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504 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

SW2 is a nonroot switch with a 100-Mbps STP root port. A BPDU received on this port contains a root cost of 38. If SW2 advertises to another switch, what will the root cost be in the BPDU SW2 advertises?


a)19


b)57


c)42


d)38


e)None




Explanation: Answer option B is correct.

SW2 would advertise its root cost as the sum of the root cost in the BPDU it received plus the cost of the interface it received it on. A 100-Mbps interface has a default cost of 19, which would make a total of 57 (38 + 19 = 57) as its own root cost, which it would advertise in BPDUs being sent by SW2.

As shown in the explanation, 57 is the correct answer. All the other choices are incorrect.


Objective: Spanning Tree Protocol (IEEE 802.1D)

An engineer first confirms that a router's interface Fa0/0 is up and working. He then configures that interface with the ip address 10.101.101.101 255.255.255.128 command. The engineer leaves configuration mode, and issues the show ip route command. Which of the following masks will be listed in the output that describes the connected route that exists as a result of this new ip address command?


a)/23


b)None of the other answers are correct, because the ip address command will be rejected


c)/25


d)/22


e)/26

Answer option C is correct.

The ip address command is syntactically correct, and the mask 255.255.255.128 is a valid mask, so the router will accept the command. The router will add a connected route for the subnet in which 10.101.101.101 255.255.255.128 resides, because the interface is up, and the show ip route command will list the mask in prefix notation. Of the answers, /25 is equal to 255.255.255.128, because 255.255.255.128 represents a total of 25 binary 1s.

The other incorrect masks represent different DDN masks:

/22: 255.255.252.0

/23: 255.255.254.0

/26: 255.255.255.192

On your lunch break, you discuss networking theory to help yourself prepare for the ICND1 exam. A co-worker makes the following bold statement: "Routers need to only think about Layer 3 when forwarding packets; switches need to think about only Layer 2 when forwarding frames." Which of the following statements are accurate clarifications of or additions to this statement?

a)Routers must be able to think about Layer 4 to change the TCP or UDP header during the packet forwarding process.
b)Switches need to be able to perform Layer 3 IP processing to forward frames that happen to encapsulate IP packets.
c)Switches must also be able to perform Layer 1 processing to successfully receive and send bits on their interfaces.
d)A router must also be able to perform Layer 1 functions to be able to send and receive bits on its interfaces.
e)A router must also be able to perform Layer 2 functions to choose when to process received frames and how to encapsulate packets before sending them to the next-hop router.


Answer options D, E , and C are correct.

Routers focus on Layer 3, and LAN switches focus on Layer 2, when forwarding data. However, both devices must support the lower layers to be able to send and receive the data (Layer 1) and to interpret the data received on each interface by using framing (Layer 2). Routers do not need to examine the UDP or TCP header to forward packets, although the router can do so when implementing some functions, including Access Control Lists (ACL). Switches do not need to think about IP to forward frames. (Note that this question's concepts are covered in many chapters of the ICND1 book; however, Chapter 16 contains an example that shows the underlying concepts.)

The status of a LAN switch interface shows err-disabled. Which of the following would have caused this status?

a) No cable attached
b) Incorrect cable attached
c) Administratively shut-down port
d) Port security violation
e) Access-port assignment to nonexistent VLAN


d



Answer option D is correct.

If port security is configured on a switch port, and there is a violation of those port security parameters (such as more than the allowed number of source MAC addresses), the default behavior is to place the port into an err-disable state.

All the other answers would not cause this err-disable state. Administratively shut down would show the state of disabled. Incorrect or bad cabling will likely show a state of nonconnect. An access-port assigned to a VLAN that doesn’t exist wouldn’t show a status of err-disable.


A user in an Enterprise network sits at her PC and connects to a web server inside the Enterprise by entering the URL http://www.example.com/payroll.html into the browser's window and pressing Enter. Which of the following answers are true about the actions taken by the user's PC?


a) if any packets sent by the server are lost in transit, HTTP causes the server to resend the lost data.


b) The PC uses Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) to get the files that comprise the requested web page.
c) The user's action of entering the URL and pressing Enter may result in multiple HTTP get requests being made to the server.


d) All the text after the // in the URL (in the question) is considered to be the server's hostname and is used in the DNS request to find the server's IP address.

Answer options B and C are correct.

Web browsers use HTTP, which in turn uses TCP. The web browser connects to the server with a TCP connection and issues a get request to get the first file in the web page. That object may include instructions to load additional files (objects), again with HTTP get requests. The hostname that identifies the server is located between the double slash (//) and the single slash (/) in the URL; the text after the single slash identifies the web page on that particular server.

You have received a new Cisco 2960 switch, removed it from the box, and mounted it into a cabinet. You then connect your devices to various ports on the switch and power on the switch. Which of the following answers best describes what will occur?

a) The switch will forward all traffic on all ports.
b) The switch will not work until it is activated
c) The switch will not power on until you insert the power supply, which must be purchased separately.
d) The switch will not forward traffic; you need to issue a no shutdown command to enable the interfaces.

a The Cisco 2960 switch comes with all the interfaces ready to go out of the box. There is no need to purchase any power supplies or to activate any products.

An aspiring CCNA buys two Cisco routers, along with serial DCE and DTE V.35 cables. She connects a serial interface on each router to one of the two serial cables and connects the two cables. Which of the following commands must she add to the configuration before the serial link will run at 64 Kbps?

a) clock rate 64000
b) bandwidth 64
c) bandwidth 64000
d) csu-speed 64
e) clockrate 64
f) clock rate 64

a The clock rate command sets the clock rate on the router with the DCE cable, with the units in bits per second. The bandwidth command sets an administrative value that is used for many purposes, but it does not affect the speeds at which the bits are encoded on the link. The csu-speedcommand does not exist on a router.

