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389 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
what is an example of analog to digital and digital to analog techniques?
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Pulse code modulation and continuously variable slope delta (CVSD) modulation.
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What modulation technique is a complete digitization process since it converts an analog signal into one that is discrete with respect to both time and amplitude (or polarity)?
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Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
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Amplitude modulation (AM) requires a bandwidth that is...
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Twice that of the modulating signal
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We can express the 6-to-1 improvement of the single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation over conventional amplitude modulation (AM) as...
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8 dB of improvement
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A modulated wave form that contains a carrier plus two sidebands for each modulation frequency is a description of...
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An Amplitude Modulation (AM)
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If 100 percent modulation is exceeded and there is distortion in the modulating signal
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additional sidebands are generated. We identify these sidebands as...
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To prevent Frequency Modulation (FM) radio stations from interfering with each other
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the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has set limits that allow each station to cause its oscillator frequency to deviate no more than...
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The amount of phase shift in a phase modulation (PM) signal is directly proportional to the...
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Amplitude of the modulating signal
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Quadrature-phase shift keying (QPSK) requires...
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Half the bandwidth as does bi-phase shift keying (BPSK)
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What is the main advantage of differential phase shift keying (DPSK)?
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It requires a less complex receiver than a basic phase shift keying (PSK) signal
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All of these are considered analog modulation techniques except...
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Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
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The form of pulse modulation that requires the pulse width to be varied to convey intelligence is...
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Pulse-duration modulation (PDM)
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Quantized analog modulation is actually...
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Analog-to-digital conversion
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Which type of pulse modulation is least affected by noise?
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Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
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Pulse-code modulation (PCM) code words are assigned to each sample and correspond to its...
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Amplitude
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How many bits per character of a 16-step Pulse-Code Modulation (PCM) system are used to describe the quantized analog sample?
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4
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The process of coding Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) quantized pulses to make them a constant duration and amplitude is...
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Encoding
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Noise in Delta Modulation (DM) can be reduced by varying the approximation signal step size in accordance with the input signals'...
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Amplitude
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What modulation technique varies the step size in accordance with the magnitude of the input signals' amplitude?
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Delta Modulation (DM)
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Continuous Variable Slope Delta (CVSD) modulation circuitry includes a pulse-amplitude modulator and a...
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Low-pass filter
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Which modulation technique was developed to reduce signal loss and noise in a tactical environment?
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Conditioned Diphase Interface modulation (CDI)
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Up to what percent of speech is redundant?
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75
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The accepted standard for the voice frequency band is...
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300 to 3
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Noise may be introduced into speech signals by thermal agitation and...
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Black body radiation
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Bits taken from an input channel data stream at a rate atleast twice the highest frequency appearing in the intelligence signal we call...
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The Sampling rate
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Which of these sampling rates is correct for a Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) channel if the highest frequency appearing in the channel is 4 kHz?
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8 kHz
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Having marker pulses at the beginning of each frame of a Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) signal is one method of...
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Synchronization
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What modulation format is usually used with Time Slot Interchange (TSI)?
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Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
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How are incoming and outgoing channels connected within the time slot interchange?
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By Time
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How are channels connected in space division multiplexing?
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By a Switch Matrix
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Which multiplex scheme periodically redefines the length of its frames?
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Asynchronous Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
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In Pulse-Code Modulation (PCM) systems
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synchronizing bits may be inserted...
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Which type of Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) synchronization recovers clock from the traffic signal?
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Asynchronous
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In a synchronous system
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performance of all operations is controlled by a...
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A synchronizing technique used to overcome propagation delay in Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) systems is...
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Pulse stuffing
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Which module supervises AN/FCC-100 (V) 9 operation and communicates with all the other AN/FCC-100 (V) 9 modules and subassemblies?
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Processor Module
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Which module transforms data between the local AN/FCC-100 (V) 9 internal high-speed data bus and the transmission path to the remote AN/FCC-100 (V) 9 unit?
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Aggregate Module
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Which module provides the interface and termination capability for two pieces of data terminal equipment (DTE) and is designed to accept four plug-in sub modules which interface the DTEs to the multiplexer?
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Port Carrier Module
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Which module is the communication link between the AN/FCC-100 (V) 9 and operator's panel or an external control terminal?
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Interface Module
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Wave-Division Multiplexing (WDM) creates the virtual channels for multiplexing them together for transmission by using different...
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Wavelengths or Lambdas
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What Wave-Division Multiplexing (WDM) technology sends a large number of optical signals closely together?
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Dense wave division multiplexing (DWDM)
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What unit is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?
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Bits per second (bps)
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Bit count integrity problems are primarily caused by...
