Bms 508 Exam 2

What feature distinguishes this type of capillary from a continuous capillary?

• fenestrations
  
• thin walls
  
• basement membrane
  
• tight junctions
  

The muscular layer in the wall of a blood vessel is the tunica

• media
• interna
• externa
• adventitia
• intima

Compared to arteries, veins

• hold their shape better when cut.
• have a pleated endothelium.
• have more smooth muscle in their tunica media.
• are more elastic.
• have thinner walls.
  

Capillaries that have a complete lining are called

• sinusoids.
• vasa vasorum.
• sinusoidal capillaries.
• fenestrated capillaries.
• continuous capillaries.
  

Venous valves are responsible for

• preventing blood from re-entering a ventricle.
• channeling blood toward the heart.
• regulating blood pressure in veins.
• channeling blood away from the heart.
• preventing anterograde flow.
  

Factors that increase the risk of atherosclerosis include which of the following?

• smoking
• obesity
• lack of exercise
• high cholesterol
• All of the answers are correct.
  

These vessels may be continuous or fenestrated.

• arterioles
• arteries
• venules
• capillaries
• veins

Exchange between a blood vessel and the cells that surround it can occur only in

• arterioles
• arteries
• capillaries
• veins
• venules

Blood flow through a capillary is controlled by the

• venule
• thoroughfare channel
• vasa vasorum
• precapillary sphincter
• plexus

What vessels hold the largest percentage of the blood supply?

• arterioles
• veins
• venules
• capillaries
• arteries

The only vessels whose walls are thin enough to exchange materials with the surrounding cells are __________.

• veins
• arteries
• arterioles
• capillaries

Arteries have a structure in their middle and internal vessel walls that veins lack, called a/an __________.

• adventitia
• elastic membrane
• endothelium
• smooth muscle

Atherosclerosis is characterized by the buildup of arterial plaque. When plaque first begins to form, on which part of the blood vessel do the monocytes bind after taking in cholesterol-rich lipoproteins?

• the tunica externa
• the endothelial lining
• the internal elastic membrane
• the tunica media

Which part of the blood vessel wall is dominated by smooth muscle?

• the tunica intima
• the tunica media
• the tunica externa
• the endothelium

Vascular resistance is the friction force that opposes blood flow in a blood vessel. What two factors are the most important in generating friction between blood and the walls of a vessel?

• blood pressure and volume
• blood flow velocity and turbulence
• blood vessel diameter and length
• blood viscosity and turbulence
  

Atherosclerosis has been associated with high blood pressure. What is it called when a person has a blood pressure of 158/99?

• pre-hypertension
• stage 1 hypertension
• hypotension
• normal
  

What is the relationship between high blood pressure and edema?

• High blood pressure leads to decreased CHP and thus filtration exceeds reabsorption.
• High blood pressure causes a decrease in BCOP and thus reabsorption declines.
• High blood pressure leads to increased CHP and thus filtration exceeds reabsorption.
• all of the above
  

Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following except the

• length of a blood vessel.
• osmolarity of interstitial fluids.
• blood vessel diameter.
• turbulence.
• blood viscosity.
  

Blood pressure is determined by

• listening carefully to the pulse.
• estimating the degree of turbulence in a partly closed vessel.
• measuring the size of the pulse.
• estimating the pressure needed to close off an artery with an external pressure cuff.
• measuring the force of contraction of the left ventricle.
  

Blood pressure increases with all of the following except increased

• peripheral resistance
• parasympathetic innervation
• force of cardiac contraction
• cardiac output
• blood volume

The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the

• vein.
• venule.
• capillary.
• arteriole.
• artery.
  

The vascular pressure that declines from roughly 35 mm Hg to about 18 mm Hg is the

• pulse pressure.
• venous pressure.
• peripheral pressure.
• diastolic pressure.
• capillary hydrostatic pressure.
  

Averaged over a few heartbeats, venous return is ________ cardiac output.

• much higher than
• somewhat higher than
• equal to
• somewhat lower than
• much lower than
  

Blood pressure is lowest in the

• capillaries
• veins
• venules
• arterioles
• arteries

Each of the following factors would increase cardiac output except

• stimulation of the heart by epinephrine.
• increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart.
• decreased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart.
• increased venous return.
• increased blood concentration of glucose.
  

Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except

• vasodilation
• elevated hematocrit
• irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques
• elevated levels of epinephrine
• increased sympathetic stimulation

The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the

• concentration of plasma proteins.
• number of red blood cells.
• concentration of plasma waste products.
• concentration of plasma glucose.
• concentration of plasma sodium ions.
  

Each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure except

• increased levels of angiotensin II.
• increased blood volume.
• increased levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone).
• increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide).
• increased levels of aldosterone.
  

Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure except

• release of renin.
• decreased levels of aldosterone.
• decrease in blood volume.
• decreased peripheral resistance.
• increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide).
  

When renin is released from the kidney,

• angiotensin I increases salt reabsorption at the kidneys.
• blood flow to the kidneys decreases.
• angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II.
• blood pressure goes down.
• angiotensinogen is converted into angiotensin I.
  

Which of the following is normally the greatest source acting against blood flow?

• vascular resistance
• viscosity of blood
• venous pressure
• turbulence
• vessel length
  

If the capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated, what consequences will this have on the surrounding tissues?

• Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure will facilitate greater exchange with the surrounding tissues, reducing buildup of the interstitial fluid in the tissues by pulling it into the capillaries.
• Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure will cause a corresponding increase in pressure in the venular end of the capillary bed, causing plasma backflow into the tissues.
• Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure will cause excess interstitial fluid accumulation in the surrounding tissues.
• Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure will cause increased blood pressure, which could cause damage to the capillaries, allowing blood seepage into the surrounding tissues.
  

The peak blood pressure measured during ventricular systole is called __________.

• mean arterial pressure
• systolic pressure
• pulse pressure
• diastolic pressure
  

Stenosis is a permanent narrowing of an artery, as with arteriosclerosis. Which of the following could occur with stenosis of a renal artery?

• Renin secretion will increase.
• Epinephrine secretion will increase.
• Anemia will occur.
• Urine output will increase.
  

Elevated levels of the natriuretic peptide hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased

• blood volume.
• salt and water loss through the kidneys.
• blood pressure.
• venous return and preload.
• sodium ion levels in blood.
  

Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in decreased

• parasympathetic stimulation of the heart.
• sympathetic stimulation of the heart.
• heart rate.
• blood flow to the lungs.
• cardiac output.
  

When muscle cells contract, they release substances that cause nearby precapillary sphincters to relax. This is an example of __________.

• autoregulation
• endocrine regulation
• positive feedback regulation
• neural regulation
  

Where are the sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex located?

• cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata
• carotid sinus and aortic arch
• The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
  

If blood pressure is increased at the arterial baroreceptors, what would happen with the activity level of the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) and sympathetic nervous system (SNS)?

• decreased PNS activity and increased SNS activity
• increased PNS activity and decreased SNS activity
• increased PNS and SNS activity
  

Which of the following would cause vasodilation of arterioles?

• decreased activity of the sympathetic nervous system
• increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system
• decreased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system
• increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system
  

Stimulation of the adrenal medulla would result in which of the following?

• a decrease in blood pressure
• an increase in heart rate and contractility
• vasodilation of arteries
• a decrease in cardiac output
  

A decrease in blood pressure at the arterial baroreceptors would result in which of the following?

• vasodilation of arterioles
• a decrease in heart rate
• an increase in heart contractility
• a decrease in cardiac output
  

ADH and aldosterone secretion are part of the body's long-term compensation for

• a heavy meal.
• a heart attack.
• hypertension.
• prolonged exercise.
• a serious hemorrhage.
  

Hemorrhage triggers all of these responses EXCEPT __________.

• release of the venous reserve
• an increase in heart rate
• an increase in erythropoiesis
• an increase in urine production
  

In the case of hemorrhage, the body mobilizes all these defenses EXCEPT __________.

• increased peripheral resistance
• increased thirst
• decreased ADH secretion
• increased heart rate
  

Which of the following changes take place when you begin to exercise?

• extensive vasodilation
• increase in venous return
• a rise in sympathetic activity
• All of the above changes take place as you begin to exercise.
  

Lymphocytes provide an adaptive or specific defense known as the

• phagocytic response
• immune response
• adaptive defense
• lymphocytic response
• inflammation of tissues
  

Which cell type is essential to the immune response?

• keratinocytes
• fibrocytes
• hepatocytes
• lymphocytes

What is the role of helper T cells in the adaptive immune response?

• Helper T cells activate B cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes to kill infected host cells.
• Helper T cells produce and secrete antibodies.
• Helper T cells phagocytize bacteria and viruses.
• Helper T cells directly kill infected host cells.

What is meant by the clonal expansion of a B cell?

• An activated B cell will engulf and digest anything foreign.
• An activated B cell will immediately begin to produce antibodies.
• An activated B cell will kill infected host cells.
• An activated B cell divides into cells that give rise to memory B cells and plasma cells.
  

The student who caught the cold caused by this specific Rhinovirus was exposed to the exact same Rhinovirus 18 months later. What component of the immune system will protect her from getting the same cold again?

• Antibodies that are “left over” from the last infection
• Memory B cells
• Dendritic cells
• Plasma cells
  

Which of the following is NOT a step used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected host cells?

• Recognition of infected host cell using its TCR
• Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein
• Secretion of perforin
• Secretion of granzyme
  

Which pair of molecules do NOT directly interact with one another?

• CD4 and MHC-II
• BCR and epitope
• BCR and TCR
• CD8 and MHC-I
  

Which of the following is NOT a step that ultimately leads to antibody production?

• Activation of helper T cells by dendritic cells
• Immature B cells conducting surveillance for foreign epitopes
• Differentiation of plasma cells
• Activation of cytotoxic T cells by helper T cells
  

A person who has AIDS contracts rare and often life-threatening infections because their helper T cell count is so low. Which of the following components of the immune response still respond to antigen despite the low helper T cell count?

• Activation of cytotoxic T cells
• Apoptosis of infected host cells
• Clonal selection of B cells
• Clonal expansion and antibody production
  

Which of the following statements is true?

• Memory B cells are typically established when the B cell binds to an antigen.
• Adaptive defenses include humoral immunity only.
• Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity.
• Innate defenses are enough to keep a person healthly.
  

Which of the following is true of both lymphatic capillaries and blood capillaries?

• Both types have a diameter of approximately 8 micrometers.
• Both types allow the free entry of viruses and proteins.
• Both types form continuous tubes.
• Both types are composed of endothelium.
  

Lymphatic vessels provide a conduit for metastasizing cancer cells. Ideally, such cells are removed and destroyed by what structure, which thus prevents the spread of cancer?

• tonsils
• spleen
• lymph nodes
• All of the listed choices are correct

The primary function of the lymphatic system is:

• the production and distribution of plasma proteins.
• defending the body against both external and internal threats.
• the production and maturation of leukocytes.
• circulation of nutrients and dissolved gases.
• the transport of hormones.
  

The lymphatic system does all of the following except

• eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial fluid.
• transports lipids from the digestive tract.
• transports gases to and away from lymph nodes.
• helps maintain normal blood volume.
• fights infection.
  

The lymphatic system is composed of all of the following except

• the venae cavae.
• lymph.
• the spleen.
• lymph nodes.
• lymphatic vessels.
  

All of the following are true of the thymus gland except that it:

• produces T cells.
• activates B cells.
• reaches its greatest relative size during the second year of life.
• lies in the anterior mediastinum.
• involutes after puberty.
  

Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the:

• thoracic duct.
• cisterna chyli.
• dural sinus.
• right lymphatic duct.
• hepatic portal vein.
  

The thoracic duct drains lymph from all of the following regions except the:

• right knee.
• pelvic viscera.
• right breast.
• right knee and the right breast.
• left arm and shoulder.
  

The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the ________ cells.:

• plasma
• helper T
• cytotoxic T
• B
• suppressor T
  

The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the ________ cells.

• cytotoxic T
• NK
• B
• suppressor T
• helper T

Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells:

• cytotoxic T
• helper T
• B
• plasma
• suppressor T
  

Lymphocytes

• destroy red blood cells
• are actively phagocytic
• are primarily found in red bone marrow
• respond to antigens
• decrease in number during infection

________ are large lymphatic nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx:

• Spleens
• Lymph nodes
• Immune complexes
• Peyer's patches
• Tonsils
  

________ are clusters of lymphatic nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine.:

• Peyer's patches
• Tonsils
• Adenoids
• Immune complexes
• Lymph glands
  

The term lymphadenopathy refers to:

• increased numbers of circulating lymphocytes.
• accumulations of lymph in the tissue space.
• a congenital lack or malformation of lymph nodes.
• a chronic or excessive enlargement of lymph nodes.
• the lack of lymphocytes in peripheral circulation.
  

