesions

Grouped lesions

clusters ex. poison ivy

Gyrate, Serpinginous lesions

twisted, coiled, spiral snakelike

Polycyclic lesions

annular lesions that grow together, rings or incomplete rings ex:lichen, psoriasis

Zosteriform lesions

linear arrangement along a nerve route ex. herpes zoster

Macule

color change, flat, < 1cm. ex. freckles, flat nevi

papule

something you can feel - solid, elevated, <1cm

nodule

solid, elevated, >1cm. may extend into dermis deeper than papule

Wheal

superficial, raised, transient ex: mosquito bite

vesicle

elevated cavity containing free fluid ex: early varicella

Cyst

Encapsulated fluid filled cavity in dermis or sub-Q layer. Ex. sebaceous cyst

Pustule

pus in the cavity ex. acne

Patch

flat, non-palpable, irregular shape >1cm. ex. cafe au late spots

Lichenification

thickening of skin from prolonged scratching

Exoriation

superficial abrasion from intense scratching

Crust

thickened, dried out exudate. Yellow, red-brown or honey-brown color

Keloid

irregular shaped, elevated scar, grows beyond boundaries of wound

Fissure

linear crack that extends into dermis

erosion

does not extend into dermis

ulcer

extends into dermis, leaves a scar when heals

Vitiligo

loss of pigment in skin

Lentigo

liver spots-related to aging and sun exposure

petechiae

tiny punctate hemorrhages, 1-3mm, will not blanch

purpura

confluent patches of petechia and ecchymoses >3mm

superficial wounds

only include epidermis

partial thinkness wounds

involve dermis and epidermis

full thickness wounds

involve sub-Q tissue, may extend into muscle, tendon and bone

How long do acute wounds take to heal?

2 weeks


Initial phase (3-5 days)


Granulation phase (5 days to 4 weeks)


Scar contracture (7 days to several months)



What is a chronic wound?

a wound that fails to heal in an orderly set of phases (ulcers that have included muscle, tendon and sub-Q tissue) ex. pressure ulcers

Key prevention for pressure ulcers:

The braden scale

stages of pressure ulcers:

stage 1-intact skin, non-blanchable redness


stage 2-partial thickness loss of dermis, red-pink wound


stage 3-full thickness loss of tissue, Sub-Q may be visible, may include tunnelling


stage 4- full-thickness loss of tissue, bone, tendon and m.s is exposed, often includes tunnelling


unstageable- wound is covered in slough (yellow, black and green), until derided, unable to tell true stage