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System Timing Faults
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Three categories of synchronization used in digital data circuits are...
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Synchronous
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In synchronous data operation...
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All data bits are the same length in time
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A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes...
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Asynchronous Operation
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In communications
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what is essential for continuous error-free performance?
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While timing ensures the equipment is sending and receiving bits at the same time intervals
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synchronization ensures that the...
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How many signal levels does an return-to-zero alternate mark inversion (RZ AMI) signal have?
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3
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In what type of signal is the information contained in the transition
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and there is a transition from one state to the other only when a mark bit is sent?
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In what type of signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels
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but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?
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Which statement best describes an alternate mark inversion (AMI) signal?
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A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative
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Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to...
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Maintain ones density standards
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Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?
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Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros
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How many bits are in the D4 framing sequence?
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12
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How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?
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24
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The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that act as functions to...
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Control and process calls
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What communications control signal uses a two frequency dialing combination?
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Tone Dialing
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What communications information signal could use a continuous 350- and 440- Hz frequency pair?
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Dial Tone
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What communications information signal could use a signal cycled on and off for 0.5 second and contains the generation of a 480 and 620 Hz frequency pair?
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Busy signal
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What communications information signal could use a signal cycled on for 1.0 seconds and off for 1.0 seconds and contains the generation of a multifrequency howl?
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Off-hook alert
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What communications supervisory signal could use a continuous application of direct current voltage for signaling?
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Loop-start
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When is the voltage applied in loop-start signaling?
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Off-hook condition
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In common associated signaling (CAS)
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the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 are used to convey signaling information. This is known as...
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How is supervisory signaling info transferred in Common Channel Signaling (CCS)?
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Separate Network Channel
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What Common Channel Signaling (CCS) signaling mode transfers the messages relating to signaling between two points
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and are conveyed directly interconnecting these signaling points?
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Why are wire pairs twisted together with other pairs to form a twisted pair cable?
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To cancel out induced signals that can interfere with the communication signals
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In telephone terminology
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the resistance of a line is stated in terms of ohms per...
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The flow of current through insulation to other wires or ground is called...
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Shunt Conductance
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What do loading coils equalize to reduce the amount of line loss in a voice-frequency-cable transmission line?
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Capacitive and inductive reactance
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A signal reflection on a wire line may be caused by...
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a mismatch of impedance when equipment is inserted into the line
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How is phase jitter generated on a wire line?
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Additive amplitude noise is introduced
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What has made very high data rate transmission possible on a fiber optics cable?
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The broad bandwidth of the cable
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What is the current practical bandwidth limitation for a 10km fiber optic cable?
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50 Mhz
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What property of fiber optic cable provides high security for communication networks?
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Fiber optic cable is virtually untappable without detection
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How much loss is expected in the short optical fiber wavelength region per kilometer of cable?
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3.0 to 4.0 dB
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What is an advantage of using an avalanche positive-intrinsic-negative diode (APD)?
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It generates a current gain many times that of a PIN diode
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What are the three sections of fiber optic cable called?
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Core
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What is the bandwidth of multi-mode step-index optical fiber cable?
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10 Mhz to 100 Mhz/km
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What causes absorption loss in a fiber optic cable?
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Impurities in the fiber
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Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and...
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An intermediate distribution frame
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Patch panels containing clear text classified data circuits are connected with local equipment using...
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A Red distribution frame
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Which type of distribution frame is used to connect unclassified data circuits and local equipment?
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Black
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Within distribution frames
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Permanent wiring is connected to the...
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Within distribution frames
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Temporary wiring is connected to the...
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What length of shine is required for a wire lead being prepared for a wire wrape terminal connection?
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1 1/4 to 1 1/2 inch
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When creating a wire wrapped terminal connection
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what is done with the wire lead after is is stripped of insulation?
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For a wire-wrapped termination to be considered an efficient connection
|
you must wrap the wire lead at least...
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Which of these is NOT an advantage of the punch-on terminal block?
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They require less wiring than other types
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What tool(s) are required to complete a punch-on terminal connection?
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714B quick-connect tool only
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Which of the following is NOT a procedural step for creating a punch-on looping termination?
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Remove the scrap end of the wire
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Which pair is the first pair in a typical four-pair cable?
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White/Blue
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Which color is considered an additional ring color in a typical 25 pair cable?
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Slate
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What cable type is typically used to manage network equipment?
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Rollover
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Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association / Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA / TIA) 568A connector is what color?
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White/Green
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Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association / Telecommunications Industry Association (EIA / TIA) 568B connector is what color?
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White/Orange
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When building a modular cable
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you need to arrange the wires in a flat row...
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Screw-on connectors are generally unreliable because they...
