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77 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What is the rule of 30?

An animal under anesthesia should maintain a heart rate that is within 30% of its resting heart rate.

What is the normal Iso setting in Robinson Hall?

2%

What are 4 ways to check for reflexes?

Check for jaw tone/anal tone, appearance of 3rd eyelid, squeeze toes, medial canthus of the eye

Which BP monitor is most indirect?

Doppler

Systolic BP measurement tells us what?

When it pumps from the ventricles to the rest of the body.

What are the 3 different types of BPs we can measure?

Systolic, diastolic, MAP

What is the difference between systolic and diastolic BPs?

Systolic = the number produced by contraction of the LEFT VENTRICLE; all BP monitoring instruments can measure this.




Diastolic = pressure that remains in the arteries when heart is in resting phase between contractions; not all BP monitoring instruments can measure this.

What is meant by MAP?

Mean Arterial Pressure; the average pressure throughout the cardiac cycle.

Which BP monitor is most direct?

Pressure Transducer

How does the Pressure Transducer BP monitor work?

Readings are obtained via a catheter inserted into an artery, providing continuous readings throughout the cardia cycle (most accurate but most invasive)

Describe as example of an indirect BP monitor.

External cuff placed over an artery, using doppler method.

What are the 2 kinds of indirect BP monitors?

Doppler & oscillometric

What type of BP does a doppler measure?

Systolic

Describe the flow of the electrical impulse path through the heart.

Sinus node activity is activated>AV node is stimulated>Atrial contraction>impulse travels within the AV bundle branches to the Purkinje fibers>the impulse is distributed by the Purkinje fibers and relayed throughout the ventricular myocardium=Atrial contraction completed, leads to ventricular contraction.

Name the 5 types of waves on an ECG reading.

P wave, PR interval, QRS complex, ST segment, T wave

Describe the P wave.

the 1st wave; precedes atrial contraction; rounded, appears double humped in large animals (bifid); measured from point it leaves baseline to point it returns to baseline.

Describe the PR interval.

Represents the time required for the impulse to move from the sinoatrial node to the Purkinje fibers; measured from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex.

Describe the QRS complex.

Represents contraction of ventricles; largest waveform, pointed; points up (positive) in small animals; points down (negative) in large animals; measured from the point it leaves the baseline to the point it returns to the baseline.

Describe the ST segment.

Located between the QRS complex and the T wave; should leave the baseline only slightly, if at all.

Describe the T wave.

Represents repolarization of ventricles in preparation for the next contraction; measured from the end of the ST segment to the point it returns to the baseline.

Which arrhythmia is normal in dogs but not cats?

Sinus arrhythmia

Sinus arrhythmia is normal in which species?

Dogs

How often do we monitor and chart the patient's vitals during surgery?

Every 5 minutes

When monitoring, if the BP reads AIR LEAK, how do you respond to that?

Sometimes it can be based on position of the patient, or the cuff may be loose or the wrong size.

What is the clamp called that goes on the tongue during surgery?

Pulse oximeter

What does the pulse oximeter measure?

Saturation of oxygen

How does the pulse oximeter measure the saturation of oxygen?

It utilizes infrared wavelength light technology with digital readout while the probe is placed on the patient's tongue.

Explain why anesthetic monitoring is required.

Patient safety and anesthetic depth regulation

What are the different stages of anesthesia?

Stage I, Stage II, Stage III (Plane 1, Place 2, Plane 3) Stage IIII

What are the 3 planes of Stage III of anesthesia?

(1) LIGHT anesthesia (2) SURGICAL anesthesia (3) DEEP anesthesia

Which stage of anesthesia is preferred for surgical procedures?

Stage III Plane 2: SURGICAL anesthesia

Which anesthetic stage/plane is the most dangerous for the patient to be in?

Stage IIII Anesthetic overdose

What is an important point to remember when working with animals under anesthesia in the 2nd stage?

Animals are NOT in conscious control of their actions; make this stage as short as possible.

How does the 2nd anesthesia stage end?

Muscle relaxation, decreased RR, decreased reflexes

Which anesthetic plane may be necessary for orthopedic surgery?

Stage III Plane 3: we don't usually want a patient to reach this phase, unless it is for a surgery that can be extremely painful.

What are some signs the patient has reached the 4th stage of anesthesia?

Little to no RR/HR, circulatory collapse, death

What are the dogs' normal monitoring parameters under anesthesia for: BP, ETCO2, & Sao2?

