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167 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Definition of Vyse
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Best Single Engine Rate of Climb: airspeed which delivers greatest gain in altitude in shortest time; gear/flaps up
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Prior to movement of flight control surface area what must you do
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clear
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Prolonged use of the emergency lights will
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discharge the battery pack
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Why should the emergency exit keylock be removed before flight?
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to allow removal of the door from the outside in event of emergency
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Allowable reading when checking oil; what to do if >3 qts low
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Dipstick may read between 1 to 2 quarts low; on a cold engine may indicate more than 2 quarts low; run engine 2 min, then recheck
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Sound levels in cockpit area with engines running do or do not exceed hearing conservation levels?
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Sound Levels DO exceed hearing conservation levels
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On engine start, if no rise in TGT occurs within 10 seconds of introducing fuel..
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Accomplish the ABORT START checklist (1. Cond. Levr - Fuel Cutoff 2. Ign & Eng Start Switch - As Required)
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If nacelle/engine fire is suspected (fire light illuminated or high TGT), accomplish what checklist
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ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND (NOT the ABORT START checklist)
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The carrying of T.O 1C-12A-1 isn the aircraft is or is not optional
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IS NOT optional
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Do not turn the radar on within _____ft of ground personnel or containers holding flammable or exploseive material.
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18
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Prolonged use of the pitot and stall warning heat will or will not damage the heating elements
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WILL damage the heating elements
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How can you determine that an auxilary fuel tank is empty?
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Fuel gages
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T or F: Setting power in excess of charted max cruise power will not reduce engine life
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False
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Prop range that may cause ILS interference
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1750-1850
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To ensure constant reversing charactaristics, the prop controls must be in the _____ position
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FULL FORWARD
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Utilization of the linear deviation mode in other than coupled approach may ____
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result in excessive deviation from course centerline
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During a go-around, raising the flaps from full down to up may ________.
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cause the aircraft to stall
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If sustained combustion is observed during engine shutdown....
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proceed immediately to the NACELLE/ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND checklist
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Vmca
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86 KIAS; min flight speed at which a/c is directionally controllable as determined in accordance with FARs.
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If strong winds are anticipated, secure props in order to...
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prevent windmilling with zero oil pressure
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During engine restart during flight (no starter assist), periodically move the _______ to ________ as necessary to prevent
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condition lever; fuel cutoff; 1000 deg C TGT
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Can the ice vanes be retracted electrically after manual extension?
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NO
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Prop overspeeds above ______ indicate failure of the ______. Torque is limited to ___ for sustained operation above _____.
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2000-primary; 2080 both; 81%;2000
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With loss of ____power, the aircraft will depressurize
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DC
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T or F: Illumination of the FUEL PRESS warning light usually indicates an engine driven boost pump failure.
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True
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If an essential circuit breaker trips in flight; can you reset it?
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Yes; one reset is permitted
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If DC power is lost, what are the only electrical instruments available?
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Prop RPM, N1 RPM, and TGT
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After an emergency landing gear extension has been made, what should you do and not do?
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DO NOT move any gear controls or reset any switches/CBs
DO pump until 3 green gear down lights illuminate and gear handle lights extinguish |
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If a main gear tire is flat which edge of the runway should you touch down on?
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Opposite the flat tire
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If runway distance permits, consideration should be made to making a no flap or an approach flap landing while flying one engine inop...why?
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to improve performance capability in the event of a missed approach/go-around.
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A go around may or may not be attempted after the flaps have been extended beyond approach during single engine operations
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DO NOT attempt to go around after the flaps are extended beyond approach (during SE ops)
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Min oil temp for engine start
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-40
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Max reverse time is limited to _____
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1 minute
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Engine ice vanes shall be retracted at _____
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15deg C and above
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Operation on aviation gasoline is limited to ____feet altitude with one standby boost pump inoperative.
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20,000
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Max fuel imbalance between fuel systems
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1000
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Can you fly the aircraft with fuel in aux tanks if main tanks are not full?
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NO: DO NOT fly the a/c with fuel in aux tanks unless main tanks are full
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T or F: Normally crossfeed only during single engine operations
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TRUE
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Max extension speed for 40% flaps is
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200 KIAS
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With the loss of the left current limiter, what electrical equipment is inop if no other malfunction exists?
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No. 1 avionics single fed bus (#1 VOR, ADF, VHF, DME,RMI,IFF, intphn)
(answer is none above) |
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What two things activate the emergency lights
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inertia swithes at 2-3G shock or a switch in the cockpit
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Max altitude with YAW DAMP inop
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17,000
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What items are on the hot battery bus?