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Can be pulled off with relative ease
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While using a cable stripper how much of the jacket on the cable is removed to access the inner core?
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5/8 inch
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What is a stable pattern
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or path
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The majority of fiber-optic connectors use what method to connect onto fiber because of the ease of installation without loss of quality?
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Epoxy Connectors
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When using a polishing cloth
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remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time
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The considerations for selecting electrical connectors are...
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Electrical
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Two characteristics of rectangular connectors are that they are...
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Used in rack panel applications and have no coupling mechanism
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Which of the following is a TRUE statement concerning the effects temperature has on electrical connectors?
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As temperature increases
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The three basic components of electrical connectors are the...
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Shell
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Insulators used in connectors are rated for their...
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Electrical resistance and ability to withstand breakdown
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Guide pin plates are used in connectors to...
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Provide polarization and float-mount action for rectangular connectors
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A purpose of moisture proofing connectors is to provide a moisture seal between...
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The connector and equipment
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The characteristics of electrical connector contacts are contact...
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Retention
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Which contact retention method for electrical connectors is used for full hermetic seal applications?
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Nonremovable contacts
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The correct procedure for creating a crimped contact termination for an electrical connector with a hand-held crimping tool is to...
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Insert a prestripped wire lead into the contact crimp pot
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A disadvantage of a crimped connection is it...
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Requires extra space around the contact area to create
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The purpose of a multimeter is to...
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Measure electrical voltage
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When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks
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which jack is always used?
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When using a multimeter
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which mode should be used if the reading is unreadable due to fluctuations?
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When using a multimeter
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which mode should be used if the reading fluctuates and a more accurate reading is desired?
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When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading
|
what preliminary precaution should you take?
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When using a multimeter to take a voltage reading greater than 100 volts
|
what safety precaution should you take?
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What metallic-line characteristic is indicated by current leakage between two conductors?
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Shunt
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When grounding a communications cable
|
use the poorer of two grounds if it...
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Which test equipment is BEST for checking equipment grounds?
|
Multimeter
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Before checking for shorts on a base cable pair...
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Disconnect the other end from the communications device
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What is indicated by an interruption that results in an incomplete path for current flow?
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Open
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What device is used to input and display data?
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A Terminal
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What device is a terminal with significant computing and processing capability?
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A Client
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What device modulates digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission?
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Modem
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What network device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?
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The TSEC/KIV-19
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What network device provides high-speed secure data transfers up to 38.4 kilobits per second (kbps) for asynchronous or 128 kbps for synchronous?
|
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)
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What type of resistor is wired between the tip and ring of the monitor jack of the audio patch panel that makes it possible for you to monitor the signal?
|
22 - ohm
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Which patch bay provides a circuit monitoring and testing capability for T-1 circuits?
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DS-X
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Which patch bays(s) can accommodate DB-25 modules wired for the RS-232
|
RS-530
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As related to the red/black concept
|
which type of separation is the isolating of batteried circuits from each other?
|
|
What is the maximum number of days an on-call patch should be activated?
|
7
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Who does the Systems Control Facility (SCF) contact for assistance when on-call service cannot be established within the means available to the SCF?
|
Regional Network Operations and Security Center (RNOSC)
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Where does power distribution within the systems control facility begin?
|
Main Power Panel
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Which Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) component takes the Direct Current (DC) voltage input and changes it to Alternating Current (AC) voltage?
|
Inverter
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Which auxiliary generator component connects the generator to the load by changing the facility's power feed from the commercial source to the generator?
|
Switchgear
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The difference between a Promina trunk and link is that a trunk is a...
|
Physical connection between two nodes and a link is a logical connection that can consist of one or more trunks
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What is an important feature of dynamic bandwidth allocation in the Promina?
|
Bandwidth is assigned to a pool and is allocated to a 9.6 kbps circuit as needed
|
|
What is an important feature of dynamic routing in the Promina?
|
If a path to a connected node is down
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How does the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) ensure there are some standards of operation throughout the Promina network?
|
Centralized management
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|
What feature of the Promina allows users to be unconcerned with the exact circuit path?
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Transparency to users
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Which module is common equipment for the Promina?
|
Processor
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How many Promina Processor Modules can be installed in a Promina 800 node?
|
1 to 4
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Which device provides clocking-functions to the Promina 800 nodes?
|
Switching Exchange
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Which module is the central point of data storage for Promina nodes?
|
Server
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A Promina node can have how many links?
|
64
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|
Which Promina module only supports one T-1 trunk
|
DS-1 rate (1.544 Mbps) transmission facilities?
