Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
186 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Which of the following would increase cardiac output to the greatest extent?
a. decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume b. decreased heart rate and decreased stroke volume c. increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume d. increased heart rate and increased stroke volume |
increased heart rate and increased stroke volume
Cardiac output = heart rate x stroke volume. |
|
|
Which of the following would increase heart rate?
a. increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system b. acetylcholine c. epinephrine and norepinephrine d. decreased activity of the sympathetic nervous system |
epinephrine and norepinephrine
|
|
|
How would an increase in the sympathetic nervous system increase stroke volume?
a. increased end diastolic volume b. increased contractility c. decreased end diastolic volume d. increased end systolic volume |
increased contractility
|
|
|
By what mechanism would an increase in venous return increase stroke volume?
a. increased contractility b. increased end diastolic volume c. decreased end diastolic volume d. increased end systolic volume |
increased end diastolic volume
|
|
|
How would a decrease in blood volume affect both stroke volume and cardiac output?
a. decreased stroke volume and no change in cardiac output b. increased stroke volume and increased cardiac output c. no change in stroke volume and decreased cardiac output d. decreased stroke volume and decreased cardiac output |
decreased stroke volume and no change in cardiac output
|
|
|
What is the main function of heart valves?
a. to separate the atria and ventricles b. to separate the left and right atria c. to pump blood through the heart d. to prevent backward flow of blood |
To prevent backflow of blood
|
|
|
When the atria contract, which of the following is true?
a. The atria are in diastole. b. The ventricles are in diastole. c. The AV valves are closed. d. The semilunar valves are open. |
The ventricles are in distole
|
|
|
Which of the following is equivalent to the ventricular volume during isovolumetric contraction?
a. the end systolic volume (ESV) b. The end diastolic volume (EDV) c. the stroke volume (SV) d. the minimum ventricular volume (MVV) |
The end diastolic volume (EDV)
|
|
|
Which of the following is true during ventricular systole?
a. The ventricles are empty. b. The AV valves are closed. c. The atria are in systole. d. The ventricles are relaxed. |
The AV valves are closed
|
|
|
During the ventricular ejection phase of the cardiac cycle, which of the following is true?
a. The ventricles are in diastole. b. The AV valves are open. c. The semilunar valves are open. d. The atria are in systole. |
The semilunar valves are open
|
|
|
Most of the decrease in ventricular volume takes place during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
a. isovolumetric relaxation b. ventricular filling c. atrial contraction d. ventricular ejection |
Ventricular ejection
|
|
|
Which of the following is equivalent to the ventricular volume during isovolumetric relaxation?
a. end systolic volume (ESV) b. stroke volume (SV) c. maximum ventricular volume (MVV) d. end diastolic volume (EDV) |
End systolic volume (ESV)
|
|
|
Most of the increase in left ventricular volume takes place during what phase of the cardiac cycle?
a. atrial contraction b. ventricular filling c. ventricular ejection d. isovolumetric relaxation |
Ventricular filling
|
|
|
In what direction does blood flow through the heart?
a. from a region of high volume to a region of low volume b. from a region of high oxygen content to a region of low oxygen content c. from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure d. from ventricles to atria |
From a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure
|
|
|
Atrial pressure is greater than ventricular pressure during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
a. ventricular ejection b. isovolumetric relaxation c. atrial contraction d. isovolumetric contraction |
Atrial contraction
|
|
|
At what point during the cardiac cycle does the AV valve close?
a. when the semilunar valve opens b. when aortic pressure becomes greater than ventricular pressure c. when ventricular pressure becomes greater than atrial pressure d. when ventricular pressure becomes greater than aortic pressure |
When ventricular pressure becomes greater than atrial pressure
|
|
|
At what point in the cardiac cycle does the semilunar valve open?
a. when ventricular pressure becomes greater than atrial pressure b. when ventricular pressure becomes greater than aortic pressure c. when the AV valve closes d. when atrial pressure becomes greater than ventricular pressure |
When ventricular pressure becomes greater than aortic pressure
|
|
|
Ventricular pressure is greater than aortic pressure during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
a. ventricular ejection b. ventricular filling c. isovolumetric contraction d. isovolumetric relaxation |
Ventricular ejection
|
|
|
At what point in the cardiac cycle does the semilunar valve close?
a. when pressure in the ventricle becomes less than aortic pressure b. when ventricular pressure becomes greater than aortic pressure c. when ventricular pressure becomes greater than atrial pressure d. when atrial pressure becomes greater than ventricular pressure |
When pressure in the ventricle becomes less than aortic pressure
|
|
|
Isovolumetric relaxation is characterized by which of the following?
a. Pressure in the ventricle exceeds pressure in the aorta. b. Blood flows backward through the heart from high to low pressure. c. Pressure in the atrium exceeds pressure in the ventricle. d. The semilunar and AV valves are closed |
The semilunar and AV valves are closed
|
|
|
At what point in the cardiac cycle does the AV valve open?
a. when atrial pressure becomes greater than ventricular pressure b. when the semilunar valve closes c. when ventricular pressure becomes greater than aortic pressure d. when aortic pressure becomes greater than ventricular pressure |
When atrial pressure becomes greater than ventricular pressure
|
|
|
Isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling (two phases of the cardiac cycle) take place during __________.