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Cabin lights, stby boost pumps, fire extinguishers (squibs)& firewall shutoff valves.
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T or F:Autopilot preflight check must be conducted and found satisfactory prior to each flight on which autopilot is to be used.
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True
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Min N1 during simultaneous use of brake deice and surface deice
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85
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Ice vanes shall be retracted for operations in ambient temps of _____
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15 deg C or above
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Operation of the surface deice boots in temperatures below ____ could result in....
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-40; permanent damage to the boots (T/F with -30 is false)
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Before towing, ensure control locks are _______ as serious damage could result in the ________.
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removed, steering linkage
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Ice vanes shall be retracted for operations in ambient temps of _____
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15 deg C or above
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Operation of the surface deice boots in temperatures below ____ could result in....
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-40; permanent damage to the boots (T/F with -30 is false)
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T or F: Do not operate the weather radar set in a confined space where the nearest metal wall is 18 feet or less from the antenna
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False; (18 feet is right, but it's from personel)
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T or F: It's safe to reset the landing gear relay CB after landing
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False
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T or F: stall warning system is reliable during icing conditions
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False
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T or F: Do not fill aux tanks unless mains are full
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True
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T or F: all icing detection lights must be operative prior to flight into icing conditions at night
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True
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Operation with the FUEL PRESSURE LIGHT illuminated is limited to ____ hours.
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10
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Min runway length for touch and go landings
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5000 feet
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Max crosswind for a wet runway (RCR 12)
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25 knots
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T or F: when IMC or night conditions, any approved instrument approach is recommended
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False
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Which are true re. Rudder Boost? a) not required for flight b)will apply rt rudder when L eng is at idle and rt engine is at TO pwr c) inop when either bleed air valve switch is in pneu and enviro off
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All of the above
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Max demonstrated X-wind
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25 KTS
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Required N1 to maintain pressurization
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85%
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Prop RPM that may interfere with ILS glideslope
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1750-1850
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Complete loss of pneumatic pressure will cause loss of what
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Surface de-ice
Vacuum Pressurization control (all of the above) |
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With both bleed air switches in ENVIRO OFF what will happen?
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aircraft will depressurize and L BL AIR OFF and R BL AIR OFF lights will illuminate
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W/ no other electrical system malfunction, failure of a 325a isolation limiter:
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Reduces the capability for recharging the battery from one generator
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Complete loss of DC power in flight will cause loss of...what?
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pressurization; A.C. powered instruments; aux fuel transfer
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The firewall mounted flow control units will do what if complete electical failure
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stop the airflow into the pressure vessel if the a/c experiences complete electrical failure
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The door seal (C model) is inflated by air from where? (a)left engine only (b)right engine only (c) either engine (d)ejector pump
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c. either engine
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Yaw damp is required for
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all flights above 17,000
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Overspeed gov check, RPM should stabilize at...
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1830-1910
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Engine operation with fuel pressure light illuminated is limited to...
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10 hours until the engine fuel pump overhaul or replacement (not engine replacement)
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Illumination of the battery charge light indicates
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a normal condition after a battery start (that it is charging at 6AMPS over 7 seconds- not 6volts)
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Normal operating range for pneumatic pressure is
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12-20 PSI
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NO FUEL TRANSFER lights should extinguish within ___to___ seconds after engine start.
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30-50
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Set the cabin pressurization controller to planned cruise altitude plus:
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1000 feet
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Prop PRIMARY GOV operating range and test range
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1600-2000; 1830-1910 (fuel topping gov does NOT prevent prop RPM from exceeding 2080)
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ALT WARNING light illuminates when cabin press exceeds
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12,500ft
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Pressurization controller is mechanically or electrically controlled? operated?
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mechanically controlled; electrically operated
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Pulling the pressurization control circuit breaker in flight will
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Render the dump switch inop
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If either BL AIR FAIL light illuminates in flight, what to do?
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The respective bleed air valve switch must be placed in PNEU and ENVIRO OFF
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The BL AIR FAIL warning light illuminates in flight: then the left bleed air valve switch is turned off, but the green advisory light does not illuminate. You must
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Pull the left bleed air valve circuit breaker to close the flow control valve
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If both BL AIR FAIL warning lights illuminate at approximately the same time
What could be the cause? |
Rupture could be in the common ducting from the "T" fitting to the CP feet
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When a red BL AIR FAIL light illuminates, (when will it extinguish)
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It will be extinguished only when the defective poly-flow tubing is replaced
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During level cruise flight at less than max differential pressure, selecting a lower cabin altitude will:
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Cause a cabin descent
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Moving the pressure switch up to the dump position in flight (does what)
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opens the safety valve and dumps cabin pressure, but does not affect bleed air input
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Moving the left bleed air valve switch to the PNEU and ENVIRO OFF position in flight will...