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Which trunk module is designed specifically for the high-speed shelf (HSS-2) on the Promina 800?
|
T-3
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Which trunk module interconnects Promina nodes across an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) network?
|
Cell Xpress
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Which protocol provides the path that carries node management data in between the nodes?
|
Signaling Channel Link
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Which trunk module does NOT provide proprietary non-subrated interface signals that can only be interpreted by a Promina 800 series node?
|
TRK-3
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Which Promina module accepts two DS-1 signals in the D3/D4 frame format
|
separates them into 48 separate 64-kbps channels
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|
What type of Promina module supports two independent synchronous circuits at data rates from 9.6 kbps to 2.048 Mbps?
|
High-speed synchronous data
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What type of Promina module supports subrate data multiplexing?
|
X.50
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|
At status level 2 of the Promina Operator Interface
|
the operator has access to query all nodes and...
|
|
Which Promina menu contains commands for managing operators and the operator console?
|
Prolog Procedure
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|
Which Promina menu contains commands for configuring the network?
|
Functional Area
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Which Promina menu is used only with an operator status of level 3 or higher?
|
Action
|
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What can you do to prevent Promina alarms from being overwritten and discarded?
|
Cancelled all alarms that have been resolved
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|
Which Promina Operator Interface query command displays the voice compression available
|
software version installed
|
|
Which Promina Operator Interface query command displays a matrix depicting the network topology of the nodes connected within the local domain?
|
Network
|
|
After you have adjusted the oscilloscope intensity control to increase the readability of the display
|
what other control may you need to adjust?
|
|
What oscilloscope control do you need to adjust when a 'halo' appears on the display?
|
Intensity
|
|
When the spot is elliptical on the oscilloscope screen
|
what control should you adjust?
|
|
What oscilloscope height-to-width ratio provides optimum display proportions for general-purpose waveform examinations?
|
2:3
|
|
To center the trace on the cathode-ray rube (CRT) of an oscilloscope
|
what controls do you use?
|
|
What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?
|
Distortion
|
|
What are the two major sections of a Bit Error Rate Test (BERT) set?
|
Transmitter and Receiver
|
|
Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set generates a pseudo-random test pattern?
|
Transmitter
|
|
Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
|
Receiver
|
|
What type of framing format should you use to conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a T-1 circuit configured for binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding?
|
Extended Superframe
|
|
What determines the size of a test pattern segment?
|
The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern
|
|
What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity in violation of alternate mark inversion coding rules?
|
Bipolar Violation
|
|
The purpose of a breakout box is to...
|
Monitor and provide access to multiple conductors
|
|
The purpose of the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box is to...
|
Cross-patch individual interface conductors
|
|
At a receiving station
|
what can be the result of excessive timing jitter?
|
|
During the total peak-to-peak jitter test
|
the picture displayed on the oscilloscope screen is the...
|
|
Before starting the timing jitter test
|
you must determine whether the circuit you are testing is...
|
|
When you conduct the timing jitter test with an oscilloscope connected to a circuit carrying a signal
|
what triggers the sweep?
|
|
Besides amount of errors
|
what is another critical consideration in measuring bit error rate (BER)?
|
|
How many minutes should you conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a Z4
|
50 kbps circuit?
|
|
Which test determines whether the digital radio and multiplexer are operating in an optimum condition?
|
Average Bit Error Rate (BER) versus Receive Signal Level (RSL)
|
|
Which statement best describes the average Bit Error Rate (BER) for a digital radio?
|
It is related to the median received Radio-Frequency (RF) signal Receive Signal Level (RSL)
|
|
When determining the relationship of bit error rate (BER) versus receive signal level (RSL) for a digital radio
|
the attenuator may cause...
|
|
A stress pattern is a...
|
Predetermined sequence of logical ones and zeros used for testing and fault isolation
|
|
Which stress pattern test for T-1 circuits causes the pulse generator of the transmission equipment to consume the maximum amount of power?
|
All Ones
|
|
Which stress pattern test for T-1 circuits tests the ability of the transmission equipment to send bit sequences containing both minimum ones density and a maximum density of 15 consecutive zeros?
|
3-in-24
|
|
Stress patterns are used mainly to identify malfunctioning T-1 transmission equipment and...
|
Misoptioned network equipment
|
|
For circuits that use binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding
|
which stress pattern test for T-1 circuits is useful for stressing the minimum ones density?
|
|
In most cases
|
the signal level for commercial data circuits is between...
|
|
Which digital test is categorized as either controlled or uncontrolled?
|
Timing slips
|
|
During a 45 minute Bit Error Rate Test (BERT)
|
the number of frame errors for a T-1 superframe circuit should be less than...