Two switches are connected using a crossover cable. Using the combinations of configurations listed here (one on each end of the crossover cable on each switch), which of the following are accurate?
a) Access and access is not a valid switch configuration between two switches.
b) Dynamic desirable and dynamic auto will end up in a trunk being formed.
c) Dynamic auto and dynamic auto will end up in a dynamic trunk being negotiated.
d) Access and trunk would end up in a negotiated trunk.
e) Trunk and dynamic auto will end up in a trunk being formed.

Answer options B and E are correct.

Because the desirable side will request the trunk, and the auto side will agree, dynamic desirable and dynamic auto will end up in a trunk being formed. Trunk and dynamic auto will end up in a trunk being formed. When configured as a trunk, DTP is still enabled and will request a trunk to the other side, which is configured as auto and will agree to the trunk.

If one side is configured as a trunk and the other is configured as an access port, a trunk will not be negotiated on both sides, and there will be limited connectivity. If both sides are dynamic auto, a trunk will not be negotiated. If both switches are configured as access ports for a specific VLAN, that VLAN will be supported on that link.

On which switch would you always find a root port?
a) Switch that does not have any blocking ports
b) Switch that has a designated port
c) Root switch
d) Nonroot switch
e) Switch that has forwarding ports

Answer option D is correct.

Only nonroot switches have root ports.

The root switch does not have any root ports for the VLAN it is the root of. A root switch has all forwarding ports (as could a nonroot switch if there were no redundant links). A root switch does not have blocking ports, but because it is the root it also does not have any root ports on it. Root switches and nonroot switches both could have designated ports, and the root switch would not have any root ports.


Chapter: Spanning Tree Protocol Concepts

A user at a router CLI interface configuration mode command prompt issues the command ip address 10.1.1.22 255.255.255.0. When does the command take effect?


a)After the user exits configuration mode


b)As soon as the configuration is saved


c)After the user presses Enter


d)After the command apply is entered

Explanation: Answer option C is correct.

Commands on Cisco routers take effect after Enter is pressed. Remember to save configurations after you have configured your router.

Your organization’s security manager informs you that a station with the MAC address of 00-10-DC-56-EC-96 is causing a broadcast storm. How can you locate this station on your Cisco 2960 switch?


a) Issue the show mac address 0010.DC56.DC96 command


b) Issue the show address 0010.DC56.EC96 command


c) Issue the show mac address-table dynamic address 0010.DC56.EC96 command


d) Issue the show mac address-dynamic 0010.DC56.DC96 command

c
The show mac address-table dynamic address 0010.DC56.EC96 command will show what port that MAC address is plugged into on the switch

DSL operates at which of the following OSI layers?


Physical


Data link


Network


Transport


Session


Application

ab

Bridges and switches help decrease Ethernet congestion by using which two of the following methods?


a)Increasing bandwidth


b)Separating broadcast domains


c)Decreasing logical address space


d)Separating collision domains

DA


Segmenting Ethernet networks with a bridge or switch reduces collisions. In addition, each port of a bridge or switch is its own Ethernet segment and does not share bandwidth with the other segments, increasing the bandwidth available across the network.

Which of the following are reserved private IP addresses, according to RFC 1918?


a) 192.168.10.1


b) 172.29.42.167


c) 169.254.128.222


d) 127.10.172.192


e) 10.127.255.37

Answer options E, B , and A are correct.

The RFC 1918 private network numbers are 10.0.0.0, Class Bs between 172.16.0.0 and 172.31.0.0 (inclusive), and all Class C networks that begin with 192.168. All addresses beginning with 127 are reserved, but not as valid private IP addresses.

Which of the following is not considered a security benefit of using Internet VPNs?


a) Anti-replay


b) Data integrity


c) Accounting


d) Authentication


e) Privacy

c) Accounting

What is true about the command switchport nonegotiate?


a) Using this command prevents a switchport from being a trunk port.


b) When used, if a connected switch is using dynamic desirable or dynamic auto, it will not form a trunk.


c) This is on by default.


d) This will cause DTP packets to be sent, preventing a trunk from being negotiated.


e) It is used on a router to prevent VLAN hopping.

Explanation: Answer option B is correct.

When switchport nonegotiate is used, if a connected switch is using dynamic desirable or dynamic auto, it will not form a trunk.

Even with switchport nonegotiate being used, an interface can still be hard coded to become a trunk port. The command is used on a switch, not a router. The command causes DTP message to not be sent. The default is that DTP messages are sent, and the switchport nonegotiate command disables these from being sent.

What is the purpose of the FCS field in an HDLC frame?


a) Used to indicate to the receiving device that a new frame is arriving


b) Used for identifying the type of L3 payload being carried in the frame


c) Specifies the destination IP address for the frame


d) Used for error detection


e) Identifies the destination L2 address for the frame

Explanation: Answer option D is correct.

The FCS field is used for error detection and is included as a trailer in the HDLC frame.

The address field in the HDLC header indicates the Layer 2 destination address. The HDLC header and trailer information doesn’t include the Layer 3 IP destination address (that is in the Layer 3 header information). The Type field in the HDLC header identifies the type of Layer 3 payload that is being encapsulated. A preamble is the concept of a recognizable bit pattern so that the receiving node will realize that a new frame is arriving. In HDLC, this is a field named Flagu

IP functions at what layer of the OSI Reference Model?


a) Transport


b) Network


c) Physical


d) Session

b

Which layer of the OSI Reference Model defines end-to-end delivery of packets?


a)The Network layer


b)The Session layer


c)The Transport layer


d)The Link layer


e)The Ozone layer

a Network layer



The Session layer is responsible for starting, controlling, and ending sessions.