a. ventricular systole b. ventricular diastole |
Ventricular diastole
|
|
|
Which of the following is correct about the filling of the ventricles?
a. Most blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves. b. The majority of ventricular filling is caused by contraction of the atria. |
Most blood flows passively into the ventricles through open AV valves.
|
|
|
Describe the pressures in the atria and ventricles that would cause the opening of the AV valves.
a. Pressures in the atria and ventricles would be equal. b. Pressure in the ventricles would be greater than in the atria. c. Pressure in the atria would be greater than the pressure in the ventricles. |
Pressure in the atria would be greater than the pressure in the ventricles.
|
|
|
What causes the aortic semilunar valve to close?
a. higher ventricular pressure than aortic pressure b. greater pressure in the aorta than in the left ventricle c. equal ventricular and aortic pressures |
Greater pressure in the aorta than in the left ventricle
|
|
|
Put the phases of the cardiac cycle in the correct order, starting after ventricular filling.
a. isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation b. isovolumetric relaxation, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric contraction c. ventricular ejection, isovolumetric contraction, isovolumetric relaxation d. ventricular ejection, ventricular relaxation, isovolumetric contraction |
Isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, isovolumetric relaxation
|
|
|
Increased pressure in the ventricles would close what valve(s)?
a. AV valves only b. both semilunar and AV valves c. semilunar valves only |
AV valves only
|
|
|
Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the depolarization wave received from the sinoatrial (SA) node through the atria?
a. P wave b. S-T segment c. T wave d. QRS complex |
P wave
|
|
|
During which portion of the electrocardiogram do the atria contract?
a. S-T segment b. P-R interval c. P wave d. Q-T interval |
P-R interval
|
|
|
Which of the following would cause a decrease in the contractility of the heart?
a. epinephrine b. thyroxine c. increasing extracellular potassium levels d. increasing extracellular calcium levels |
Increasing extracellular potassium levels
|
|
|
Calculate the stroke volume if the end diastolic volume (EDV) is 135 mL/beat and the end systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL/beat.
a. 60 mL/beat b. 120 mL/beat c. 75 mL/beat d. 205 mL/beat |
75 mL/beat
|
|
|
The QRS complex on an electrocardiogram represents __________.
a. ventricular depolarization b. atrial depolarization c. ventricular repolarization d. atrial repolarization |
Ventricular depolarization
|
|
|
Which of the following would increase heart rate?
a. low metabolic rate b. parasympathetic stimulation c. cold temperature d. epinephrine |
Epinephrine
|
|
|
Which of the following structures sets the pace of heart contraction?
a. atrioventricular bundle b. bundle branches c. SA node d. AV node |
SA node
|
|
|
What does the T wave of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represent?
a. ventricular repolarization b. atrial repolarization c. ventricular depolarization d. atrial depolarizaton |
Ventricular repoloarization
|
|
|
A 55-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with heart failure. He complains of increasing shortness of breath on exertion, and of needing to sleep on three pillows at night. On physical assessment, the nurse determines that his ankles and feet are very swollen. Which of these symptoms either reflect left-sided and/or right-sided heart failure?
a. Left side failure results in shortness of breath and edema in the extremities. b. Left side failure results in shortness of breath. Right side failure results in edema in the extremities. c. Left side failure results in edema in the extremities. Right side failure results in shortness of breath. d. Right side failure results in shortness of breath and edema in the extremities. |
Left side failure results in shortness of breath. Right side failure results in edema in the extremities.
|
|
|
Damage to the ________ is referred to as heart block.
a. AV valves b. AV node c. AV bundle d. SA node |
AV node
|
|
|
Which of the following factors does not influence heart rate?
a. age b. gender c. skin color d. body temperature |
Skin colour
|
|
|
A foramen ovale ________.
a. is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close b. is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus c. is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum d. connects the two atria in the fetal heart |
Connects the two atria in the fetal heart
|
|
|
Which of these vessels receives blood during ventricular systole?
a. pulmonary veins only b. both the aorta and pulmonary trunk c. pulmonary arteries only d. aorta only |
Both the aorta and pulmonary trunk
|
|
|
Isovolumetric contraction ________.
a. occurs only in people with heart valve defects b. refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers c. occurs while the AV valves are open d. occurs immediately after the aortic and pulmonary valves close |
Refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers
|
|
|
T/F: The "lub" sounds of the heart are valuable in diagnosis because they provide information about the function of the heart's pulmonary and aortic valves.
|
False
|
|
|
T/F: As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve.
|
True
|
|
|
Which layer of the typical blood vessel is constructed from simple squamous epithelium?
a. vasa vasorum b. tunica media c. tunica externa d. tunica intima |
Tunica intima
|
|
|
Which type of vessel contains elastin in all three tunics to allow the vessel to expand and recoil as the heart ejects blood?
a. arteriole b. elastic artery c. muscular artery d. distributing artery |
Elastic artery
|
|
|
What type of vessel has relatively more smooth muscle and less elastic tissue?
a. arteriole b. elastic artery c. muscular artery d. capillary |
Muscular artery
|
|
|
Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?
a. tunica intima b. tunica media c. tunica adventitia d. tunica externa |
Tunica media
|
|
|
Gas and nutrient exchanges between the blood and tissues take place at the __________.
a. arteries b. veins c. capillaries d. arterioles |
Capillaries
|
|
|
Which capillaries are the most common in the body?