|
|
When T-1 equipment receives no input signal
|
what is transmitted to keep the repeaters operating and to maintain timing?
|
|
Of the four main causes of T-1 impairments
|
crosstalk is an example of...
|
|
Which T-1 impairment is sometimes the hardest to isolate?
|
An Environmental Factor
|
|
On T-1 circuits
|
dribbling errors are often caused by...
|
|
What can result from an impedance mismatch?
|
Excessive loss of signal power
|
|
Which alarms are used to monitor power and building conditions in the systems control element?
|
Station
|
|
Which condition activates a radio alarm at your station?
|
Low-transmitter output
|
|
The main function of fault alarm and status reporting is to assist you...
|
In isolating a failure to a specific location
|
|
A function of the transmission control (TRAMCON) system is...
|
monitoring the health of terrestrial digital transmission media and facilities
|
|
Where is the master terminal of a transmission control (TRAMCON) system located?
|
FCO
|
|
In any given system configuration employing two or more transmission control terminals
|
how many terminals have full monitoring and control capability?
|
|
The capabilities of a transmission control (TRAMCON) system are a key factor in...
|
Removing maintenance support at Defense Information Infrastructure (DII) sites
|
|
Which do you NOT rely on as a fault isolation aid?
|
Customer Complaints
|
|
Diagrams that are useful in circuit-rerouting and fault-isolation because they show transmission facilities
|
routing
|
|
Records that are maintained by telephone systems personnel and are useful for fault isolation describe what type of fault isolation aid?
|
Plant cabling cross reference files
|
|
What is the first thing you do when you find that a single channel of a T-1 is unusable or deteriorated?
|
Coordinate to transfer service to a spare channel or preempt a lower priority user
|
|
Where does the transmit output signal of the modem to the distant end station first appear on the patch bay?
|
The send equipment jack of the audio patch bay
|
|
Where does the output signal of the modem to the router first appear on the patch bay?
|
The equipment module of the digital patch bay
|
|
Which career field installs and maintains fixed and transportable low-frequency and high-frequency transmitters
|
receivers
|
|
What device is a combination transmitter/receiver in a single package?
|
A Transceiver
|
|
What device operates at the physical layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model and is used in Ethernet networks to connect which device to a fiber or copper cable?
|
Transceiver
|
|
What device provides the physical
|
electrical
|
|
What layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model do network interface cards (NIC) belong?
|
Physical and Data Link layer
|
|
The device that receives a digital signal and regenerates the signal along the next leg of the medium is a...
|
Repeater
|
|
A repeater with more than one output port is a...
|
Hub
|
|
What can be used to extend the size of a network?
|
Active Hubs
|
|
What is a device that subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces
|
or sements?
|
|
What is the time a switch takes to figure out where to forward a data unit called?
|
Latency
|
|
What network device is a combination of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks?
|
Gateway
|
|
What type of gateway can restrict the kind of access local area network (LAN) users have to the internet
|
and vice versa?
|
|
What type of gateway might include remote access servers that allow dial-up connectivity to a Local Area Network (LAN)?
|
A LAN Gateway
|
|
What is a router's strength?
|
It's Intelligence
|
|
What is the oldest routing protocol?
|
Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
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What is the routing protocol of internet backbones?
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Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
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Based on a specific input address
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which Local Area Network (LAN) switch has the lowest delay and should be considered for supporting real-time applications?
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What synchronous optical network (SONET) device aggregates or splits SONET traffic at various speeds so as to provide access to SONET without demultiplexing the SONET signal stream?
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Add/drop multiplexer (ADM)
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What Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) devices are configured to split SONET traffic and copy individual channels on two or more output links?
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Drop-and-repeat node (D+R)
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When tributary units are grouped together they form...
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A Tributary Unit Group (TUG)
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An OC-12's electrical signal is the same as a Synchronous Transport Signal level-12 (STS-12) frame and equal to what Synchronous Transport Modules (STM) frame?
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STM-4
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Because of its cost
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Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) is rarely used on small local area networks (LAN). What technology is better suited for LANs?
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What topology defines the layout of network's devices and media?
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Physical
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What topology consists of devices connected to a common
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shared cable?
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What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
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Star
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What topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?
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Ring
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What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?
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Hybrid
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What is NOT an advantage of a logical bus topology?
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There are no collisions
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What is an advantage of a logical ring topology?
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There are no collisions
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What data communication protocol uses characters and symbols (character code set) to govern the flow and format of information between systems?
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Character-Oriented
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What data communication protocol uses character control or 'handshaking' to link and represent information?
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Binary Synchronous Protocol
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What data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?
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Bit-Oriented
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What data communication protocol ensures that the receiving station can distinguish information from garbage?