Stem cells that will form B cells or NK cells are found only in the:

• liver.
  
• thymus.
  
• spleen.
  
• red bone marrow.
  
• kidneys.
  

Which class of cells is particularly abundant in the red pulp of the spleen?:

• T lymphocytes.
• neutrophils.
• Natural Killer cells.
• free and fixed macrophages.
• B lymphocytes.
  

Lymphatic organs differ from lymphatic tissues in what way?:

• They occur throughout the body except in the head.
• They contain T lymphocytes and lymphatic tissues do not.
• They are found in the digestive tract and lymphatic tissues are found in the thorax.
• They cannot produce antibodies, whereas lymphatic tissues can.
• They are surrounded by a fibrous capsule and lymphatic tissues are not.
  

The white pulp of the spleen is populated by

• arteries
• lymphocytes
• veins
• trabeculae
• fibrous connective tissue

T Lymphocytes are produced and stored in all of the following except:

• lymphatic nodules.
• the spleen.
• the thymus.
• the brain.
• lymph node organs.
  

T is to ________ as B is to ________.:

• trabeculae-descended; bursa-origin
• thymus-dependent; bone marrow-derived
• thyroid-drawn; bowel-developed
• non-thymus-dependent; bottom-located
• top-located; bottom-located
  

Lymphocyte production and maturation involves:

• bone marrow.
• stem cells.
• peripheral lymphatic tissues.
• thymus tissue.
• All of the answers are correct.
  

Lymph nodes range in diameter from:

• 1 nm to 10 nm.
• 1 inch to 2 inches.
• 1 cm to 1 inch.
• 1 mm to 25 mm.
• 1 cm to 25 cm.
  

Stem cells that can form all types of lymphocytes are concentrated in the:

• circulation.
• yellow marrow.
• red bone marrow.
• thymus.
• spleen.
  

Lymphatic tissue is found in the greatest quantity in:

• the adult thymus.
• the adult spleen.
• Peyer's patches.
• bone marrow.
• the tonsils.
  

If the thymus shrank and stopped making thymosins, we would expect to see an immediate decrease in the number of:

• NK cells.
• neutrophils.
• T cells.
• red blood cells.
• B lymphocytes.
  

An infection and inflammation of the aggregated lymphatic nodules in the pharynx is called:

• indigestion.
• laryngitis.
• lymph edema.
• lymphosis.
• tonsillitis.
  

Which of these is NOT a lymphoid organ?

• liver
• spleen
• thymus
• lymph node

Which of the following are primary lymphoid organs?

• bone marrow and thymus
• appendix and spleen
• spleen and thymus
• lymph nodes and tonsils

Which of the following areas in a secondary lymphoid organ allows intimate contact between blood and the lymphocytes?

• white pulp of the spleen
• Hassall’s corpuscles of the thymus
• germinal centers of the lymph nodes
• red pulp of the spleen
  

Where in the lymph node do the T cells first encounter antigens presented by dendritic cells?

• lymphoid follicles of the outer cortex
• medullary cords in the medulla
• deep in the cortex
• germinal centers of the cortex
  

Collections of lymphoid tissues, called MALT, are strategically placed throughout the respiratory, digestive, and genitourinary systems. Which one of these is located at the end of the small intestine?

• Peyer’s patches
• appendix
• tonsils
  

There is a decrease in our ability to fight infection as we age. Which lymphoid organ may have a role in this decline?

• spleen
• thymus
• lymph nodes

Innate defenses include

• physical barriers
• phagocytic cells
• inflammation
• interferons
• All of the answers are correct

Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include:

• epithelia.
• epidermal layers.
• mucus.
• sebaceous glands
• All of the answers are correct.
  

The body's innate defenses include all of the following except:

• the skin.
• interferon.
• antibodies.
• inflammation.
• complement.

Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection except:

• epithelium.
• complement.
• secretions.
• basement membranes.
• body hair.
  

An inflammatory response is triggered when:

• blood flow to an area increases.
• T cells release interferon.
• neutrophils phagocytize bacteria.
• mast cells release histamine and heparin.
• red blood cells release pyrogens.
  

The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would:

• cause inflammation.
• produce a fever.
• activate complement.
• opsonize pathogens.
• activate antibodies.
  

Microphages include:

• monocytes.
• neutrophils.
• Kupffer cells.
• eosinophils.
• both neutrophils and eosinophils.
  

Various types of macrophages are derived from:

• basophils.
• eosinophils.
• lymphocytes.
• monocytes.
• neutrophils.
  

Plasma contains ________ special proteins that form the complement system.:

• roughly 18
• about 3
• exactly 10
• more than 30
• exactly 25
  

Inflammation produces localized:

• redness.
  
• swelling.
  
• pain.
  
• heat.
  
• All of the answers are correct.
  

Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation except:

• movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space.
• chemotaxis of phagocytes.
• redness of the inflamed tissue.
• heat of the inflamed tissue.
• swelling of the inflamed tissue.
  

Leslie has a severe sore throat and the lymph nodes in her neck are swollen. This would indicate that:

• the focus of the infection is the lymph nodes.
• the lymph nodes contain an increased number of lymphocytes.
• the lymph nodes are actively producing phagocytes.
• the lymph nodes have increased their secretion of thymosin.
• lymph is not flowing consistently through these lymph nodes.
  

The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to:

• an antibody attached to an antigen.
• the plasma membrane of bacteria.
• the cell wall of bacteria.
• a cell surface antigen.
• a plasma protein.
  

Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called ________ immunity.

• innate
• active
• auto
• natural passive
• passive

The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells.

• helper T
• suppressor T
• B
• plasma
• NK

The phagocytic antigen-presenting cells belong to the ________ group:

• interferon
• complement
• lymphatic
• monocyte-macrophage
• tumor-suppressing
  

Fixed macrophages that are found in the central nervous system are called:

• Kupffer cells.
• astrocytes.
• oligodendrocytes.
• ventricular macrophages.
• microglia.
  