a. anastomoses b. continuous capillaries c. sinusoids d. fenestrated capillaries |
Continuous capillaries
|
|
|
Which of the following is not true regarding fenestrated capillaries?
a. Fenestrated capillaries form the blood-brain barrier. b. Fenestrated capillaries are essential for filtration of blood plasma in the kidney. c. Fenestrated capillaries in endocrine organs allow hormones rapid entry into the blood. d. Fenestrated capillaries in the small intestine receive nutrients from digested food. |
Fenestrated capillaries form the blood-brain barrier
|
|
|
Which of the following is true about veins?
a. Veins have a smaller diameter lumen than arteries. b. Veins carry blood away from the heart, while arteries carry blood to the heart. c. Veins are more muscular than arteries. d. Veins have valves; arteries do not. |
Veins have valves; arteries do not
|
|
|
Varicose veins seen in the superficial veins of the legs are unsightly and often treated by surgically removing them. However, even without these veins being present, the return of all blood toward the heart from the legs is not diminished primarily because ______.
a. the precapillary sphincters will contract to prevent blood from flowing toward areas where veins have been removed b. blood can still return via the deep veins c. in the absence of the venous valves (that have been removed), the blood will backflow into the capillary beds and then flow into other venules d. All of the listed responses are correct. |
Blood can still return via the deep veins
|
|
|
T/F: Arteries supplying the same territory are often merged with one another, forming arterial anastomoses.
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: Vasodilation will result in increased blood flow to a given tissue.
|
True
|
|
|
Which of the following is NOT an important source of resistance to blood flow?
a. vessel diameter b. vessel length c. blood viscosity d. total blood volume |
Total blood volume
|
|
|
Which of the following is the most significant source of blood flow resistance?
a. blood vessel diameter b. blood vessels type c. total blood vessel length d. blood viscosity |
Blood vessel diameter
|
|
|
What blood vessel experiences the steepest drop in blood pressure?
a. arterioles b. venules c. arteries d. capillaries |
Arterioles
|
|
|
What vessels sustain a drop in pressure from approximately 35 mm Hg to around 17 mm Hg?
a. elastic arteries b. veins c. arterioles d. capillaries |
Capillaries
|
|
|
T/F: A sustained blood pressure of 140/90 or greater indicates hypertension in the patient.
|
True
|
|
|
Why is it important that blood pressure drop to lower levels as it reaches the capillary beds?
a. Because capillaries depend on the lower pressure to prevent fluid exchange between the capillaries and the tissue fluid. b. Because capillaries actually are high-pressure vessels. c. Because capillaries actually need a higher blood pressure for filtration activities. d. Because capillaries are fragile and extremely permeable. |
Because capillaries are fragile and extremely permeable.
|
|
|
Factors that aid venous return include all except ________.
a. urinary output b. activity of skeletal muscles c. pressure changes in the thorax d. venous valves |
Urinary output
|
|
|
Where are the sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex located?
a. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems b. cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata c. carotid sinus and aortic arch |
Carotid sinus and aortic arch
|
|
|
If blood pressure is increased at the arterial baroreceptors, what would happen with the activity level of the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) and sympathetic nervous system (SNS)?
a. increased PNS activity and decreased SNS activity b. decreased PNS activity and increased SNS activity c. increased PNS and SNS activity |
Increased PNS activity and decreased SNS activity
|
|
|
Which of the following would cause vasodilation of arterioles?
a. decreased activity of the sympathetic nervous system b. increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system c. decreased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system d. increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system |
Decreased activity of the sympathetic nervous system
|
|
|
Stimulation of the adrenal medulla would result in which of the following?
a. an increase in heart rate and contractility b. a decrease in cardiac output c. a decrease in blood pressure d. vasodilation of arteries |
An increase in heart rate and contractility
|
|
|
A decrease in blood pressure at the arterial baroreceptors would result in which of the following?
a. vasodilation of arterioles b. an increase in heart contractility c. a decrease in cardiac output d. a decrease in heart rate |
An increase in heart contractibility
|
|
|
Which hormone of the indirect renal mechanism promotes sodium reabsorption by the kidneys to increase mean arterial pressure?
a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) b. thirst c. atrial natriuretic peptide hormone (ANP) d. aldosterone |
Aldosterone
|
|
|
Which of the following is NOT one of the four ways in which angiotensin II works to increase arterial blood pressure and extracellular fluid volume?
a. Angiotensin II triggers the sensation of thirst. b. Angiotensin II promotes vasodilation that decreases peripheral resistance. c. Angiotensin II prompts the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). d. Angiotensin II stimulates the secretion of aldosterone |
Angiotensin II promotes vasodilation that decreases peripheral resistance.
|
|
|
Which of the following would be interrupted in the indirect renal mechanism if angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) is blocked from performing its job?
a. release of renin from the kidneys b. conversion of angiotensin I from angiotensinogen c. sympathetic nervous system activity d. conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II |
Conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II
|
|
|
Which of the following is a metabolic factor that influences blood flow?
a. reduced stretch of vascular smooth muscle b. decreased sympathetic tone c. release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla d. low oxygen levels |
Low oxygen levels
|
|
|
Which of the following promotes vasodilation?
a. angiotensin II b. norepinephrine c. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) d. nitrous oxide |
Nitrous oxide
|
|
|
Which of the following intrinsic mechanisms (autoregulation) for controlling arteriolar smooth muscle diameter promotes vasoconstriction?