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High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)
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Which network protocol has DOD chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?
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Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
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Which TCP/IP Network layer protocol provides information about how and where data should be delivered
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including the data's source and destination addresses?
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Which TCP/IP Network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
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Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
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Which TCP/IP Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?
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Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
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Which TCP/IP Application layer protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP/IP?
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File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
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Which protocol is a simpler way to transfer files between computers but is simpler or more trivial than FTP?
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Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
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Which TCP/IP Application layer protocol is a terminal emulation protocol used to log on to remote hosts?
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Telnet
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Which TCP/IP Application layer protocol is an automated means of assigning a unique IP address to every device on a network?
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Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
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Which TCP/IP Application layer protocol is a simple protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?
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Network Time Protocol (NTP)
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Which TCP/IP Application layer protocol is a utility that can verify that TCP/IP is installed and communicating with the network?
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Packet Internet Groper (PING)
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What is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic?
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Local Area Network (LAN)
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The interconnection of several networks of computer resources in a city into a single larger network is a...
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Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
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What type of network enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public internet?
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Virtual Private Network (VPN)
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What network model enables users to share resources
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files
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What network model is a centralized model for data storage
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security
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What is the physical address of any device on the network?
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Media Access Control (MAC) address
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What address is a 32-bit number?
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Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)
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What address uses a 128 bit addressing scheme?
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Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6)
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How many subnet bits are required to support 85 subnets on a Class B network?
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7
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What is Not a recommendation for planning networks using variable length subnet masking (VLSM)?
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Re-address the entire network
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What cable impairments can be detected by a time-domain reflectometer (TDR)?
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Kinks
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What type of cable property changes can be detected by a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) to identify problems?
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Impedance
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How is the Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) used to measure signal loss?
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It should Not be used
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When using the cable scanner wire-map feature
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what action is required to prevent false readings?
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How does a cable scanner identify crossover and straight-through cables?
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It provides wiring maps at both ends of the cable
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What test equipment provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?
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A Protocol Analyzer
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What component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?
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Filter
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What component of a protocol analyzer stores all frames based on the user configuration inputs?
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Buffer
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What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS)
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short frames
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What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
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Connection Statistics
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What is the first LAN impairment error that occurs when bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame?
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Alignment
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What LAN impairment error occurs when network nodes in the same domain transmit at the same time?
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Collision
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What LAN impairment error occurs when an internet protocol (IP) data unit larger than 65
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535 bytes is received?
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What LAN impairment error occurs when an internet protocol (IP) data unit smaller than 28 bytes is received?
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Undersize Packet
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What LAN impairment error occurs when frames that are larger than the maximum size the network protocol requires are received?
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Giant
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What is a good indication of how well any two nodes can access the transmission media and transmit and receive data along the link or path in a reliable manner?
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Round-trip delay
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Jabbers manifest themselves on a LAN as...
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Collisions
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When using the trace route utility
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round-trip delay is displayed in...
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Which network management function provides the capability to initialize
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operate
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Which network management function obtains the utilization and error rates of network devices and provides statistical data about the network?
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Performance Management
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Which network management element is a type of node connected to the network such as a switch
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router
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What protocol allows products from different vendors to be managed by a single network management application?
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Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
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What is the purpose of the community name that is used with network management systems (NMS)?
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Authenticate Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) requests
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When the network management software is first installed
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what type of alarm threshold value is loaded into the management information base?
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What led to the development of Very High Frequency (VHF) and Ultra High Frequency (UHF) radio systems during World War II?
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The need for more reliable high-capacity communications
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The two primary types of radio waves are...
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Ground and Sky
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What condition causes the downward bending of a radio wave as it grazes the top of an obstruction such as a mountain peak?
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Diffraction
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During periods of maximum sunspot activity
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what is the density level and altitude effect of the F layer?
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What type of frequency is the highest frequency that returns to earth when it is transmitted vertically under given ionospheric conditions?
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Critical Frequency
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A satellite system that requires numerous satellites in randomly spaced orbits to provide acceptable coverage is...
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A passive system
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What is a major disadvantage of a geostationary satellite?
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The two-way propagation delay is about 0.6 seconds
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Above what frequency does the propagation loss because of oxygen and water absorption become very serious in satellite communications?
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10 Ghz
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The reduction in amplitude of a radio signal as it travels away from the source through a propagation medium that's free of obstructing
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scattering
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The doppler effect
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inherent to staellite communications
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Which satellite communications subsystem consists of a satellite antenna array and a transponder?
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Space
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What satellite device receives
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amplifies
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At a minimum
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a typical link involves...
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Maintaining optimum performance of a satellites transponder is a function of...