Microglia are to the CNS as Kupffer cells are to the:

• spleen.
• pancreas.
• liver.
• thymus.
• lungs.
  

Which of these is NOT one of the nonspecific defenses?

• antibodies
• neutrophils
• interferons
• histamine
  

Activated macrophages release endogenous pyrogens that cause __________.:

• pain
• histamine release
• fever
• swelling
  

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells?

• NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.
• NK cells attack infected or cancerous cells.
• NK cells attack transplanted organs.
• NK cells induce the target cell to undergo “apoptosis” (cell suicide).
  

Which of the following innate internal defenses work by interfering with viral replication?

• phagocytes
• complement proteins
• T lymphocytes
• interferons
  

How do phagocytes recognize foreign cells or bacteria?

• Phagocytes recognize a specific antigen on the cell surface.
• All the foreign cells or bacteria are marked with opsonins that the phagocytes recognize.
• The phagocytes look for the absence of “self” proteins.
• The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells.
  

Which of the innate defense mechanisms can lyse bacteria and mark cells for phagocytosis?

• cytokines
• complement proteins
• natural killer (NK) cells
• interferons
  

Which of the following can act as opsonins on bacteria, thus enhancing phagocytosis?

• antibodies and complement proteins
• interferons
• T cells
• natural killer (NK) cells
  

Adaptive defenses depend on the activities of:

• erythrocytes.
• agranulocytes.
• monocytes.
• leukocytes.
• lymphocytes.
  

Characteristics of adaptive defenses include:

• specificity.
• memory.
• tolerance.
• versatility.
• All of the answers are correct.
  

Immunity that results from antibodies that pass through the placenta from mother to fetus is called ________ immunity:

• innate
• naturally acquired passive
• actively acquired
• passively acquired
• automatically acquired
  

In passive immunity, the:

• immune system attacks normal body cells.
• body receives antibodies produced by other humans or by an animal.
• body receives antibodies produced by an animal.
• body receives antibodies produced by other humans.
• body is deliberately exposed to an antigen.
  

All of the following are true of the primary response of humoral immunity except that:

• it is delayed by the memory cell stage.
• it depends on antigen triggering the appropriate B cell.
• it requires B cell differentiation into plasma cells.
• it peaks 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure.
• circulating antibodies undergo a gradual, sustained rise.
  

All of the following are true of the secondary response of humoral immunity except that it:

• produces more effective antibodies.
• weakens quickly because memory B cells only survive for a year or two.
• results in much quicker rise in antibody titers.
• results in much higher antibody titers than in the primary response.
• depends on memory B cells.
  

Interleukins do all of the following except:

• increase T-cell sensitivity to antigens exposed on macrophage membranes.
• stimulate B-cell activity, plasma cell formation, and antibody production
• stimulate inflammation.
• stimulate collagen synthesis.
• elevate body temperature.
  

Which of the following descriptions is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immunity?:

• memory
• versatility
• intolerance
• specificity
  

Suppressor T cells act to:

• produce antibodies involved in autoimmunity.
• inhibit T and B cell activities.
• erase memory T cells.
• suppress antigens.
• limit antigen proliferation.
  

Which of the following about MHC proteins is false?:

• function in antigen presentation
• are found on all nucleated cells
• allow the body to differentiate its own cells from foreign cells
• fall into two major classes
• bind complement
  

T cells and B cells can be activated only by:

• exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane.
• disease-causing agents.
• pathogens.
• cells infected with viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells.
• interleukins, interferons, and colony-stimulating factors.
  

Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only:

• when cytotoxic T cells are inhibited.
• during infections.
• when plasma cells are releasing antibodies.
• when NK cells are activated.
• in antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes.
  

CD8 markers are to ________ T cells as CD4 markers are to ________ T cells.:

• helper; suppressor
• suppressor; cytoxic
• plasma; NK
• NK; cytoxic
• cytoxic; helper
  

The term ________ refers to antibodies found in body fluids.:

• interferons
• cytosolic factors
• interleukins
• immunoglobulins
• plasma proteins
  

Antigen-presenting cells located in the epithelia of the skin are called:

• dendritic cells.
  
• Merkel cells.
  
• squamous macrophages.
  
• keratinocytes.
  
• germinative cells.
  

Which class of antibody forms a five-antibody starburst?

• IgA
• IgG
• IgM
• IgE
  

In order for a lymphocyte to respond to an antigen, the antigen must:

• bind to specific receptors on the lymphocyte surface.
  
• be phagocytized by the lymphocyte.
  
• bind to the DNA of the lymphocyte.
  
• depolarize the lymphocyte.
  
• enter the cytoplasm of the lymphocyte.
  

During a primary immune response, the:

• IgG titer is initially higher than the IgM titer.
• IgM titer and the IgG titer rise in parallel.
• IgM titer is initially higher than the IgG titer.
• only the IgM titer is affected.
  

A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA-type antibody. This fluid is probably:

• tears.
  
• lymph.
  
• interstitial.
  
• serum.
  
• blood.
  

A measure of antibody level in the plasma is:

• the antibody titer.
  
• body temperature.
  
• the secondary response.
  
• antigen concentration.
  
• the primary response.
  

Which class of immunoglobulins sensitizes cells to allergens?:

• IgE
  
• IgG
  
• IgA
  
• IgD
  

Newborns gain their immunity initially from:

• breast milk.
• contact with siblings.
• early immunizations during routine neo-natal check-ups.
• contact with viruses and bacteria.
• antibodies passed across the placenta from the mother.
  

Autoantibodies are:

• produced by activated T cells.
• produced during an allergic reaction.
• the first step in immunological competence.
• directed against the body's own antigens.
• important in tissue rejection reactions.
  

Inappropriate or excessive immune responses to antigens are:

• the result of stress.
• autoimmune diseases.
• signs of a weak immune system.
• allergies.
• immunodeficiency diseases.
  

Antigens that trigger allergic reactions are called:

• pyrogens.
• allergens.
• agglutinins.
• microbes.
• interferons.
  

Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system?

• adaptive defenses
• innate external defenses
• innate internal defenses
  

Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system?

• adaptive defenses
• innate external defenses
• innate internal defenses
  

What cells make antibodies?

• cytotoxic T cells
• memory T cells
• memory B cells
• plasma B cells

What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to?