The Transport layer deals with error recovery, segmentation of large application data blocks for transport, and the reassembly of segmented application data.

The OSI Network layer defines the end-to-end routing of data. The similarly-named TCP/IP Network Interface layer, also called the Network Access layer, defines the lowest layer of the TCP/IP model when it is shown as a 4-layer model. (The TCP/IP Link layer, also sometimes called the Network Interface or Network Access layer, may be broken into the Data Link and Physical layers to match the terms used by OSI.)
The Ozone layer is a protective shield designed to protect against various forms of radiation.

Which of the following describe a MAC address? a) Layer 1 address


b) Layer 2 address


c) Layer 3 address


d) 32 bits


e) 48 bits


f) 128 bits

Explanation: Answer options B and E are correct.

MAC addresses are 48 bits (6 bytes) long, usually written as 12 hexadecimal digits. In Cisco products, MAC addresses are often displayed 4 hex digits (2 bytes) at a time, separated by periods, for example, 0200.1234.BEEF.

What is the purpose of the FCS field in an HDLC frame?


A) Identifies the destination L2 address for the frame


B) Used for error detection


C) Specifies the destination IP address for the frame


D) Used for identifying the type of L3 payload being carried in the frame


E) Used to indicate to the receiving device that a new frame is arriving

Answer option B is correct.

The FCS field is used for error detection and is included as a trailer in the HDLC frame.

The address field in the HDLC header indicates the Layer 2 destination address. The HDLC header and trailer information doesn’t include the Layer 3 IP destination address (that is in the Layer 3 header information). The Type field in the HDLC header identifies the type of Layer 3 payload that is being encapsulated. A preamble is the concept of a recognizable bit pattern so that the receiving node will realize that a new frame is arriving. In HDLC, this is a field named Flag.

When PC1 on an Ethernet network sends a packet to a remote PC2 that is on another Ethernet network, and the packet is routed by exactly two routers, connected by an HDLC WAN connection, how many Layer 2 headers will be used in the forwarding of the packet from PC1 to PC2?


A)1


B)2


C)3


D)4


E)None. HDLC doesn’t use Ethernet headers.

Explanation: Answer option C is correct.

PC1 will use an Ethernet header, the first router will use an HDLC header, and the second router will use an Ethernet header, for a total of three.

HDLC uses HDLC Layer 2 headers for any HDLC next-hop routers in the path. The HDLC would contribute to one of the headers being used in the path between PC1 and PC2.

How does the receiver of an HDLC frame know what has been encapsulated within that frame? a) HDLC only encapsulates IPv4


b) Based on the FCS field


c) From the IP address (IPv4, IPv6, and so on)


d) The Type field in the header


e) Based on the Flag field

Explanation: Answer option D is correct.

In the HDLC header, the Type field indicates the type of Layer 3 packet encapsulated within the HDLC Layer 2 frame.

HDLC can encapsulate many different types of protocols, not just IPv4. The FCS field is used for error detection. The Flag field is similar to an Ethernet preamble, which is a specific bit pattern that allows a receiving device to realize that a new frame is arriving. The IP address is in the L3 header, not in the HDLC header.

Which of the following are examples of common Internet access links?


a)Leased line


b)HDLC


c)DSL


d)Cable


e)PPP

Answer options A, C , and D are correct.

Leased lines, DSL, and cable are all examples of common Internet access links.

HDLC and PPP are Layer 2 encapsulation methods, not link types.

Which protocol finds an unknown Layer 2 address from a known IP address?


a)DNS


b)ARP


c)ICMP


d)DHCP

b

Q: What is the correct sequence for TCP connection establishment?


a)(1) SYN (2) SYN ACK (3)


b)ACK (1) ACK (2) SYN ACK (3) SYN


c)There is no sequence because TCP is a connectionless protocol.


d)(1) SYN (2) ACK (3) SYN

Explanation: Answer option A is correct.

TCP uses a three-way connection establishment flow that must be completed before data transfer can begin. SYN means synchronize the sequence numbers, and ACK means that the acknowledgment field is valid in this header.


Which of the following are characteristics of UDP?
a) UDP is connectionless.
b) UDP is connection-oriented.
c) UDP is at the Transport layer.
d) UDP is used with TFTP.
e) UDP uses no acknowledgments.
f) UDP is unreliable.

Answer options A, C , D , E , and F are correct.

A user sits at her PC at her desk inside an Enterprise network. She opens a web browser and connects to a website that sits on the Internet. Which of the following answers is most true about the applications and functions used as a result of this user's actions?

a) The transfer of files uses the FTP protocol.
b) UDP is used as part of the process of transferring files from the web server to the user's web browser.
c) UDP is used as part of the process of resolving the website's name into the default gateway's MAC address.
d) The user's PC sends at least two messages to the server before requesting the specific web page.

Explanation: Answer option D is correct.

Web browsers connect to web servers by referencing the URL of the web server. The client must find the hostname part of the URL and then find the IP address (not the MAC address) used by that host, typically by using a DNS request. The browser then uses HTTP to get the contents of the web page, with HTTP using TCP. The browser must initiate a TCP connection to the server, which requires a three-way initialization handshake, with two of those messages going from the user's PC to the server.

An internetwork supports traditional data applications such as web, file transfer, and chat, as well as Voice over IP (VoIP) and Video over IP. Which of the following two statements are most accurate about the impact of these applications on the internetwork?
a) If all types of traffic experience high jitter, data applications tend to work better than VoIP and video over IP.


b) A single VoIP call tends to take less bandwidth than a single videoconference or a single person using a web browser to actively browse websites.


c) Chat typically requires lower delay than video over IP.


d) VoIP traffic needs low delay and low jitter but can tolerate more packet loss than web applications.

