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79 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
How is doctrine applied? |
a-authoritative but not directive.
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which one of the folliwng is the primary guide used by air force medical service commanders?
a-afdd 1 basic doctine b-afdd 1-1 leadership and force development c-afdd 2-4 health services d-afdd 2-8 command and control |
c-afdd2-4.2 health services
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why is medical doctine important?
a-recommends step by step actions b-directs the actions of commanders c-guides commanders in using assets d-changes faster than air force guidance |
c-guides commanders in using assets.
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what type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces wihtin distinct objective, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
a-basic b-tactical c-operational d-foundational |
c-operational
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tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of hte following examples?
a-the epa because they establish rules and regulations such as fuel economy. b-an automobile manufacturer because they design vehices with broad functions c-an automotive designer because they use hitorical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle sturcture d-a car buyer because they can chose specific qaulities to fit their individual neds such as speed or safety factors |
d a car buyer because they can choose
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which of the following it not one of the three foundational doctrine statements airman should be familiar with?
a-competency b-use of force c-force health protection d-roles and responsibilities of the air force medical service |
b
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while commanders hold ultimate responsibility for the morale, health and wellness of their personnel who is responsible for maintaining individual fitness?
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every airman
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when profesional knowledge, medical expertise, and techonological know how are combined what specific AFMS doctrine is accomplished?
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competency
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what figure in an AFSC identifies career grouping?
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first
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how many parts make up the CFETP?
A-ONE b-two c-three d-four |
b two
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in what part of the cfetp will you locate the speciality training standard?
a-one b-two c-three d-four |
b-two
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where would you find the specific outline of training goals, milestones, and circled core tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?
a-individual training required b-master training plan c-af form 1098 d-af form 797 |
b-master training plan
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which of hte following is identified by a special experience identifier?
a-aerospae medical technician b-aeromedical evacuation tech c-squadron medical element technician d-IDMT |
b-air evac
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who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a great deal of care under the guidance of the physician?
a-nurse b-admin tech c-aerospace medical craftsmen d-aerospace medical service journeymen |
d-journeymen
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when a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on development patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from?
a-novice to apprentice b-apprentice to journeymen c-journeymen to craftsmen d-craftsmen to technician |
b- apprentice to journeymen
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why is it important for the 4n to develop excellent customer service?
a-prevent laswuits b-develop job satisfaction c-ensure BTZ promotion d-positively influence patients visit |
D
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who may request a 4n job inventory?
a-chief nurse b-command chief c-career field manager d-medical group commander |
C
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how often is the 4N job inventory normally completed?
a-six months b-year c-three years d-five years |
C three years
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who is responsible for completing the graduate assessment survey?
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supervisor
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what is the purpose of documenting training?
a-document capability, scope of practice and strength weakness b-document the number of the personnel and hours they work c-enable enlisted personnel to challenge nursing boards d-establish patient care guidlines for civilian practice |
A
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on what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the speciality training standard?
a-af form 803 b-af form 1098 c-af from 797 d-af form 2096 |
c-form 797
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when may the aetc form 156 student training report be removed from the individual training record?
a-when the airman arrives at the first duty station b-when the rank os MSgt received c-when the airman upgrades to 5 level d-when the airman upgrades to 7 level |
c-airman receives 5 level
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where would the and cpr card be filed in the individual training record?
a-part 2 section a b-part 3 section c c-part 5 section a d-part 6 section b |
D part 6 section b
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what is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?
a-ensure there are refreshments b-ask how many will be attending c-evaluate learning through performance or tests d-confirm whether the commander will be attending |
C
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what system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?
a-UMD B-UMPR C-CFETP D-MEPRS |
D
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how are activites grouped on MEPRS?
a-hours and section b-type and section c-hours and afsc d-type and section |
B
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what tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?
a-UMD b-ACR c-UPMR d-MEPRS |
C UPMR
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which of the folowing is a funded manpower requirement that defines the position in terms of function, organization, location, skill and grade?
a-manpower standard b-manning assistance c-manpower requirement d-manpower authorization |
D-manpower authorization
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who approves or disapproves an authorization change report?