• pathogen
• antigen
• antibody
• an antigenic determinant
  

What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient?

• cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
• humoral immunity
• antibody mediated immunity
  

If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated?

• antibody-mediated immunity
• humoral immunity
• cell-mediated immunity (cellular immunity)
  

Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells?

• macrophages
• B cells
• Cytotoxic T cells
  

The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of

• simple squamous epithelium.
• stratified squamous epithelium.
• pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
• moist cuboidal epithelium.
• ciliated squamous epithelium.
  

The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles all make up the

• respiratory mucosa.
• lower respiratory tract.
• alveoli of the respiratory tract.
• internal respiratory tract.
• upper respiratory tract.
  

Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the:

• lower respiratory tract.
• alveoli.
• upper respiratory tract.
• lungs.
• bronchioles.
  

Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the mouth because

• bacteria won't be inhaled from the oral cavity.
• it dries out the mouth.
• it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air
• there is less resistance to air flow.
• it combines olfaction with respiration.
  

Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from

• lack of neural control of respiration.
• laryngospasms.
• genetic mutation in cilia production.
• thick secretions that are difficult to transport.
• reduced mucus secretions in the trachea.
  

A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time, you would expect to observe

• increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.
• increased cardiac output from the right ventricle.
• no appreciable changes in heart structure or function.
• increased cardiac output from the left ventricle.
• distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung.
  

Which of these is NOT a function of the respiratory system?:

• transport RBCs (red blood cells) to the tissues
• protect against environmental hazards
• exchange gases with the atmosphere
• produce sounds for speaking and singing
  

The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and food is the

• esophageal pharynx
• aeropharynx
• internal pharynx
• nasopharynx
• oropharynx

The auditory tubes open into the:

• oropharynx.
• nasopharynx.
• larynx.
• nasal cavity.
• laryngopharynx.

The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the:

• pharynx.
• trachea.
• glottis.
• vestibule.
• larynx.
  

The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the:

• oropharynx.
• nasopharynx.
• nasal cavity.
• laryngopharynx.
• larynx.
  

The superior region of the pharynx is called the:

• superior nasal conchae.
• nasal cavity.
• nasopharynx.
• oropharynx.
• laryngopharynx.
  

The vocal folds are located within the:

• oropharynx.
• nasopharynx.
• trachea.
• larynx.
• bronchi.
  

The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the:

• corniculate cartilage.
• cuneiform cartilage.
• epiglottis.
• thyroid cartilage.
• cricoid cartilage.
  

The largest cartilage of the larynx is the ________ cartilage.:

• thyroid
  
• arytenoid
  
• cuneiform
  
• cricoid
  
• epiglottic
  

A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the ________ cartilage:

• vestibular
• corniculate
• epiglottic
• cuneiform
• thyroid
  

Air passing through the glottis vibrates the vocal folds and produces:

• speech.
  
• whistling.
  
• ululation.
  
• articulation.
  
• phonation.
  

Tension on the vocal cords is regulated by the:

• movement of the arytenoid cartilages.
• extrinsic and intrinsic ligaments.
• movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of laryngeal muscles.
• extrinsic ligaments.
• contraction of laryngeal muscles.
  

The flap-like structure that prevents food from entering the larynx is called the:

• soft palate.
• uvula.
• thyroid cartilage.
• cricoid cartilage.
• epiglottis.
  

The adult human trachea is about ________ in diameter and contains ________ tracheal cartilages.:

• 1.0 cm; 10-15
  
• 2.5 cm; 15-20
  
• 2.5 cm; 40-50
  
• 4.5 cm; 60-80
  
• 1.0 cm; 15-20
  

The C shape of the tracheal cartilages is important because:

• large masses of food can move through the esophagus.
• the bronchi are also C-shaped.
• it facilitates turning of the head.
• it permits the trachea to pinch shut prior to sneezing.
• large masses of air can pass through the trachea and thus the bronchi.
  

Very aggressive pathogens such as the bacterium responsible for tuberculosis can easily overwhelm the protective features of the respiratory system. Less aggressive pathogens may be stopped by all of the following EXCEPT __________.:

• air filtration in the nasal cavity
• olfactory epithelium
• mucus film lining much of the respiratory tract
• alveolar macrophages
  

Cystic fibrosis is an inherited respiratory disorder in which the mucus escalator no longer functions because of the presence of excessively dense and viscous mucus. Which of the following components of the respiratory system are affected by cystic fibrosis?:

• cilia
• lungs
• goblet cells
• All of the listed responses are correct.
  

The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are the:

• terminal bronchioles.
• bronchioles.
• spaces between the parietal and visceral pleura.
• respiratory membranes of the alveoli.
• interlobular septa.
  

The respiratory membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of:

• moist cuboidal epithelium.
• ciliated squamous epithelium.
• surfactant cells.
• pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
• simple squamous epithelium.
  

The number of lobes in the right lung is:

• equal to the number of lobes in the left lung.
• less than the number of lobes in the left lung.
• greater than the number of lobes in the left lung.
  

A pulmonary embolism can be caused by ________ becoming trapped in a pulmonary artery.:

• circulating objects in the blood
  
• masses of fat
  
• blood clots
  
• air bubbles
  
• All of the answers are correct.
  

Blockage of pulmonary blood flow by a clot or similar obstruction is:

• COPD.
• pulmonary embolism.
• anoxia.
• emphysema.
• pneumothorax.
  

Asthma is:

• due to an excessive stimulation of smooth muscle in bronchioles.
• an obstructive tumor targeting primarily the terminal bronchioles.
• caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
• a collapsed lung resulting from insufficient production of surfactant.
• characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli.
  

The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is:

• internal respiration.
  
• external respiration.
  
• breathing.
  
• pulmonary ventilation.
  
• cellular respiration.
  

Low partial pressure of oxygen in tissues is a condition called:

• asthma.
  
• lung cancer.
  
• emphysema.
  
• hypoxia.
  
• ischemia.
  

Internal respiration refers to exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and the:

• alveoli.
• tissues and interstitial fluid.
• respiratory bronchioles.
• alveoli and respiratory bronchioles.
• conducting portion of the respiratory system.
  

In a condition known as pneumothorax, the integrity of the pleural cavity is lost, which leads to a collapsed lung. What is one explanation for why this occurs?:

• The pleural fluid that bonds the visceral and parietal pleurae together is broken by air.
  