a. nitrous oxide b. endothelins c. histamine d. prostaglandins |
Endothelins
|
|
|
Which of the following is involved in long-term blood pressure regulation?
a. baroreceptors b. chemoreceptor reflexes c. renal mechanisms d. higher brain center |
Renal mechanisms
|
|
|
Which of the following would experience a decreased blood flow during exercise?
a. brain b. skin c. skeletal muscles d. kidneys |
Kidneys
|
|
|
What would be the effect of a high salt diet on blood pressure? What is the physiological basis for your answer?
a. Increased blood pressure. This is due to increased sodium in the blood, triggering sodium receptors in the vasomotor center to increase sympathetic stimulation of blood vessels. b. Decreased blood pressure. This is due to increased sodium in the blood, triggering sodium receptors in the vasomotor center to decrease sympathetic stimulation of blood vessels. c. Decreased blood pressure. This is due to increased sodium in the blood, increasing the total extracellular fluid volume. d. Increased blood pressure. This is due to increased sodium in the blood, increasing the total extracellular fluid volume. |
Increased blood pressure. This is due to increased sodium in the blood, increasing the total extracellular fluid volume.
|
|
|
How would an attack by a mugger effect blood pressure? What is the physiological basis for your answer?
a. Blood pressure would decrease due to parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. b. Blood pressure would increase due to parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. c. Blood pressure would increase due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation. d. Blood pressure would increase due to vagal nerve stimulation. e. Blood pressure would decrease due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation. |
Blood pressure would increase due to sympathetic nervous system stimulation.
|
|
|
Mr. Wilson is a 45-year-old stockbroker with essential hypertension. He is African American, obese, and he smokes 2-3 packs of cigarettes daily. What risk factors for hypertension are typified by Mr. Wilson? What complications are likely if corrective steps are not taken?
a. The risk factors are obesity, race, a high-stress job, and smoking. Complications could include atherosclerosis, heart failure, renal failure, and stroke. b. The risk factors are race, a high-stress job, and smoking. Complications could include heart failure, renal failure, and stroke. c. The risk factors are obesity, race, and smoking. Complications could include atherosclerosis, heart failure, and stroke. d. The risk factors are obesity, race, and a high-stress job. Complications could include atherosclerosis, heart failure, and stroke. e. The risk factors are obesity and race. Complications could include atherosclerosis and heart failure. |
The risk factors are obesity, race, a high-stress job, and smoking. Complications could include atherosclerosis, heart failure, renal failure, and stroke.
|
|
|
A pregnant patient comes into a clinic and asks about a small dark bulge that is becoming more apparent on her leg. What is it and what caused it?
a. Phlebitis, which is typically caused by a bacterial infection or physical trauma. b. An aneurysm, caused by a weakening of the vein due to chronic hypertension or arteriosclerosis. c. Hemorrhoids. The growing fetus puts downward pressure on the veins of the groin and restricts the return of blood to the heart, causing the valves in the peripheral veins to begin to fail. d. A varicose vein. The growing fetus puts downward pressure on the vessels of the groin and restricts the return of blood to the heart, causing the valves in the peripheral veins to begin to fail. |
A varicose vein. The growing fetus puts downward pressure on the vessels of the groin and restricts the return of blood to the heart, causing the valves in the peripheral veins to begin to fail.
|
|
|
Which of the following do not influence arterial pulse rate?
a. postural changes b. the vessel selected to palpate c. activity d. emotions |
The vessel selected to palpate
|
|
|
The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?
a. a decrease in carbon dioxide b. a decrease in oxygen levels c. changes in arterial pressure d. an increase in oxygen levels |
Changes in arterial pressure
|
|
|
In the capillaries, hydrostatic pressure (HP) is exerted by __________.
a. blood pressure b. proteins in the blood |
Blood pressure
|
|
|
The net hydrostatic pressure (HP) is the hydrostatic pressure in the __________ minus hydrostatic pressure in the __________.
a. interstitial fluid; capillary b. capillary; interstitial fluid |
Capillary; interstitial fluid
|
|
|
Which of the following would reflect the typical net hydrostatic pressure (HP) at the arterial end of the capillary?
a. 34 mm Hg b. 12 mm Hg c. 1 mm Hg |
34 mm Hg
|
|
|
The colloid osmotic pressure in the capillary is caused by __________.
a. blood pressure b. proteins in the blood |
Proteins in the blood
|
|
|
Which net pressure draws fluid into the capillary?
a. net osmotic pressure b. net hydrostatic pressure |
Net osmotic pressure
|
|
|
Reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place at the arterial end or venous end of the capillary?
a. venous b. arterial |
Venous
|
|
|
What pressure is responsible for reabsorption and for pulling fluids into the venous end of capillaries?
a. osmotic pressure in capillary (OPc) b. hydrostatic pressure in interstitial fluid (HPif) c. hydrostatic pressure in capillary (HPc) d. osmotic pressure in interstitial fluid (OPif) |
Osmotic pressure in capillary (OPc)
|
|
|
What is the value for the net filtration pressure (NFP) at the arteriolar end of the capillary?
a. 1 mm Hg b. 26 mm Hg c. 10 mm Hg d. 35 mm Hg |
10 mm Hg
|
|
|
Assume a person is experiencing a hemorrhage and the HPc has dropped to 23 mm Hg at the arteriole end of the capillary. Calculate net filtration pressure (NFP) at the arteriole end of the capillary.