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(NONE OF THE ABOVE)
Closes both the environmental flow control unit and the pneumatic instrument air valve |
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During landing gear manual extension which are true? a)gear handle should be down b) gear relay CB should be pulled (c) red lights in gear handle will extinguish when all three green have illuminated
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ALL OF THE ABOVE
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Is there an alternate air source for both CP and P instruments?
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NO, only Pilot's
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The C-12 shall not be operated when ambient temperature is ____.
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ISA + 37C (SL-25,000ft)
ISA + 31C (above 25,000ft) |
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How can you determine if vacuum is available?
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Scheduled pressurization is being maintained
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If the #1 nav set becomes inop, the pilot may set #2 nav set with the VOR select switch how will that affect the CDI?
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Course changes on the co-pilot's CDI will have no effect on the pilot's course deviation indicator
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With autopilot and flight director engaged, activation of the turn control knob on the autopilot pitch-turn panel will/or will not remove the flight director's crossed-needles from view
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WILL (except when APPR captured or GA mode is released)
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With the autopilot engaged, activation of the electric pitch trim switches on the yoke causes:
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autopilot to disengage and AP TRIM FAIL light to illuminate
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If #2 NO FUEL XFR light illuminates in flight when fuel in rt aux tnk, and pilot places rt AUX trnsfr switch to override...
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The #2 NO FUEL XFR light will extinguish if motive flow valve has opened and no other fault exists
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Engine air inlet lips are heated by...
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exhaust gases whenever the engine is operating
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If the battery charge light illuminates in flight, note loadmeter readings then...
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Turn battery switch off then check loadmeters for a 2.5% max change
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What is the rating for the battery?
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24v, 34 amp-hr
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When a generator is off line, what indication is present?
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A yellow DC GEN light is on
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Where is the external power connector located?
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Under the right wing, outboard of the engine nacelle
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What is the individual generator rating?
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28v; 250 amp
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What is the rating of each inverter?
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115v; 26v, 400Hz
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After starting the rt eng. and turn the rt gen on, what should the loadmeter reading decrease to before turning generator off?
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.50
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Why should the battery switch be left on during use of external power?
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to protect against excessive current
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What BUS powers the airstair light?
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Hot battery bus
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Where is the cabin light switch located
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just inside the airstair door frame
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How is the switch that controls the fluorescent cabin lights labeled?
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INTR lights
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What is the switch labeled "Master panel lights" used for?
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To control power for all cockpit panel lights
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A red annunciator light will extinguish
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when the indicator fault is corrected
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Fuel is heated prior to entering the fuel control unit by
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engine oil, through an oil-to-fuel heat exchanger
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Which is not affected when the crossfeed switch is moved to the right or left?
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The override function for
AUX FUEL TRANSFER |
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Which is electrically powered? a)Eng Drvn Boost Pump (b) Stby boost pump (c) engine fuel pump (d) fuel manifold pump
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Standby boost pump
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What are three functions of the electric standby boost pump?
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backup for primary boost pump, with avgas above 20k ft, crossfeed operation
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hot battery bus check tests electrical continuity to which fuel system items
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firewall valves and standby boost pumps
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what is the max altitude and limitations for ops w/avgas
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max alt 20,000ft with one standby boost pump inop and 150 hours between overhauls
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Operation of the engine with the fuel press lt illum is limited to what?
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10 hrs of eng ops between eng fuel pump overhauls or replacement
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function of reduction gear system is to provide gear reduction for what?
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for the propeller
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In reverse, the max limit for N2 RPM is a function of the
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Power turbine governor
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What is the most accurate definition of engine torque readout
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Power delivered to the propeller
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During a ground start of the right engine the IGNITION ON light should illuminate
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When the start switch is moved to the ignition and engine start position
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Approximately what temperature will cause the plastic pneumatic tubing of the bleed air warning system to fail?
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204 degrees F
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A bleed air leak could result in a decrease in ___ and an increase in ___-
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Engine torque; TGT
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What are the eng insts monitored after a bld air warning lt and the respective bleed air valve is placed in PNEU & ENVIRO OFF?
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Increase in Torque, decrease in TGT
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What lts illuminate whenever there is a break in the pneumatic air line?
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Either L BL AIR FAIL or R BL AIR FAIL or both
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What is the normal operating pressure limit of the pneumatic system?