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Satellite control
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What type of multiple-access service used in satellite communications provides each earth terminal exclusive use of the satellite transponder for a specified time interval?
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Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)
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Two system control problems with Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA) are in the area of network timing and...
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Synchronization
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What satellite access system lets several users occupy the same frequency spectrum in the transponder simultaneously?
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Spread Spectrum Multiple Access (SSMA)
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Which organization is responsible for the design
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acquisition
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How is survivability provided in the Defense Switched Network (DSN)?
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End offices and multiple-homed
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How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switched Network (DSN)?
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The DSN offers precedence access thresholding (PAT)
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What type of DSN precedence call Cannot be preempted?
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Flash Override
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What type of precedence is assigned to (DSN) calls pertaining to situations that gravely affect the security of national and allied forces?
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Intermediate
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Which encryption device makes end-to-end encryption available to any user of the DSN?
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Secure Telephone Unit-III (STU-III)
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What is the primary difference in the DSN subsystems?
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Internal call processing features and functions
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Why should high-priority users not be terminated on a remote switching unit (RSU)?
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RSU can become isolated from the parent switch
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An end office is part of what subsystem of DSN?
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Switching
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Which DSN switch functions primarily as a tandem switch?
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Stand-alone
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What type of DSN switch provides services to a Private Branch Exchange (PBX)?
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End Office (EO) and multifunction only
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What type of connection provides the transmission links between two DSN switches?
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Interswitch trunks only
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Which type of connection is a single or multichannel connection that allows user equipment to gain access to the DSN?
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Access lines only
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Which organization provides theater-wide administration and network management in the DSN?
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Regional Network Operations and Security Control Center (RNOSC)
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In a digital multiplex switching system
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what appears between the peripheral module and the network in addition to the 30 channels of encoded speech?
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Which digital multiplex switch module encodes and multiplexes incoming speech from a maximum of 30 analog trunks into 8-bit PCM format?
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Trunk module
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Which digital multiplex switch module is used for direct interfacing with the T-1 office repeater?
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Digital carrier
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Which digital multiplex switch module consists of a duplicated central message controller?
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Central Control (CC)
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When a subscriber lifts the handset to make a dial pulse intra-office call
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what process occurs in the DSN switch?
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When a called DSN subscriber answers
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what action is taken by the switch's central control module?
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The Red Switch program provides which subscriber(s) a Red telephone?
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Command and Control (C2) only
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What is the major type(s) of terminal used in the Defense Red Switched Network?
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STU-III and STE
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What type of device is used to provide the cryptographic engine for the secure terminal equipment (STE) terminal?
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FORTEZZA card
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Which encryption device will support asynchronous secure voice modes up to 38.4 Kbps and high-speed secure data transfer up to 128 Kbps when connected to the 2B+D Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?
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Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)
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What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?
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19.2 Kbps
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What type of capability is provided by DRSN to define the needs
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capabilities
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Which piece of equipment is used to provide secure connectivity to the Red Switch via an attendant and local-site radio facilities?
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Interface and control unit
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What interface provides the red switch 24-channel digital interswitch trunk group service at 1.544 Mbps?
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Digital trunk group circuits
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The piece of equipment that allows a secure digital switch to interface with cryptographic equipment and passes supervisory and address signaling in setting up a secure call is the...
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Interface ancillary device
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The Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Network (NIPRNET) is...
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partially protected by encryption devices
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What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
|
Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode (DATM) network
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Which is an Internet Protocol (IP) encryption device that can be directly connected to Red Local Area Networks (LANs)?
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Network Encryption System (NES)
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|
In addition to fiber-optic and copper cables
|
what type of system is used to interconnect integrated communications access package access nodes on a deployed base within the same theater area?
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|
What is the design architecture of Theatre Deployable Communications (TDC)?
|
Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) and hub spoke
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What type of connectivity does theater deployable communications (TDC) provide to the voice backbone?
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1.544 Mbps ISDN PRI connectivity
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What equipment is included in the customer access node to provide the intra-site connectivity?
|
Voice switch and promina multiplexer
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What is the major component(s) of the theater deployable communications (TDC) system that provides mobile units with flexible
|
lightweight
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What is the long-haul transmission component of theater deployable communications (TDC)?