a. -2 mm Hg b. 10 mm Hg c. 2 mm Hg d. -8 mm Hg |
-2 mm Hg
|
|
|
Which of the following would be a result of anaphylaxis (a systemic allergic reaction)?
a. increased blood pressure b. hypovolemic shock c. vascular shock d. cardiogenic shock |
Vascular shock
|
|
|
Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?
a. Blood flow to the kidneys increases. b. The skin will be cold and clammy. c. Blood will be diverted to the digestive organs. d. Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood. |
Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood.
|
|
|
Which of the following is a type of circulatory shock?
a. cardiogenic, which results from any defect in blood vessels b. circulatory, where blood volume is normal and constant c. hypovolemic, caused by increased blood volume d. vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone |
Vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone
|
|
|
The velocity of blood flow is ________.
a. slower in the veins than in the capillaries because veins have a large diameter b. slower in the arteries than in capillaries because arteries possess a relatively large diameter c. in direct proportion to the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels d. slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest |
Slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest
|
|
|
If blood pressure is almost normal in a person who has lost blood, does that mean the tissues are receiving adequate blood flow?
a. not necessarily b. yes c. no |
Not necessarily
|
|
|
T/F: The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is termed autoregulation.
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: Every minute, about 1.5 ml of fluid leaks out of the capillaries.
|
True
|
|
|
Which vessels carry blood away from the heart?
a. venules b. capillaries c. veins d. arteries |
Arteries
|
|
|
To what organ do the lymphatic vessels return protein-rich escaped fluids to rejoin circulation?
a. thymus b. spleen c. heart d. lymph nodes |
Heart
|
|
|
What is the main function of the lymphatic system?
a. The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that escape from the bloodstream to the blood. b. The lymphatic system makes blood cells through a process known as hematopoiesis. c. The lymphatic system pumps and transports blood throughout the body. d. The lymphatic system regulates blood pressure through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism. |
The lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that escape from the bloodstream to the blood.
|
|
|
Which of the following lacks lymph capillaries?
a. bones and teeth b. loose connective tissues c. skin d. small intestine |
Bones and teeth
|
|
|
Which of the following returns lymph to the right lymphatic duct?
a. left arm b. left side of the head c. cisterna chyli d. right side of the head |
Right side of the head
|
|
|
Which of the following delivers lymph into the junction of the internal jugular vein and the subclavian vein?
a. jugular trunk b. cisterna chyli c. thoracic duct d. subclavian trunk |
Thoracic duct
|
|
|
Lymph is most similar to __________.
a water b. blood plasma c. saliva d. interstitial fluid |
Interstitial fluid
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is true regarding veins versus lymphatic collecting vessels?
a. Veins and lymphatic vessels have a different number of tunics. b. Veins have fewer internal valves than do lymphatic vessels. c. Veins tend to form more branches (anastamoses) than do lymphatic vessels. d. Veins have thinner walls than do lymphatic vessels. |
Veins have fewer internal valves than do lymphatic vessels
|
|
|
Lymphatic vessels __________.
a. return tissue fluid to the bloodstream b. deliver oxygen to tissues c. collect blood from tissues d. supply nutrients to tissues |
Return tissue fluid to the bloodstream
|
|
|
The lymphatic capillaries are ________.
a. less permeable than blood capillaries b. as permeable as blood capillaries c. completely impermeable d. more permeable than blood capillaries |
More permeable than blood capillaries
|
|
|
Select the correct statement about lymph transport.
a. Lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins. b. Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles. c. Lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling. d. Under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits. |
Lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal muscles.
|
|
|
What is the role of the mini-valves in lymph capillaries?
a. increase permeability b. speed transport c. reduce pressure in the lymphatic capillary d. connect to blood capillaries |
Increased permeability
|
|
|
T/F:About 3 liters of fluid are lost to the tissue spaces every 24 hours and are returned to the bloodstream as lymph.
|
True
|
|
|
What is the role of the B lymphocytes (B cells) in lymphoid tissue?
a. produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies b. manage the immune response c. capture antigens and bring them back to the lymph nodes d. phagocytize foreign substances |
Produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies
|
|
|
Antibodies are produced by __________.
a. plasma cells b. macrophages c. dendritic cells d. reticular cells |
Plasma cells
|
|
|
Where are the three large clusters of superficial lymph nodes?
a. cervical, acromial, and mammary regions b. cervical, inguinal, and axillary regions c. lumbar, inguinal, and femoral regions d. axillary, brachial, and subclavian regions |
Cervical, inguinal, and axillary regions
|
|
|
What region of the lymph node contains densely packed follicles with dividing B cells?
a. trabeculae b. medulla c. cortex d. capsule |
Cortex
|
|
|
Which of the following is a role of lymph nodes?
a. They produce lymph. b. They return lymph to circulation. c. They filter lymph. d. They produce red blood cells. |
They filter lymph
|
|
|
Which lymphoid organ is primarily active during the early years of life?
|
Thymus
|
|
|
Which part of the spleen is the site of immune function?
a. white pulp b. splenic sinusoids c. red pulp d. splenic cords |
White pulp
|
|
|
Where are worn-out erythrocytes found in the spleen?
a. red pulp b. white pulp c. capsule d. splenic cords |
Red pulp
|
|
|
The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not:
a. have lymphocytes b. produce hormones c. have a cortex and medulla d. directly fight antigens |
Directly fight antigens
|
|
|
Digestive tract-associated lymphatic tissue includes all of the following except ________.
a. Peyer's patches b. palatine tonsils c. lingual tonsils d. islets of Langerhans |
Islets of Langerhans
|
|
|
Which lymphoid organ provides a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response and provides blood-cleansing functions?
a. spleen b. tonsil c. lymph node d. thymus |
Spleen
|
|
|
T/F: If even a small part of the spleen is left in a ten-year-old child, it will most likely regenerate itself.