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20 PSI
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If the boots are held inflated too long they may
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form the foundation for a new unremovable layer of ice
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If the airplane is flying through icing conditions, what is min speed necessary to keep bottom of wings ice-free?
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140 KTS
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wing and horizontal stablizer leading edges are de-iced by:
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Pneumatically inflated boots
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When deice boots are automatically cycled, timer sequence is as followed...
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Wings, 6 seconds; horizontal stabilizers, 4 seconds
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windshield temperature is regulated and affected by:
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heat sensors which sense glass temperature
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electical current requirmnts of prop boots must be monitored because:
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defective boots can cause uneven deicing and serious vibrations
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During icing conditions in flight, is the stall warning
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Is unreliable (not even if wing boots and warning vane heat is on)
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Engine compressor inlet screen is protected from ice particles by:
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An inertial ice vane system
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mechanical backup operation of engine ice vanes in case of electromechanical failure
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must be used to the exclusion of the electrical system for the flight's duration
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In case of bleed air failure from either source... which system should not be used
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only the brake deice system should not be used
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When the prop deice system is operated manually, the prop ammeter reads...
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0 amperes
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The loss of one heating element on a prop is indicated by...
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prop ammeter reading of approximately 10 amps
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When the N1 falls below 65%, the compressor clutch disengages and what light illuminates?
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AIR COND N1 LOW
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How much of the recirculated cabin air is routed through the ceiling outlet ducts?
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25%
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How does the pilot ensure that the air-to-air heat exchanger valves are in the max cool position?
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Select Man Cool, then hold the manual temp switch in DECR position for one minute
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What is the source of fresh air during unpressurized flight with the press switch in the dump position?
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Ram air
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What is avoided by opening the flow control units ambient air valves one at a time?
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Excessive pressure bumps during takeoff
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rate of change selected on the rate control knob may be from approximately ___ to ____.
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200 - 2000 FPM
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What indicator indicates the rate of cabin pressure altitude change
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cabin climb (vertical speed) indicator
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what limits landing gear travel when full up or down position of the gear has been achieved?
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limit switches and dynamic brake relay
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How is the electric motor torque transmitted to the gear actuators?
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By torque tubes to the main gear actuators and by a chain to the nose gear actuators
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In the event of electrical failure, how is the landing gear extended?
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by using the emergency engage handle and the extension handle, located on the floor to the left of the pedestal
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What is the max allowable altitude with yaw damp inoperative?
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17,000ft
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What happens when the flap handle is moved from the down to the approach position?
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flaps will not retractBy
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How is the stall warning system normally tested prior to flight?
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By placing the stall warn test switch in the test position
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When does the diluter-demand, quick-donning mask deliver oxygen?
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Upon inhalation
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Why must the oxygen pull on-system ready handle be pulled out, prior to flight, arming the system?
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In case of oxygen bottle linkage freeze-up
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At what cabin pressure altitude does the barometric pressure switch automatically open the pax O2 valve (D model)
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12,500
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T or F: Touch and go landings are authorized with passengers on board
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False
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What is the maximum flight duty period for training missions?
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(Not 12)
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What is the max crew duty time for a basic crew?
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16 hours
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Are passengers allowed in either pilot seat while in flight?
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no
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What nontransmitting devices are permitted above 10,000ft with authorization from PIC
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Audio and video recorders and playback devices; computer,peripherals, and electronic entertainment devices, radio receivers (all above)
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Mandatory altitude calls for pnf are (non precision)
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100 above MDA
Runway in sight Go around (all of above) |
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Mandatory altitude calls for PNF are (precision)
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100 above DH
Land or Go Around at DH (all above) |
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T or F: One pilot should record and will acknowledge all ATC clearances
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True
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T or F: One pilot will normally monitor UHF and VHF guard emergency frequency regardless of the primary radio
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False
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The use of "Time Out" will:
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provide a clear warning sign of a deviation or loss of SA, (b)opportunity to break error change (c)notify all crewmembers that someone sees the aircraft or crew deviating from established guidelines (all above)
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Airfields will be considered below minimums for takeoff and landing when the winds (including gusts) are greater than the following:
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a) max operating wind 50 kts (b)max tailwind comp. 10 kts (c)max t/o and land comp for dry rwy (RCR35) is 25kts (d) all above
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Minimum runway length for touch and go
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5000 (not 4000ft)
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T or F: Do not attempt to takeoff of runway available less than accel stop adjusted for RCR
|
TRUE
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T or F: Both approach and departure end overruns may be used if stressed and authorized
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TRUE
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