• The bond between the visceral and parietal pleurae increases dramatically.
  
• The thin pleural fluid has lost its lubricating property and causes friction and ultimately inflammation of the pleurae.
  
• All of the listed responses are explanations for the occurrence of pneumothorax.
  

No air is moving in or out of the lungs in this image. Which of the following describes the pressures of the atmosphere ("P outside") and the lungs ("P inside")?

• P inside > P outside
• P inside = P outside
• Pressures cannot be determined from this information.
• P outside > P inside
  

Boyle's law states that the pressure of a gas is:

• always higher in the atmosphere than in the lungs.
• inversely proportional to the volume of its container.
• inversely proportional to temperature.
• directly proportional to the volume of its container.
• directly proportional to temperature.
  

________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle.:

• Tidal volume
• Residual volume
• Inspiratory capacity
• Inspiratory reserve volume
• Expiratory reserve volume
  

Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle.:

• internal intercostal
• scalene
• external intercostal
• serratus anterior
• diaphragm
  

Pulmonary ventilation refers to the:

• utilization of oxygen.
  
• movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space.
  
• movement of air into and out of the lungs.
  
• movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
  
• movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells.
  

Alveolar ventilation refers to the:

• utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.
  
• movement of air into and out of the alveoli.
  
• movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
  
• movement of air into and out of the lungs.
  
• movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli.
  

Boyle's law of gases states that:

• the concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to its partial pressure.
  
• the pressure and volume of a gas are equal.
  
• if the volume goes up, the pressure goes down.
  
• as the temperature goes up, the pressure goes up.
  
• the total gas pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures.
  

When the inspiratory muscles relax, the rib cage returns to its original position as a result of:

• accessory muscle contraction.
• exhalation.
• gravity.
• partial pressure difference.
• elastic rebound.
  

The technical term for quiet breathing is:

• shallow breathing.
• hypoventilation.
• passive.
• costal breathing.
• eupnea.
  

During inhalation,

• air moves up the trachea
• the diaphragm relaxes.
• the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.
• the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases.
• oxygen molecules move into the lungs, and carbon dioxide molecules move out of the lungs.
  

From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood?

• Bronchi
• Alveoli
• Trachea
• Nose
• Bronchioles

Which statement is correct?

• Oxygen diffuses from large blood vessels into the body's cells.
• Oxygen is released from the mitochondria as a product of cellular respiration.
• In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.
• Carbon dioxide diffuses from the alveoli into surrounding capillaries.
• As oxygen diffuses from the lungs into capillaries, blood becomes deoxygenated.
  

After blood becomes oxygenated,

• it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to capillaries that supply the body's cells with oxygen.
• it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells.
• it does not return to the heart, but goes directly to the lungs.
• it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to the lungs.
• it does not return to the heart, but goes to the nose and mouth.
  

Hemoglobin

• is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen.
• is the site of cellular respiration.
• uses ATP to move oxygen from blood to body cells.
• is found in blood plasma.
• has five subunits.
  

Blood gas analyses provide diagnostic information regarding the efficiency of gas exchange at the lungs and in peripheral tissues. Which of the following values are NOT within normal limits?

• PO2 in systemic capillaries leaving tissue cells: 100 mm Hg
• PCO2 in pulmonary capillaries leaving the alveoli: 40 mm Hg
• PO2 in pulmonary capillaries leaving the alveoli: 100 mm Hg
• PCO2 in systemic capillaries leaving tissue cells: 45 mm Hg
  

The physiological effects of nitrogen in the human body are not fully understood as of yet except during decompression sickness. Decompression sickness occurs when the partial pressure of nitrogen drops, and nitrogen no longer stays in solution but forms bubbles, causing tremendous pain in joints. This relationship between partial pressure and solubility is explained in __________.:

• Henry’s law
• Dalton’s law
• Boyle’s law
• Newton’s law
  

Henry's law states that

• gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
• gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
• gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.
• in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
• the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure.
  

Dalton's law states that:

• gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
• the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure.
• in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture.
• gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
• gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.
  

Decompression sickness is a painful condition that develops when a person is exposed to a sudden drop in atmospheric pressure. Bubbles of ________ gas are responsible for the problem.:

• carbon monoxide
• helium
• nitrogen
• oxygen
• carbon dioxide
  

Which of the following relationships best describes Dalton's Law?:

• The amount of a gas in a solution is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas.
• The pressure and volume of a gas are inversely proportional at a constant temperature.
• The partial pressure of oxygen will determine the amount of hemoglobin saturation.
• A gas will contribute to the total pressure in proportion to its abundance.
  

How much difference is there in the ability of hemoglobin to hold oxygen when comparing slightly alkaline blood to slightly acidic blood at a Po2 of 40 mm Hg?

• Between 15 and 20 percent more oxygen can be held in acidic blood at a Po2 of 40 mm Hg.
• Between 15 and 20 percent more oxygen can be held in alkaline blood at a Po2 of 40 mm Hg.
• Between 5 and 10 percent more oxygen can be held in acidic blood at a Po2 of 40 mm Hg.
• Between 5 and 10 percent more oxygen can be held in alkaline blood at a Po2 of 40 mm Hg.
  

Where is more than 70 percent of the carbon dioxide carried in the blood?

• dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells (RBCs)
• converted to chloride
• in the plasma, as dissolved CO2 or HCO3 -
• attached to hemoglobin
  

Carbon monoxide poisoning is possible because carbon monoxide binds readily with heme at very low partial pressures compared to those of oxygen. Besides partial pressure, what else determines the affinity of oxygen molecules for heme?:

• temperature
• pH levels
• BPG concentration
• All of the listed responses are correct.
  

In patients with emphysema, the alveolar surface area decreases, thereby decreasing the area available for gas exchange. In addition, vascularity declines, making it harder still to transport adequate amounts of oxygen. Which of the following would help an emphysema patient bind as much oxygen as possible with the limited heme units available?:

• decreasing pH levels
• raising body temperature
• inhaling oxygen at higher partial pressures
• All of the listed responses would help an emphysema patient.
  

Lung cancer claims more lives than other cancers, according to the Centers for Disease Control. Because of their high mitotic rate, epithelial cells are particularly prone to tumor formation. Choose the best answer as to where within the respiratory tract you would NOT find such epithelial cells.:

• within the walls of the alveoli
• lining the pharynx
• lining the trachea
• You would find epithelial cells in all of the listed answer choices.
  