a-USAFMS b-MAJCOM c-squadron commander d-account custodian |
B majcom
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who responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under control of the air force?
a-each individual b-unit supervisor c-group commander d-account custodian |
a-each individual
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who is the designated indicudual that is responsible to ensure adquate storage space for medical supplies and equipment , records are maintained and discipline of supply use?
a-supervisor b-commander c-property custodian d-MEMO |
B commander
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by training new personnel on proper equipment what is the supervisor likely to prevent?
a-equipment damage and injury to a patient b-injury to a patient and purchasing new technology c-reporting damage buying technology d-reporting damage to the commander and logistics |
A equipment damage and injury to patient.
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what percentage of medical equipment error is normally attributed to operator error?
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70 percent
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what is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section
a-backorder report b-activity issue/turn in summary c-custodial actions/custodian report listing d-medical equipment review and authorization activity |
b-activity issue/turn in summary
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what should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?
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ask memo personnel on the order.
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when does a new property custodian assume responsibility for items on the property/equipment list?
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upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list.
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before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custdian must?
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conduct a physical inventory of the equipment
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when may the AF form 601 be destroyed?
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when the ordered item is added to or take off the CRL.
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how often are equipment inspections conducted?
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daily
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what are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipment?
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inspect remove report
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what is the primary source for recording equipment repair?
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af form 1297 temporary issue receipt or custodian actions/custodial report listing.
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who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for equipment problems or concerns?
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bmet technician
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which of the following defines nonmaleficence
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the duty to do no harm,
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which of the following defines fidelity?
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acting in a responsible manner.
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what speciality defines the scope of practice of the 4n0 career field?
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STS
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what are patient responsibilities designed to do?
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protect other patients and health care workers.
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each mtf must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presences of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?
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chaperone
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during which stage of the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most of the talking?
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depression
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which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in their medical record.
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dd form 2005
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why is the dd form 2005 privacy act statement health care records used when providing medical care
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eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document
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which category of personnel does the health insurance portability and accountability act affect?
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anyone handling patient information.
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for general guidance regarding the health insurance portability accountability act use?
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DOD REG 6025.18-R
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which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of the patient and the health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or hospitalization?
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introductory
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which of the following is considered a barrier to effective communication?
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talking too much
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who is considered the patient advocate
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every staff member
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who is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding facility procedures or off-base referral services?
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the patient advocate
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what is the purpose of the patient advocacy program?
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to provide an unbiased third party
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what is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the MTF?
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collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients
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should technicians give medical advice over the phone?
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no its legally risky
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how should you handle a non emergent telephone call for the provider if she/he is with a patient and the caller does not want to hold?
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take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity.
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what is an appropriate way to help relieve a patients stres?
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remain honest and in control to decrease the patients anxiety.
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analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of which primary care management team member?
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nurse
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what four components make up the pcm team?
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provider, nurse, medical technician, and health services management technicians
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when a pcm team is successful in achieving the team goal what must each member do?
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contribute at their highest level of scope of practice
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it is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure
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the best care is provided to our customers
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which one of the following in not a habit of successful pcm teams
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being punctual
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who is ultimately responsible for establishing an individuals eligibility for medical care in DEERS
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MPF
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at what age are children required to have their own ids?
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ten
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when a patient requests medical care but has questionable eligibility you should
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have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment.
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if a patient has an emergency and you do not know if they are eligible for care you should
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provide the patient care then determine eligibility
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patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will provide eligibility documentation within what time frame
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30 days
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when confirming a patients information which of the following information systems would you rely on to capture edit and maintain sponsor/family demographics
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DEERS
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enrollment information from DEERS is sent to MTF at least
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quarterly
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if you are working in CHCS what function would not be available for you to use
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outpatient coding coding data
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if you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit what system should you use that will support force health protection population healthand MHS optimization
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AHLTA
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when patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patients treatment
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no care or treatment was accomplished
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before managed care who shouldered the responsibility fo follow up care
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patient
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the icd 9 is divided into how many sections?
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four
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what does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD 9
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not elsewhere classified
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