Explanation: Answer options A and B are correct.


VoIP traffic typically requires low bandwidth but requires low delay and low jitter (variation in delay) and prefers little or no packet loss. Two-way video has the same requirements, but it generates much more traffic. Web applications use HTTP, which uses TCP, which in turn can recover from lost packets.

A user in an Enterprise network sits at her PC and connects to a web server inside the Enterprise by entering the URL http://www.example.com/payroll.html into the browser's window and pressing Enter. Which of the following answers are true about the actions taken by the user's PC?
a) The PC uses Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) to get the files that comprise the requested web page.
b) If any packets sent by the server are lost in transit, HTTP causes the server to resend the lost data.
c) All the text after the // in the URL (in the question) is considered to be the server's hostname and is used in the DNS request to find the server's IP address.
d) The user's action of entering the URL and pressing Enter may result in multiple HTTP get requests being made to the server.

Answer options A and D are correct.

Web browsers use HTTP, which in turn uses TCP. The web browser connects to the server with a TCP connection and issues a get request to get the first file in the web page. That object may include instructions to load additional files (objects), again with HTTP get requests. The hostname that identifies the server is located between the double slash (//) and the single slash (/) in the URL; the text after the single slash identifies the web page on that particular server.

A switch receives a frame whose source MAC address has not been seen by the switch since the switch was most recently powered on. What is the first thing a switch does in reaction to this frame?
a) It forwards the frame out all ports, except the one on which the frame arrived.
b) It adds the source and destination MAC address to the MAC table associated with the incoming interface.
c) It adds the source MAC address to its MAC table.
d) It checks the frame for loops.

Explanation: Answer option C is correct.

The switch first creates an entry in its MAC table for the new address; then it forwards the frame appropriately.

Which type of switch processing checks the first 64 bytes of a frame to ensure that a collision has not occurred before forwarding the frame?
a) Fragment-free
b) Cut-through
c) Store-and-forward
d) Line-speed

Answer option A is correct.

Fragment-free switching checks the first 64 bytes of a frame. It has slightly more latency than cut-through switching.

Bridges and switches help decrease Ethernet congestion by using which two of the following methods?
a) Separating collision domains
b) Increasing bandwidth
c) Separating broadcast domains
d) Decreasing logical address space

Answer options A and B are correct.

A network engineer has logged into router R1, entered enable mode, and entered the following commands in succession:


configure terminal
interface fa0/0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
exit
exit
copy running-config startup-config


After which command does R1 start using 10.1.1.1 as its Fa0/0 IP address?


a) After the user enters the first exit command and presses Enter
b) After the user enters the ip address command and presses Enter
c) After the user enters the copy running-config startup-config command and presses Enter
d) After the user enters the second exit command and presses Enter

b



Answer option B is correct.

IOS starts using the commands entered in configuration mode as soon as the user presses Enter at the end of the command. The user does not have to exit configuration mode, issue a command to enable or save the commands, or save the configuration to NVRAM to use the configuration.

When you use the banner motd # command on a router or switch, what is the # character used for?
a) It identifies the delimiting character that will also be used again at the end of the message.
b) It specifies that the message will be ASCII characters.
c) It instructs the router to display the message after the character is pressed.
d) It is the character that the router uses to signal an abort when displacing the message.

Explanation: Answer option A is correct.

The banner motd command displays a banner when you log into the router. The character that follows the motd tells the router that you are done entering the message. Always select a character that you will not use in your message.

Two new Cisco 2960 switches are removed from their cardboard boxes. The two switches have been placed into a rack and power applied, but no Ethernet cables are connected yet. Which of the following answers describes the method to get the two switches to communicate using an 802.1Q trunk which requires the least number of steps?
a) Connect any Fast Ethernet port on one switch to any Fast Ethernet port on the other switch by using a crossover cable.
b) Connect any Fast Ethernet port on one switch to the same number Fast Ethernet port on the other switch (for example, fa0/1 and fa0/1) by using a crossover cable.
c) Connect the switches using a crossover cable on two Fastethernet ports, and then configure trunking on just one of the two switches using the switchport mode trunk interface subcommand.
d) Connect the switches using a crossover cable on two Fastethernet ports, and then configure trunking on both switches by using the switchport mode trunk interface subcommand
e) Cisco 2960 switches do not support 802.1Q trunking, so none of these steps is required.

Answer option C is correct.

By default, two Cisco 2960 switches that have a crossover cable connected will not automatically form an 802.1Q trunk because of the default trunking setting of dynamic auto. To create a trunk, one of the two switches can be configured to trunk (switchport mode trunk) or to initiate the negotiation of trunking (switchport mode dynamic desirable).

Which of the following are characteristics of 802.1Q?
a) Encapsulates a normal Ethernet frame before forwarding it over a trunk
b) Does not encapsulate a normal Ethernet frame before forwarding, but instead inserts a header after the destination and source MAC addresses
c) Uses the concept of a native VLAN
d) Cisco proprietary
e) Supported by IP Phones
f) Supported by 2960 switches

Explanation: Answer options B, C, E , and F are correct.

802.1Q inserts a header after the address and type fields of a normal Ethernet frame.

Your customer is having a connectivity problem with his Cisco network and has asked for your assistance. He provided a topology diagram and has given you user mode access through an SSH connection. What could be used to verify that the topology diagram provided is accurate?
a) LLDP
b) CDP
c) PING
d) Telnet
e) 802.1q

b



Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) can be used to either confirm or fix the documentation shown in a network diagram. Confirming that the network is actually cabled to match the network diagram is a good idea before troubleshooting.