BP: Systolic (90-160); Diastolic (50-90); MAP (70-99)


Sao2: 95-99%


ETCO2: 35-45mmHg

What does the Sao2 refer to when monitoring a patient?

Arterial Oxygen Saturation, normal is between 95-99%

What does the ETCO2 refer to when monitoring a patient?

End-tidal carbon dioxide level, normal is 35-45 mmHg

What things are monitored during anesthesia?

Vital signs, reflexes, movements/muscle tones

What are some abnormal findings while monitoring during anesthesia?

Spontaneous movements, chewing on tube, salivation

What are 2 common causes of bradycardia?

Excessive anesthetic depth, adverse drug reactions.

How do you treat bradycardia during anesthesia?

Use reversal agents or Atropine to speed up heart rate

What are 3 common causes of tachycardia during anesthesia?

Not deep enough anesthesia, adverse drug reactions, pain stimulation.

How do you treat tachycardia during anesthesia?

Treat according to what is causing the fast heart rate.

Describe an AV heart block.

A delay of the electrical impulse conduction through AV node.

What is fibrillation?

Uncoordinated, small muscle contractions within atria and ventricles.

What are the 2 types of fibrillation?

Atrial & Ventricular fibrillation

Describe Atrial fibrillation.

Absence of P waves, irregular ventricular rate

Describe Ventricular fibrillation.

Undulating baseline absence of QRS complex, chaotic electrical activity unassociated with organized contraction of the heart muscle.

Describe Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)

Cessation of heart contractions, or palpable pulse in presence of normal ECG

Describe Ventilation.

The forced transfer of gases, pushing gas out and sucking it back in; no chemical change from oxygen to carbon dioxide; the machine is breathing for the animal.

Describe respiration (in comparison to ventilation)

The animal breathes on its own, and their body chemically uses the oxygen and expels the CO2, naturally breathing.

What is tidal volume?

How small/large of a breath the patient takes; the deeper breath they take, the larger the tidal volume is.

Describe the respiratory character.

Which type of breath the patient is taking; deep, shallow, labored, shaky.

What does the Apnea monitor read?

Alerts if the patient is holding their breath or doesn't breathe for a certain amount of time.

What is the capnograph?

A sensor that sits between the patient and machine, attaches to the ET tube; measures the RR and the CO2 they are breathing out.

Why is the Capnograph also called End Tidal CO2?

Because it measures the amount of CO2 at the END of each breath

What are abnormalities with the capnogram?

Hypercapnia & Hypocapnia

What is Hypercapnia? How do you respond to it?

Increase in ETCO2 value; HYPOVENTILATION. Increase respiratory rate

What is Hypocapnia? How do you respond to it?

Decrease in ETCO2 value; HYPERVENTILATION. Decrease respiratory rate.

What are 3 causes of hypercapnia?

Too deep under anesthesia, positioning, airway obstruction.

What are 4 causes of hypocapnia?

Too light under anesthesia, painful, hypothermia, decrease cardiac output.

What is the corneal reflex?

Placement of the eye itself; apply eye drop, for example, see if eye itself responds to liquid. usually only used if patient is suspected to be too deep under anesthesia.

What is the palpebral reflex?

"Blink" reflex, touch the corner of the eye, watch for movement/reaction

What is the pupillary light reflex?

Pupils should constrict or dilate depending on it light is shown into the eye or not, both eyes should respond the same as the other.

What are the 2 indicators of circulation?

Heart rate & heart rhythm

What is an indicator of oxygenation?

Normal MM coloring

How often do we monitor body temperature during surgery?

Every 15-30 minutes manually with a rectal thermometer

What are some factors that influence body temperature?

Age, size, type of procedure (open surgery, etc.)

What factor delays recovery time?

Hypothermia

What are 3 risks of hypothermia during anesthesia?

Slows metabolism (more drugs needed), leads to CNS depression, leads to heart malfunction

Name 4 ways to minimize heat loss during anesthesia.

Warm IV fluids for cavity flush, avoid cold environment/room/tables, barrier between patient and table, forced warm air blanket

How do we report reflexes during monitoring?

Reported as: Present, Decreased, Absent

Which 6 reflexes are evaluated during anesthesia?

Palpebral, pedal, laryngeal, pupillary light reflex, corneal, swallowing

Why is the SA node called the pace maker of the heart?

The SA node has a cluster of cells that are situated in the upper part of the right atrium wall where electrical impulses are generated.

Explain how an ECG provides useful information about cardiac function.

It displays the electrical impulses generated by the cardiac conduction system that indicated each heartbeat. The monitor generates real time tracing of heart rhythm.