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Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST)
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What Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP) module contains circuit switches that implement Private Branch Exchange (PBX)?
|
Basic access module (BAM)
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What Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP) module provides secure conferencing capability?
|
Secure voice module and STU-III
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What's the difference between the Basic Access Module (BAM) and the Configurable Access Module (CAM)?
|
The BAM has a fixed capability
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|
What Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP) node module provides the radio frequency (RF) Line-Of-Sight (LOS) link function for internodal connectivity?
|
Microwave
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What is the maximum number of personnel a medium size integrated communications access package (ICAP) node can support?
|
150-200
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|
What support does the multichannel standard tactical entry point provide to deploying forces?
|
Communications capability to connect to the DISN (Defense Information Systems Network)
|
|
Upon arrival in a theater
|
what frequency band does the Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST) use for initial communications connectivity to the defense satellite communications system?
|
|
What type of equipment is included in Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) sustaining packages and is deployed to the area of operations to form a large network?
|
The same versions of modules in the TDC initial communications support packages
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|
What Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST) capability reduces the limitations of the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS)?
|
C- and Ku-Band access
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|
What deployed system is used to provide secure/nonsecure routers and data packet capability?
|
TASDAC and TDC
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|
What Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) system provides Defense Message System (DMS) message handling services?
|
Stand-alone message processing system
|
|
What must customers do to connect their own telephones and computer workstations to the Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) backbone network?
|
Adhere to various open system standards and interfaces such as Ethernet
|
|
Who must make the first entry and sign the DD Form 1753?
|
The shift supervisor
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|
The circuit data record serves...
|
Primarily to assist the systems control facility in troubleshooting and circuit restoration
|
|
How long do you retain a circuit data record (DD Form 1441) after a circuit is deactivated?
|
6 Months
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|
Use the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) as a primary source document when you fill out...
|
DD Form 1441
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What form is used as the primary source of information when preparing defense information infrastructure status reports?
|
DD Form 1443
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|
You receive a Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) at your systems control to move a circuit to another channel. What DD Form must you fill out and put in the circuit history folder along with the TSO?
|
DD Form 1697
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Which test results do you record on the reverse/backside of the DD Form 1697-Analog?
|
Frequency response and envelope delay
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|
Envelope delay measurements are referenced to...
|
The fastest frequency
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|
How long must an exception report be maintained in the ciruit history folder at an intermediate facility?
|
Until the condition causing the report to be rendered is cleared
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|
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular (DISAC) governs defense information infrastructure status reporting?
|
DISAC 310-55-1
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|
What type of report has historical information that is used for computer-assisted analysis of the performance of the defense information infrasturcture?
|
Formatted
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Who does Not have the authority to designate special interest items?
|
Site Commanders
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Which of these conditions is considered a hazardous condition and requires reporting IAW Defense Information Systems Agency Circular (DISAC) 310-55-1?
|
Loss of diversity on a radio link
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What process obtains information for use in the preparation of communications services requirements documents using a record drawing
|
available data
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|
Who serves as systems engineering technical advisors for the MAJCOMs and wing commanders?
|
Systems telecommunications engineering manager
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|
Who is authorized to submit a request for service to a Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)?
|
Telecommunications certification officer
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|
What document is submitted to the national communications service for Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP) assignment?
|
Telecommunications Service Request (TSR)
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The first position of a Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) number represents the...
|
Issuing office
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|
What document identifies the leased service
|
the commercial carrier
|
|
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular (DISAC) provides guidance for circuit Quality Control (QC) parameters?
|
DISAC 300-175-9
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|
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the TSO must the Circuit Control Office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?
|
72
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What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the TSO issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
|
Exception
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Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary Command Communications Service Designator (CCSD)?
|
DISAC 310-70-1 and DISAC 310-55-1
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|
Within how many working days after a major change (e.g. activation/deactivation of a link) occurs do you have to report facility/link data to a DISA?
|
5
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|
Within how many working days after a routine change (e.g. room numbers) occurs do you have to report facility/link data to the DISA?
|
15
|
|
What Table Of Allowance (TA) prescribes items and quantities of equipment authorized to perform the assigned systems control peacetime and wartime missions?
|
417
|
|
What type of document identifies test equipment that has not been updated and has exceeded its calibration date
|
is currently in maintenance
|
|
What plan do commanders in cheif in the overseas theaters to assign certain priority circuit requirements during stressed conditions use?
|
Minimum Essential Circuit List (MECL)
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|
When DISA restoral plans (R-plan) are not sufficient or available
|
what plan is developed to provide continuous service to high priority users curing link and system failures?
|
|
When you must restore user service by rerouting
|
what is the second type of circuit you preempt?
|
|
Who has the authority to approve funding for the leasing of additional circuits during an authorized outage?
|
O+M Agency
|
|
The Defense Information Infrastructure Operations Control Complex (DOCC) element does Not require user release on circuits with Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP) of 3 and lower if the duration of scheduled service interruption is less than...
|
1 day
|
|
No less than how many days notification does the DISA provide the facility that is to receive a performance evaluation?
|
14
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