LLDP is similar in function to CDP and is supported by Cisco and other vendors but is not on by default, and therefore is likely not to be available for verifying the topology diagram. PING is a good tool for connectivity testing, but from user mode (without recording options), it doesn’t allow verification of the logical path between devices in the network. Telnet is used for remote connectivity but doesn’t verify the interconnections in the network. 802.1q is a protocol used for trunks and wouldn’t be useful in verifying all the devices in a topology diagram (especially those connections that didn’t involve any type of trunk).

Which of the following commands list at least three lines of output per neighbor that describe information about a neighboring Cisco device?
a) show cdp
b) show cdp neighbors
c) show cdp neighbors detail
d) show cdp entry name
e) show cdp traffic
f) show cdp interface [type number]

Answer options C and D are correct.

The commands listed in the two correct answers list the same roughly 15 lines of information about a neighbor. The show cdp neighbors command lists only a single line of summary information. The other three answers list commands that list information about the operation of CDP, as opposed to the information learned by CDP.

Which command displays the Frame Relay LMI standard in use?
a) show frame-relay lmi
b) show frame-relay map
c) show frame-relay pvc
d) show frame-relay signalling
e) show interfaces
f) show running-config

Explanation: Answer option A is correct.

The show frame signaling command is invalid. LMI is automatically determined, so it will not show in the configuration. The show frame-relay map command shows mapping information, but not LMI information.

Given the show ip protocols command output in the exhibit, how many ospf neighbors does this router have?



HICKORY#show ip protocols Routing Protocol is "ospf 1" Sending updates every 0 seconds Invalid after 0 seconds, hold down 0, flushed after 0 Outgoing update filter list for all interfaces is Incoming update filter list for all interfaces is Redistributing: ospf 1 Routing for Networks: 0.0.0.0 Routing Information Sources: Gateway Distance Last Update 10.255.255.1 110 00:07:52 Distance: (default is 110)



a)0


b)1


c)2


d)3

Explanation: Answer option B is correct.

You can find a list of devices that have exchanged routing information under Routing Information Sources; only one gateway is listed in the command output. These gateways (remember, the term gateway is just another term for router) are the neighbors known by this router.

Which of the following IP addresses could be assigned to a host?
a) 12.150.146.96/27
b) 225.16.102.232/28
c) 0.102.62.1/24
d) 150.159.216.202/24
e) 214.122.127.76/26



Explanation: Answer options D and E are correct.


For 12.150.146.96/27, the number is the subnet number, with a range of valid IP addresses 12.150.146.97 through 12.150.146.126. For 225.16.102.232, the first octet means that the address is a multicast (Class D) address and cannot be assigned to an interface as a unicast IP address. For address 0.102.62.1, the first octet is 0, which is a reserved value. 150.159.216.202/24 is a valid address, with its subnet having a range of valid addresses 150.159.216.1 through 150.159.216.254. 214.122.127.76/26 is also a valid address, in subnet 214.122.127.64, whose range of valid addresses is 214.122.127.65 through 214.122.127.126.
Chapter: Analyzing Existing Subnets
Objective: Practice Analyzing Existing Subnets

When originally designed, a branch office needed only 6 IP addresses, and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248 was used. Two more devices need IP addresses on that LAN. Thankfully VLSM was properly and carefully implemented and there are several more subnets available to accommodate this new growth. Which of the following answers would work for adding these two new hosts to the LAN?
a) Add a second router with an extra Ethernet port and assign a new subnet to the branch office
b) Assign an extra subnet to the branch office by putting a secondary IP address on the router at the office
c) Replace the existing subnet number with a new larger subnet
d) Use NAT to overlap the address at the branch office

Explanation: Answer options B and C are correct.

Since care was taken during the design phase, it is possible to simply add a new subnet to the branch office by adding a secondary IP address to the LAN interface of the router at the branch office. Also, a larger subnet could be assigned, which may or may not be difficult, depending on whether any static IP addresses are configured.

When using static routes, you type in ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0, two options are available to specify the next hop as the next parameters in the command. Select the two valid choices.
a) s1
b) 10.2.2.2
c) via 10.2.2.2
d) pass-to 10.2.2.2
e) via s1

Answer options A and B are correct.

When using the ip route command, you can specify an IP address as the next hop, or an interface out which to send the packet.

You would like to limit telnet connection into your router to a range of IP address. You have created the access list numbered 99, how do you apply this ACL to limit telnet connections?
a) access-class 99 in under the VTY interface
b) access-group 99 in under the VTY interfaces
c) access-group 99 in under the ethernet interfaces
d) access-class 99 in under the ethernet interfaces

Answer option A is correct.


The correct command to apply an ACL to VTY interfaces is access-class under the VTY interfaces.

NAT translates a private address 192.168.1.1 to a public IP address 12.150.146.100. How would 192.168.1.1 be described?
a) Global
b) Inside
c) Local
d) Outside

Answer options B and C are correct.

The term inside refers to a host inside the Enterprise network, which often uses a private (RFC 1918) address inside the Enterprise. The term localrefers to an address used for that host in the local, or Enterprise, network.

For a particular NAT implementation, a private address 192.168.1.1 should always be translated with a 1:1 mapping to IP address 12.150.146.100. Which command accomplishes this?
a) ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.1 12.150.146.100
b) ip nat outside source static 192.168.1.1 12.150.146.100
c) ip nat inside source int s0 overload
d) ip nat inside source list 1 pool outside

Explanation: Answer option A is correct.

You accomplish 1:1 static mapping with the ip nat inside source command, with the first IP address being the inside local address, and the second being the inside global address.

PC1 and PC2 reside on the same VLAN. Both hosts use IPv6. When PC1 pings PC2’s IPv6 address, PC1 does not know PC2’s MAC address. How does PC1 learn PC2’s MAC address?
a) ARP
b) DHCP
c) Stateless autoconfiguration
d) NDP

Explanation: Answer option D is correct.

Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) acts as a replacement for several IPv4 protocols, including ARP, as well as providing several new functions for IPv6. ARP does not exist in IPv6.

Your organization’s security manager informs you that a station with the MAC address of 00-10-DC-56-EC-96 is causing a broadcast storm. How can you locate this station on your Cisco 2960 switch?
a) Issue the show mac address-table dynamic address 0010.DC56.EC96 command
b) Issue the show address 0010.DC56.EC96 command
c) Issue the show mac address 0010.DC56.DC96 command
d) Issue the show mac address-dynamic 0010.DC56.DC96 command

Answer option A is correct.

The show mac address-table dynamic address 0010.DC56.EC96 command will show what port that MAC address is plugged into on the switch

Which of the following are functions provided by Spanning Tree Protocol?
a) Prevents broadcast storms
b) Uses TTL to control loops in the network
c) Prevents MAC table instability
d) Places a Layer 3 port into blocking state if it is a parallel (redundant) path that would cause a loop
e) Prevents multiple copes of a single frame from being forwarded


Explanation: Answer options A, C, and E are correct.


By blocking on specific ports that would otherwise be parallel Layer 2 paths, STP prevents Layer 2 loops, thus preventing broadcast storms, preventing MAC table instability due to the a single-source Layer 2 address showing up on multiple different ports, and preventing multiple copies of a single frame from being forwarded (because spanning tree is blocking on enough ports to stop the forwarding of frames on parallel paths).


STP does not use any TTL mechanism in a frame header (there is not one there); that is why it must do blocking on Layer 2 ports where an otherwise parallel path would be. STP performs blocking on Layer 2 ports, not Layer 3 ports.

If two nonroot switches were connected together in a three-switch topology, the connection between the two switches would result in a parallel path. Which of the following would occur in STP?
a) The device with the lowest BID would always become designated, and the other switch would block.
b) The device with the highest BID would become designated, and the other switch would block.
c) The switch with the lowest root cost would become designated, and the other switch would block.
d) The switch with the highest root cost would become designated, and the other switch would block.
e) The switch with the lowest priority setting would become designated, and the other switch would block.


Answer option C is correct.

The device with the lowest root cost becomes the designated port for a segment, and the other switch then moves to blocking state for that link.

The lowest cost to root is the leading factor in determining who will be designated and who will block. If the costs were equal, the lowest BID between the two nonroot switches would be used to determine who would be designated for that link.

If spanning tree is disabled, what are the potential issues with a redundant Layer 2 network design?

a) Broadcast storms


b) TTL expiring


c) MAC database instability


d) Duplicate IP addresses


e) Multiple (duplicate) frames being seen

Answer options A, C, and E are correct.

Without spanning tree, and if parallel Layer 2 paths exist, there would be loops. As a result, broadcast storms, duplicate frames, and MAC table flapping (where the switch is relearning the same MAC address but on different ports back and forth over and over again) would all be symptoms.

There are no TTL mechanisms at Layer 2. IP addresses are a Layer 3 function and would not be caused from a Layer 2 loop.

Which of the following ways could remove the need for spanning tree?
a) No Layer 2 parallel paths in the network
b) Multiple Layer 2 paths, but only use two switches
c) Using EtherChannel to combine multiple parallel segments into one logical link
d) Use Rapid Spanning Tree
e) Using more trunks rather than access ports


Answer options A and C are correct.

STP would not be needed if there were no redundant parallel Layer 2 paths in the network. One way of removing parallel paths is to make them into a single logical link, as with EtherChannel.

If there were only two switches, and they had parallel paths, STP would be needed to prevent the Layer 2 loop. Rapid Spanning Tree is still spanning tree, and that alone would not remove the need for it. Parallel paths can be created over access or trunk ports, and that alone would not remove the need for spanning tree.

When configuring interfaces to be part of the same EtherChannel, which of the following should you configure identically?
a) Speed
b) Duplex
c) Allowed VLANs on a trunk
d) Access VLAN on an access port
e) MAC addresses on a trunk or access port


Answer options A, B, C, and D are correct.

Speed, duplex, allowed VLANS on trunk ports, and the same access VLAN on access ports should all match for interfaces belonging to the EtherChannel bundle.

The MAC addresses for the ports do not have to match, but all the other listed parameters must match.

When a computer issues a ping request, and gets a ping reply, which protocol is being used to communicate the reachability information?
a) TCP
b) UDP
c) ARP
d) HTTP
e) ICMP

Explanation: Answer option E is correct.


Ping uses the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).


Ping uses ICMP, not TCP, UDP, ARP, or HTTP.

What is one of the main drawbacks to using autosummarization?

a) Autosummarization uses a lot of memory


b) Autosummarization uses requires a high powered router


c) Autosummarization only works when using two or more protocols


d) Autosummarization requires networks to be contiguous

Answer option D is correct.

Autosummarization has been a feature of IP routing protocols for a long time, since the original classful routing protocols. As such, it was a feature of routing protocols that existed on older, less powerful routers, that had less memory, so by today's standards, it uses little memory, and little processing. However, like those early classful routing protocols, autosummarization assumes that networks are contiguous.

Which of the following represents the total cost between the device forwarding a BPDU and the switch in STP that has the lowest BID?

a) Root bridge ID


b) Sender’s bridge ID


c) Sender’s root cost


d) Hello timer


e) Forward delay

Answer option C is correct.

The STP cost between the switch that is advertising the STP BPDU and the root of STP is the sender’s root cost.

Bridge IDs are just identifiers of devices in STP and by themselves do not represent cost. The hello timer is used in spanning tree and is controlled by the root switch, as is the forward delay timer.