The chloride shift occurs in order to:

• transport bicarbonate ions into the blood plasma.
• produce carbonic acid.
• pump hydrochloric acid out of gastric cells.
• produce salt for the cytosol of blood cells.
• force oxygen out of the blood and into tissues.
  

Carbon dioxide and water combine to form:

• hydrochloric acid.
• oxygen.
• carbonic acid.
• nitric acid.
• carbaminohemoglobin.
  

Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is:

• dissolved in plasma.
• carried by white blood cells.
• bound to hemoglobin.
• in ionic form as solute in the plasma.
• bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide.
  

Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as:

• solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells.
• carbonic acid.
• bicarbonate ions.
• solute dissolved in the plasma.
• carbaminohemoglobin.
  

Carbonic anhydrase:

• is an enzyme.
• can decrease the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma.
• is in RBCs.
• can increase the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma.
• All of the answers are correct.
  

Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is high is:

• equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when pH is low.
• greater than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.
• equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.
• less than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.
• None of the answers is correct.
  

Which of the following descriptions accurately describes Boyle’s law?

• The pressure of gas in your lungs is inversely proportional to the volume in your lungs.
• How well a gas dissolves in a liquid such as blood depends on both its partial pressure and its solubility.
• The partial pressure of a gas in the air you breathe in is equal to the total atmospheric pressure times the fractional concentration of the gas.
  

Which muscles, when contracted, would increase the volume of air in the thoracic cavity?

• internal intercostals and external oblique
• diaphragm and internal intercostals
• diaphragm and external intercostals
  

Which pressure is the result of the natural tendency of the lungs to decrease their size (because of elasticity) and the opposing tendency of the thoracic wall to pull outward and enlarge the lungs?

• intrapulmonary pressure
• atmospheric pressure
• intrapleural pressure

During an allergic reaction, which of the following would aid respiration?

• epinephrine
• acetylcholine (ACh)
• an increase in the parasympathetic nervous system
• histamine
  

If the transpulmonary pressure equals zero, what will happen to the lung?

• lung volume will stay the same
• lungs will collapse
• lungs will inflate
  

What would be the immediate effect of damage to the Dorsal Respiratory Group (DRG)?

• hyperventilation
• Diaphragmatic breathing
• apnea (no breathing)
• costal breathing
  

The structure of the respiratory epithelium changes along the respiratory tract. In addition to mucous cells, what other type of cells are found lining the nasal cavity, nasopharynx, and the superior portion (trachea and bronchi) of the lower respiratory system?:

• pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial cells
• cuboidal ciliated epithelial cells
• simple squamous epithelial cells
• stratified squamous epithelial cells
  

What is the name of the structures projecting from the lateral surfaces of the nasal cavity that function to create turbulence and help humidify and warm the incoming air?:

• nasal septum
• nares
• nasal conchae
• nasal vestibule
  

Both sneezing and coughing are examples of protective reflexes triggered by irritation. Sneezing and coughing both involve a disruption in respiration. What is the formal name for the period when respiration is suspended?:

• hypoxia
• apnea
• hypocapnia
• pneumothorax
  

The most important chemical regulator of respiration is:

• sodium ion.
• hemoglobin.
• carbon dioxide.
• bicarbonate ion.
• oxygen.
  

The term hypercapnia refers to:

• an increase in pH.
  
• elevated PO2.
  
• the cessation of breathing.
  
• elevated PCO2.
  
• labored breathing.
  

The apneustic centers of the pons:

• provide stimulation to the inspiratory center.
• alter chemoreceptor sensitivity.
• generate the gasp reflex.
• monitor blood gas levels.
• inhibit the pneumotaxic and inspiratory centers.
  

Breathing that involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements is called:

• eupnea.
• diaphragmatic breathing.
• shallow breathing.
• costal breathing.
• hyperpnea.
  

The pneumotaxic center of the pons:

• sets the at-rest respiratory pattern.
• prolongs inspiration.
• stimulates the dorsal respiratory group.
• modifies the rate and depth of breathing.
• suppresses the expiratory center in the medulla.
  

If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally:

• tidal volumes would decrease.
  
• alveolar ventilation would increase.
  
• the respiratory minute volume would increase.
  
• a person would stop breathing.
  
• pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly.
  

Which of the following statements correctly contrasts the dorsal respiratory group (DRG) and the ventral respiratory group (VRG)?

• The DRG only becomes active when there is a need for increased breathing activity, while the VRG is active during every respiratory cycle.
• The VRG receives input from cerebrospinal fluid chemoreceptors, while the DRG receives input from chemoreceptors in the bloodstream.
• The VRG has inspiratory and expiratory centers that are active during every breathing cycle, while the DRG is only active during expiration.
• The DRG is mainly active during inspiration, while the VRG is primarily active during expiration.
  

Which of the following variables is NOT monitored by the medullary breathing centers?

• Blood acidity
• Amount of stretch in lungs
• Air humidity
• Partial pressure of CO2

Which breathing center promotes inhalation by stimulating the DRG?

• Apneustic center
• VRG
• Pneumotaxic center
• Hypothalamus
  

With an increase in skeletal muscle activity and an increase in body temperature, you would expect to see __________.

• a decrease in oxygen delivery to active skeletal muscle
• a decrease in the production of carbon dioxide by cells
• a decrease in the percentage of oxyhemoglobin saturation
• an increase in the percentage of oxyhemoglobin saturation
  

Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood mostly as __________.

• carbaminohemoglobin
• soluble in plasma
• a bicarbonate ion
• none of the listed responses
  

Why does efficiency of pulmonary ventilation and pulmonary circulation occur?

• The surface area of the respiratory membrane is increased.
• Distances involved in gas exchange are small.
• The gases are liquid soluble.
• Blood flow and air flow are coordinated.
  

In order for the respiratory system to maintain homeostatic tissue levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide, it must coordinate constantly with the __________ system.

• cardiovascular
• urinary
• digestive
• integumentary
  

It is important that free H+ resulting from dissociation of H2CO3 combine with hemoglobin to reduce the possibility of __________.