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: In the spleen, red pulp is involved in the immune functions and white pulp is involved in disposing of worn-out RBCs.
|
False
|
|
|
Which of the following are primary lymphoid organs?
a. bone marrow and thymus b. appendix and spleen c. spleen and thymus d. lymph nodes and tonsils |
Bone marrow and thymus
|
|
|
Which of the following areas in a secondary lymphoid organ allows intimate contact between blood and the lymphocytes?
a. red pulp of the spleen b. Hassall’s corpuscles of the thymus c. germinal centers of the lymph nodes d. white pulp of the spleen |
White pulp of the spleen
|
|
|
Where in the lymph node do the T cells first encounter antigens presented by dendritic cells?
a. lymphoid follicles of the outer cortex b. germinal centers of the cortex c. medullary cords in the medulla d. deep in the cortex |
Deep in the cortex
|
|
|
Collections of lymphoid tissues, called MALT, are strategically placed throughout the respiratory, digestive, and genitourinary systems. Which one of these is located at the end of the small intestine?
a. Peyer’s patches b. appendix c. tonsils |
Peyer's patches
|
|
|
There is a decrease in our ability to fight infection as we age. Which lymphoid organ may have a role in this decline?
a. lymph nodes b. thymus c. spleen |
Thymus
|
|
|
During inhalation,
a. air moves up the trachea. b. oxygen molecules move into the lungs, and carbon dioxide molecules move out of the lungs. c. the diaphragm and rib muscles contract. d. the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases. e. the diaphragm relaxes. |
The diaphragm and rib muscles contract
|
|
|
From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood?
a. Bronchioles b. Trachea c. Alveoli d. Bronchi e. Nose |
Alveoli
|
|
|
Which statement is correct?
a. As oxygen diffuses from the lungs into capillaries, blood becomes deoxygenated. b. Oxygen is released from the mitochondria as a product of cellular respiration. c. In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells. d. Oxygen diffuses from large blood vessels into the body's cells. e. Carbon dioxide diffuses from the alveoli into surrounding capillaries. |
In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells
|
|
|
After blood becomes oxygenated,
a. it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to the lungs. b. it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to capillaries that supply the body's cells with oxygen. c. it does not return to the heart, but goes to the nose and mouth. d. it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells. e. it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to the lungs. |
It returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells.
|
|
|
Hemoglobin
a. is found in blood plasma. b. uses ATP to move oxygen from blood to body cells. c. has five subunits. d. is the site of cellular respiration. e. is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen. |
Is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen.
|
|
|
Carbon dioxide transport
|
1. Carbon dioxide is released from the mitochondria
2. Carbon dioxide diffuses into a capillary 3. Carbon dioxide is carried to the lungs 4. Carbon dioxide diffuses into an alveolus 5. Air exits through the nose or mouth |
|
|
Oxygen transport
|
1. Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into surrounding capillaries
2. Oxygen enters a red blood cell 3. Oxygen binds to a molecule of hemoglobin 4. Oxygen is carried through blood vessels to a capillary 5. Oxygen diffuses from the blood to the body's tissues |
|
|
Key events in gas exchange
|
1. Breathing moves air in and out of the lungs
2. Oxygen diffuses from alveoli in the lungs into capillaries 3. Oxygen enters red blood cells, where it binds to the protein hemoglobin 4. Oxygen diffuses from the blood to the body's tissues, and carbon dioxide diffuses from the tissues to the blood 5. Carbon dioxide leaves the body when we exhale |
|
|
Which cartilage belonging to the larynx anchors the vocal cords?
a. cricoid cartilage b. thyroid cartilage c. arytenoid cartilages d. epiglottis |
Arytenoid cartilages
|
|
|
Since mucus-producing cells and cilia are sparse in the bronchioles and alveoli, how does the body remove microorganisms that make their way into the respiratory zone?
a. type II alveolar cells secrete a substance called surfactant b. alveolar macrophages crawl freely along internal alveolar surfaces c. the pleurae produce pleural fluid d. type I alveolar cells produce antimicrobial proteins |
Alveolar macrophages crawl freely along internal alveolar surfaces
|
|
|
What type of epithelial tissue forms the walls of the alveoli?
a. simple squamous epithelium b. stratified squamous epithelium c. simple cuboidal epithelium d. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium |
Simple squamous epithelium
|
|
|
Where does gas exchange occur in the respiratory system?
a. trachea b. lobar (secondary) bronchi c. terminal bronchioles d. alveoli |
Alveoli
|
|
|
Which of the following features characterizes the right lung?
a. presence of the cardiac notch b. presence of a superior, middle, and inferior lobe c. presence of only two lobes d. smaller of the two lungs |
Presence of a superior, middle, and inferior lobe
|
|
|
The __________ is also known as the "guardian of the airways."
a. glottis b. larynx c. vestibular folds d. epiglottis |
Epiglottis
|
|
|
The smallest subdivisions of the lung visible with the naked eye are the __________, which appear to be connected by black carbon in smokers.
a. pleura b. lobules c. lobes d. pulmonary hila |
Lobules
|
|
|
During pleurisy, the inflamed parietal pleura of one lung rubs against the inflamed ______.
a. thoracic wall b. parietal pleura of the other lung c. visceral pleura of the same lung d. visceral pleura of the other lung |
Visceral pleura of the same lung
|
|
|
Jane had been suffering through a severe cold and was complaining of a frontal headache and a dull, aching pain at the side of her face. What regions are likely to become sites of secondary infection following nasal infection?
a. The paranasal sinuses b. The oral cavity c. The lower respiratory tract d. The larynx and trachea e. The oral cavity and larynx |
The paranasal sinuses
|
|
|
The loudness of a person's voice depends on the ________.
a. thickness of vestibular folds b. force with which air rushes across the vocal folds c. strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles d. length of the vocal folds |
Force with which air rushes across the vocal folds
|
|
|
Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?
a. surfactant production b. surface tension of water c. C-shaped cartilage rings d. pseudostratified ciliated epithelium |
C-shaped cartilage rings
|
|
|
The respiratory membrane is a combination of ________.
a. respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts b. respiratory bronchioles and alveolar sacs c. atria and alveolar sacs d. alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes |
Alveolar and capillary walls and their fused basement membranes
|
|
|
The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ________.
a. surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity b. the visceral pleurae and the changing volume of the lungs c. the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles alone d. the smooth muscles of the lung |
Surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity
|
|
|
Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________.
a. action of the epiglottis b. ciliated mucous lining in the nose c. porous structure of turbinate bones d. abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa |
Ciliated mucous lining in the nose
|
|
|
Which of the following descriptions accurately describes Boyle’s law?
a. How well a gas dissolves in a liquid such as blood depends on both its partial pressure and its solubility. b. The pressure of gas in your lungs is inversely proportional to the volume in your lungs. c. The partial pressure of a gas in the air you breathe in is equal to the total atmospheric pressure times the fractional concentration of the gas. |
The pressure of gas in your lungs is inversely proportional to the volume in your lungs
|
|
|
Which muscles, when contracted, would increase the volume of air in the thoracic cavity?
a. internal intercostals and external oblique b. diaphragm and internal intercostals c. diaphragm and external intercostals |
Diaphragm and external intercostals
|
|
|
Which pressure is the result of the natural tendency of the lungs to decrease their size (because of elasticity) and the opposing tendency of the thoracic wall to pull outward and enlarge the lungs?
a. intrapleural pressure b. intrapulmonary pressure c. atmospheric pressure |
Intrapleural pressure
|
|
|
During an allergic reaction, which of the following would aid respiration?
a. an increase in the parasympathetic nervous system b. epinephrine c. acetylcholine (ACh) d. histamine |
Epinephrine
|
|
|
If the transpulmonary pressure equals zero, what will happen to the lung?
a. lungs will collapse b. lung volume will stay the same c. lungs will inflate |
Lungs will collapse
|
|
|
Which of the following pressures rises and falls with the phases of breathing, but eventually equalizes with the atmospheric pressure?
a. transpulmonary pressure b. atmospheric pressure c. intrapulmonary pressure d. intrapleural pressure |
Intrapulmonary pressure
|
|
|
Which of the following pressures must remain negative to prevent lung collapse?
a. intrapulmonary pressure b. intrapleural pressure c. atmospheric pressure d. transpulmonary pressure |
Intrapleural pressure
|
|
|
Calculate the transpulmonary pressure if atmospheric pressure is 755 mm Hg.
a. 4 mm Hg b. -1 mm Hg c. 9 mm Hg d. -4 mm Hg |
4 mm Hg
|
|
|
Which of the following gives the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas?
a. Boyle's law b. Henry's law c. Dalton's law of partial pressures d. Haldane effect |
Boyle's Law
|
|
|
What is the volume of the total amount of exchangeable air for a healthy, young adult male?
a. 2400 ml b. 6000 ml c. 3600 ml d. 4800 ml |
4800 ml
|
|
|
Which form of CO2 transport accounts for the least amount of CO2 transported in blood?
a. dissolved in plasma b. chemically bound to hemoglobin c. as bicarbonate ion in plasma d. as carbon monoxide in plasma |
Dissolved in plasma
|
|
|
What is the most immediate driving force behind pulmonary ventilation?
a. intrapulmonary pressure change b. environmental stimuli c. air sac contraction d. smooth muscle contraction |
Intrapulmonary pressure change
|
|
|
What is the amount of air that can be exhaled with the greatest possible exhalation after the deepest inhalation called?
a. inspiratory reserve volume b. expiratory reserve volume c. vital capacity d. tidal volume |
Vital capacity
|
|
|
In babies born prematurely, pulmonary surfactant may not be present in adequate amounts ______.
a. in the conducting zone structures of the lungs b. due to insufficient exocytosis in the type II alveolar cells c. to permit adequate surface tension in the alveoli d. because the presence of collapsed alveoli prevents surfactant production |
Due to insufficient exocytosis in the type II alveolar cells
|
|
|
Which of the following determines lung compliance?