• maintaining a constant pH in the blood
• an acidic condition within the blood
• recombining with H2O
• CO2 escaping from the RBC
  

With regard to local regulation of gas transport, if the Pco2 in the bronchioles increases, the bronchioles __________.

• become inflamed
  
• remain the same
  
• dilate
  
• constrict
  

In the pulmonary capillaries, the bicarbonate ion is always returned to the __________.

• alveoli
• interstitial fluid
• plasma
• RBC
  

What substance is administered during an asthmatic attack to decrease resistance by dilating the airways?

• angiotensin
• epinephrine
• norepinephrine
• histamine
  

Which class of sensory receptor can modify respiratory reflexes?

• stretch receptors
• nociceptors
• chemoreceptors
• All of these sensory receptors can modify respiratory reflexes.
  

Each molecule of hemoglobin has the capacity to carry __________ molecules of oxygen (O2).

• two
• four
• six
• eight
  

In a bronchiole, the release of histamine by activated mast cells and basophils __________.

• increases bronchoconstriction and decreases airflow
  
• stimulates bronchoconstriction and increases airflow
  
• stimulates bronchodilation and decreases airflow
  
• stimulates bronchodilation and improves airflow
  

The basic pattern of breathing is established by the __________ located in the __________.

• dorsal respiratory group; medulla oblongata
• dorsal respiratory group; pons
• ventral respiratory group; medulla oblongata
• ventral respiratory group; pons
  

If you desired to control the rate of respiration voluntarily, you might __________.

• engage in an emotional experience
• inflict pain
• sneeze
• hold your breath
  

Carbon dioxide is most often transported __________.

• as molecules of carbonic acid that dissociate to form bicarbonate and hydrogen ions
• bound to the globular proteins of hemoglobin
• dissolved in plasma
• bound to heme
  

Which of the following statements about the dorsal and ventral respiratory groups is true?

• Both the dorsal and ventral respiratory groups reside in the cerebral cortex.
• The dorsal and ventral respiratory groups set the pace and rhythm of breathing.
• The nuclei of the dorsal and ventral respiratory group function via reciprocal inhibition.
• The dorsal and ventral respiratory groups set the pace and rhythm of breathing, AND the nuclei of the dorsal and ventral respiratory group function via reciprocal inhibition.
  

Which of these changes will DECREASE the effectiveness of gas exchange across the respiratory membrane?

• increased difference in partial pressures
• adequate production of surfactant
• increased thickness of the respiratory membrane
• increased number of alveoli
  

What percentage of total oxygen (O2) is carried within red blood cells chemically bound to hemoglobin?

• 5 percent
  
• 68 percent
  
• 98 percent
  
• 100 percent
  

__________ percentage of carbon dioxide is bound to hemoglobin forming __________.

• 50%, carbon monoxide
  
• 23%, carbaminohemoglobin
  
• 7%, bicarbonate
  
• 70%, carbonic acid
  

The parasympathetic division of the ANS causes __________ of airway smooth muscle; therefore, resistance is __________.

• relaxation; increased
  
• relaxation; decreased
  
• constriction; decreased
  
• constriction; increased
  

Which of the following bones is not a facial bone?

• Ethmoid
  
• Inferior nasal concha
  
• Maxillary
  
• Zygomatic
  

Which of the following facial bones contain a sinus?

• Zygomatic
• Inferior nasal concha
• Nasal
• Maxillary
  

Which facial bones makeup the central portion of the bridge of the nose?

• Lacrimal
• Zygomatic
• Maxillary
• Nasal
  

What is the anatomical name for the facial bones known as “cheekbones”?

• Nasal bones
• Zygomatic bones
• Lacrimal bones
• Maxillary bones
  

Which facial bones fuse to form the upper jaw?

• Lacrimal
  
• Nasal
  
• Zygomatic
  
• Maxillary
  

Identify the small facial bones found in the medial wall of the orbit.

• Zygomatic
• Lacrimal
• Palatine
• Inferior nasal concha

When each hemoglobin molecule binds with four molecules of oxygen, the end product is __________.

• carbon monoxide
• oxyhemoglobin
• carbaminohemoglobin
• carbon dioxide
  

The Hering-Breuer inflation reflex is important in regulating the forced ventilations that accompany strenuous exercise. This reflex is initiated by __________.

• stretch receptor stimulation located in the smooth muscle of bronchioles
  
• olfactory receptor stimulation along the airway
  
• baroreceptor stimulation in the aorta and carotid arteries
  
• chemoreceptor stimulation in the aorta and carotid arteries
  

If the hemoglobin molecules in a blood sample each had a single oxygen molecule bound to them, on average, the saturation would be __________.

• 10 percent
  
• 25 percent
  
• 50 percent
  
• 100 percent
  

A rise in arterial PCO2 elevates carbon dioxide levels in cerebrospinal fluid and stimulates the chemoreceptive neurons of the medulla to produce __________.

• a decrease in rate and depth of breathing
  
• an increase in rate and depth of breathing
  
• eupnea
  
• hypercapnia
  

The correct sequential transport of O2 from the tissue capillaries to O2 consumption in cells is __________.

• erythrocytes, interstitial fluid, plasma, cells
  
• erythrocytes, plasma, interstitial fluid, cells
  
• plasma, erythrocytes, alveoli, cells
  
• lung, alveoli, plasma, erythrocytes, cells
  

How is oxygen most often carried in the blood?

• dissolved in plasma
• as bicarbonate
• bound to heme in hemoglobin
• attached to the globular proteins of hemoglobin
  

The respiratory centers are located in __________.

• the pons only
  
• the hypothalamus
  
• the medulla oblongata only
  
• both the medulla oblongata and the pons
  

During internal respiration, the exchange of the respiratory gases takes place between which of the following?

• the pulmonary capillaries and the interstitial fluid that surrounds the cells
• the systemic capillaries and the interstitial fluid that surrounds the cells
• the pulmonary capillaries and the air within the alveoli
• All of the listed responses are correct.
  

In which of the conditions would oxygen release from hemoglobin be increased?

• During a round of golf on a cool, cloudy day.
  
• Relaxing and reading a book
  
• During the run of the Iron Man Triathlon on a hot, humid day.
  
• Taking a leisurely walk through a park.
  

Which of the following is found in the medulla oblongata and functions in forced breathing?

• apneustic center
  
• pneumotaxic center
  
• ventral respiratory group (VRG)
  
• dorsal respiratory group (DRG)