a. alveolar surface tension b. flexibility of the thoracic cage c. airway opening d. muscles of inspiration |
Alveolar surface tension
|
|
|
The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ________.
a. expiratory capacity b. vital capacity c. inspiratory reserve d. reserve air |
Inspiratory reserve
|
|
|
T/F: Atelectasis (lung collapse) renders the lung useless for ventilation.
|
True
|
|
|
T/F: Dalton's law of partial pressures states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture.
|
True
|
|
|
Emphysema can result in an ______.
a. increased level of carbaminohemoglobin b. increased level of deoxyhemoglobin c. increased likelihood of the skin of Caucasians developing a slightly blue coloration d. All of the listed responses are correct. |
All of the listed responses are correct
|
|
|
The local matching of blood flow with ventilation is ________.
a. chloride shifting b. ventilation-perfusion coupling c. the Bohr effect d. the Haldane effect |
Ventilation-prefusion coupling
|
|
|
If a red blood cell is 100% saturated, how many molecules of O2 are bound to it?
a. 4 molecules of O2 b. 250 million molecules of O2 c. 1 billion molecules of O2 |
1 billion molecules of O2
|
|
|
From the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, hemoglobin is __________ when the partial pressure of oxygen is 40 mm Hg. Would this be in the lungs, inactive tissues, or active tissues?
a. 75% saturated; in the active tissues b. 35% saturated; in the active tissues c. 98% saturated; in the active tissues d. 75% saturated; in the inactive tissues |
75% saturated; in the inactive tissues
|
|
|
Predict which way exercise would shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. Would this shift in the curve increase or decrease hemoglobin saturation?
a. The curve would shift to the left thus decreasing the hemoglobin saturation. b. The curve would shift to the right thus increasing the hemoglobin saturation. c. The curve would shift to the left thus increasing the hemoglobin saturation. d. The curve would shift to the right thus decreasing the hemoglobin saturation. |
The curve would shift to the right thus decreasing the hemoglobin saturation
|
|
|
How is the majority of CO2 transported in blood?
a. bound to the globin portion of hemoglobin b. bound to the heme portion of hemoglobin c. converted to and transported as bicarbonate ions d. dissolved in the plasma |
Converted to and transported as bicarbonate ions
|
|
|
In the lungs, O2 loading facilitates CO2 unloading from hemoglobin. This is known as __________.
a. the chloride shift b. cooperativity or positive cooperativity c. the Haldane effect d. the Bohr effect |
The Haldane effect
|
|
|
Oxygen is unloaded where it is most needed when blood pH drops, this is a phenomenon known as ___________.
a. a chloride shift b. the Haldane effect c. ventilation-perfusion coupling d. the Bohr effect |
The Bohr effect
|
|
|
Possible causes of hypoxia include ________.
a. obstruction of the esophagus b. getting very cold c. too little oxygen in the atmosphere d. taking several rapid deep breaths |
Too little oxygen in the atmosphere
|
|
|
T/F: As carbon dioxide enters systemic blood, it causes more oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin (the Haldane effect), which in turn allows more CO2 to combine with hemoglobin and more bicarbonate ion to be generated (the Bohr effect).
|
False
|
|
|
What area in the brain sets the respiratory rhythm?
a. pontine respiratory group (PRG) b. dorsal respiratory group (DRG) c. ventral respiratory group (VRG) d. hypothalamus |
Ventral respiratory group (VRG)
|
|
|
Inspiratory neurons send information to the diaphragm via what nerve?
a. intercostal nerves b. phrenic nerve c. glossopharyngeal nerve d. vegus nerve |
Phrenic nerve
|
|
|
What directly stimulates the central chemoreceptors, thus increasing respiration?
a. high CO2 (carbon dioxide) b. high pH c. H+ (hydrogen ions) d. low O2 (oxygen) |
H+ (hydrogen ions)
|
|
|
As a result of hyperventilation, what will happen to the partial pressures of CO2 (pCO2) and pH?
a. increased pCO2 and decreased pH b. increased pCO2 and increased pH c. decreased pCO2 and decreased pH d. decreased pCO2 and increased pH |
Decreased pCO2 and increased pH
|
|
|
Which receptors inhibit inspiration during hyperinflation of the lungs?
a. Hypothalamic receptors b. peripheral chemoreceptors c. irritant receptors d. pulmonary stretch receptors |
Pulmonary stretch receptors
|
|
|
What stimulates increased respiration at the beginning of exercise?
a. increased plasma carbon dioxide levels b. sensory input from receptors in joints, neural input from the motor cortex, and other factors c. decreased plasma oxygen levels d. increased hydrogen ion levels |
Sensory input from receptors in joints, neural input from the motor cortex and other factors
|
|
|
A homeostatic control mechanism controls respiration. What acts as the effector(s) in this system?
a. central chemoreceptors b. peripheral chemoreceptors c. medulla oblongata d. respiratory muscles |
Respiratory muscles
|
|
|
Which of the following stimuli is the most powerful respiratory stimulant to increase respiration?
a. rising carbon dioxide levels b. a rise in body temperature c. an increase in blood pH d. arterial pH |
Rising carbon dioxide levels
|
|
|
T/F: The Hering-Breuer reflex is a potentially dangerous response that may cause overinflation of the lung.
|
False
|