PortFast enables you to set ports on your switch to be placed in a forwarding state once the host device is plugged in. What Cisco feature enables you to detect switches or any other networking devices that could cause problems on links with PortFast enabled?

a) Cisco BPDU Guard
b) IEEE BPDU Guard
c) PortGuard
d) BPDU Protect


Answer option A is correct.

BPDU Guard will shutdown a port that receives a BPDU packet from another switch. Remember that BPDU Guard is a Cisco Proprietary protocol.

When configuring a serial interface, what is the purpose of the bandwidth command?


A)It tells the router how fast to physically encode bits out the serial interface.


b)It defines the bandwidth setting that the router advertises in CDP updates sent out that interface.


c)Its only purpose is to document the link's speed.


d)It is used in EIGRP to calculate metrics.

Answer option D is correct.

The bandwidth command affects the default metric calculation for both OSPF and EIGRP. It also affects the utilization statistics on serial interfaces. It has other uses as well. The clock rate interface subcommand can affect the link's speed when building a back-to-back serial link.

What is the correct order for the spanning-tree algorithm?


A: Elect a designated port for each segment.
B: Elect a root port for each nonroot switch.
C: Root ports and designated ports transition to the forwarding state.
D: Elect a root bridge.
a) A, C, D, B
b) D, C, B, A
c) A, C, B, D
d) C, A, B, D
e) None of the answers provided are the correct order

Answer option E is correct.

None of the provided orders are correct.

The correct order is as follows:

D: Elect a root bridge.
B: Elect a root port for each nonroot bridge.
A: Elect a designated port for each segment.
C: Root ports and designated ports transition to the forwarding state.

Which of the following are valid types of STP?
a) 802.1Q
b) 802.1D
c) 802.1w
d) PVST+
e) Rapid PVST+


Answer options B, C, D, and E are correct.

Legacy STP is 802.1D. PVST+ is the Cisco implementation of that protocol. 802.1w is Rapid Spanning Tree, and Rapid PVST+ is Cisco’s implementation of that protocol.

802.1Q is a trunking protocol.

Your security manager has asked you to implement a policy that will tell your switch to only accept frames sent from MAC address 0010.DC56.EC96 on a particular switch port. Which of the following command(s) on a 2960 switch will be part of the correct configuration?

a) switchport port-security mac-address 0010.DC56.EC96


b) switchport port-security 0010.DC56.EC96


c) port-security mac-address 0010.DC56.EC96


d) port-security 0010.DC56.EC96

Explanation: Answer option A is correct.

The switchport port-security mac-address 0010.DC56.EC96 command will limit only the MAC address listed on the port. This port will be shutdown if a different MAC address appears on the port.

Which of the following is true about PortFast and BPDU Guard?

a) BPDU Guard is not compatible with PortFast (on the same interface).


b) PortFast enables fast transition to the “root port” state, in the event of a topology change.


c) If a BPDU is seen on a port, PortFast quickly shuts down that port.


d) If a BPDU is seen on a port, BPDU Guard filters that packet from entering the switch and continues to allow normal transit traffic.


e) BPDU Guard shuts down a port if a BPDU is seen on that port.

Answer option E is correct.

BPDU Guard shuts down a port if a BPDU is seen on that port and does not allow forwarding of further traffic until that port is enabled again.

You can configure BPDU Guard on ports that are enabled with PortFast. PortFast is usually used on access ports, not ports facing other switches. PortFast does not shut down ports based on seeing a BPDU (which is what BPDU Guard does). BPDU Guard shuts down the port for all traffic.

Which of the following would be in a forwarding state in STP?


a) All the root ports on the root switch
b) The root port on a nonroot switch
c) Designated ports
d) All the ports on the root switch
e) Blocking ports after convergence

Answer options B, C, and D are correct.

Root ports (on nonroot switches) are in a forwarding state, as are designated ports. All the ports on the root switch are designated ports, and as a result are all forwarding.

Root switches do not have any root ports; they are all designated ports. Blocking ports are not in a forwarding state.

Which of the following are LACP modes that you can use with EtherChannel configuration?

a) Auto


b) On


c) Desirable


d) Active


e) Passive

Explanation: Answer options D and E are correct.

Active and passive are the two mode choices for LACP.

Auto and desirable are two modes for PAgP, and the on option indicates that neither LACP nor PAgP messages will be sent.

Which of the following are true?

a) A VLAN is a Layer 3 domain that can span multiple physical LAN segments.


b) Trunks carry traffic for multiple VLANs only if those VLANs exist on the switch and are allowed on the trunked interfaces.


c) It is a recommended practice to allow DTP to dynamically negotiate trunks.


d) A native VLAN mismatch will be automatically adjusted when DTP is used.


e) Multiple Layer 2 interfaces can be bound together to increase the overall throughput.

Explanation: Answer options B and E are correct.


Trunks carry traffic for multiple VLANs only if those VLANs exist on the switch and are allowed on the trunked interfaces. EtherChannel allows the bonding of multiple interfaces together for one larger logical interface.


A VLAN is a Layer 2 broadcast domain, although normally a single IP (Layer 3) subnet is associated with each Layer 2 VLAN. DTP is dangerous because it could allow an attacker to dynamically negotiate a trunk with a switch, and as therefore it is recommended that it be turned off. A VLAN mismatch is not automatically adjusted by DTP and should be the same on both ends of a trunk.

Which of the following answers list either a component or function that is typically required for a high-speed Internet connection, using a cable company, from a home or small office?
a) Router with cable TV connection
b) LAN switch
c) Router with a serial interface
d) Network Address Translation


Explanation: Answer options A, B, and D are correct.


Most high-speed Internet connections from the home include a router and either a cable or DSL modem, often contained in a single device. Most connections use Network Address Translation and a LAN switch to allow multiple devices to connect to the home network. Most home office Internet connections do not use a router with a serial interface; these interfaces typically connect Enterprise routers to serial links or Frame Relay access links.

Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP transport layer protocols? (Choose
two answers.)
a. Ethernet
b. HTTP
c. IP
d. UDP
e. SMTP
f. TCP

fd

Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP data link layer protocols? (Choose
two answers.)
a. Ethernet
b. HTTP
c. IP
d. UDP
e. SMTP
f. TCP
g. PPP


ag

The process of HTTP asking TCP to send some data and making sure that it is received
correctly is an example of what?
a. Same-layer interaction
b. Adjacent-layer interaction
c. OSI model
d. All of these answers are correct

b

The process of TCP on one computer marking a TCP segment as segment 1, and the receiving
computer then acknowledging the receipt of TCP segment 1 is an example of what?
a. Data encapsulation
b. Same-layer interaction
c. Adjacent-layer interaction
d. OSI model
e. All of these answers are correct.


b

The process of a web server adding a TCP header to the contents of a web page, followed by
adding an IP header and then adding a data link header and trailer is an example of what?


a. Data encapsulation
b. Same-layer interaction
c. OSI model
d. All of these answers are correct.

a

Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when
encapsulating data inside data link layer headers and trailers?
a. Data
b. Chunk
c. Segment
d. Frame
e. Packet

d

Which OSI layer defines the functions of logical network-wide addressing and routing?
a. Layer 1
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4
e. Layer 5, 6, or 7

c

Which OSI layer defines the standards for cabling and connectors?
a. Layer 1
b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4
e. Layer 5, 6, or 7

a

Which of the following terms are not valid terms for the names of the seven OSI layers?
(Choose two answers.)
a. Application
b. Data link
c. Transmission
d. Presentation
e. Internet
f. Session

ce

TCP/IP application layer protocols provide

TCP/IP application layer protocols provide services to the application software running on a computer. The application layer does not define the application itself, but it defines services that applications need.

Who and when created the first browser?

HTTP did not exist until Tim Berners-Lee created the first web browser and web server in the early 1990s

TCP/IP Transport Layer



protocols and usage

TCP/IP transport layer includes a smaller number of protocols. The two most commonly used transport layer protocols are the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and the User Datagram Protocol (UDP).

Transport layer protocols provide services to the application layer protocols that reside one layer higher in the TCP/IP model

TCP/IP update

Application


Transport


Network


Data Link


Physical


same-layer interaction on different computers

the two computers use a protocol (an agreed-to set of rules) to communicate with the same layer on another computer. The protocol defined by each layer uses a header that is transmitted between the computers to communicate what each computer wants to do. Header information added by a layer of the sending computer is processed by the same layer of the receiving computer

Adjacent-layer interaction on the same computer

On a single computer, one layer provides a service to a higher layer. The software or hardware that implements the higher later requests that the next lower layer perform the needed function.


AVG


NDP

Active Virtual Gateway (AVG)


GLBP elects one AVG (Active Virtual Gateway) for each group.



Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)


acts as a replacement for several IPv4 protocols, including ARP, as well as providing several new functions for IPv6. ARP does not exist in IPv6.

TCP/IP Network Layer



Protocols and purpose

The application layer includes many protocols. The transport layer includes fewer, most notably, TCP and UDP. The TCP/IP network layer includes a small number of protocols, but only one major protocol: the Internet Protocol (IP). In fact, the name TCP/IP is simply the names of the two most common protocols (TCP and IP) separated by a /.

IP provides several features, most importantly, addressing and routing. This section begins by comparing IP’s addressing and routing with another commonly known system that uses addressing and routing: the postal service.

TCP/IP Link Layer (Data Link Plus Physical)



Protocols and purpose

The TCP/IP model’s original link layer defines the protocols and hardware required to deliver data across some physical network. The term link refers to the physical connections, or links, between two devices and the protocols used to control those links.


Host or router then uses link-layer details to send that packet to the next host/router.

segment, packet, and frame and their layers

segment for the transport layer,


packet for the network layer,


and frame for the data link layer

osi vs tcp/ip

OSI


7.Application


6.Presentation


5.Session


4.Transport


3.Network


2.Data Link


1.Physical



TCP/IP


5-7.Application


4.Transport


3.Internet


1-2 Link (Data Link & Physical)

Which term refers to the headers and possibly trailers defined by the TCP/IP data link layer, and the data encapsulated following that header?


a)Bits


b)Frame


c)Packet


d)Segment

b

Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity created when encapsulating data inside data link layer headers and trailers?

A. Frame


B. Segment


C. Chunk


D. Data


E. Packet

a

The OSI Layer 3, the network layer, provides the following?

A. These standards deal with the physical characteristics of the transmission medium, including connectors, pins, use of pins, electrical currents, encoding, light modulation, and the rules for how to activate and deactivate the use of the physical medium.


B. This layer defines three main features: logical addressing, routing (forwarding), and path determination.


C. The rules that determine when a device can send data over a particular medium.


D. Focuses on issues related to data delivery to another computer (for example, error recovery and flow control).


c


Layer 3 of the OSI model deals primarily with IP addressing and routing.

Each answer lists two types of devices used in a 100BASE-T network. If these devices were connected with UTP Ethernet cables, which pairs of devices would require a straight-through cable? (Choose three answers.)


A. Hub and switch


B. Router and hub


C. Wireless access point (Ethernet port) and switch


D. PC and router


E. PC and switch

cbe


Routers, wireless access point Ethernet ports, and PC NICs all send using pins 1 and 2, whereas hubs and LAN switches transmit on pins 3 and 6. Straight-through cables connect devices that use opposite pin pairs for sending, because the cable does not need to cross the pairs.

Which of the following is not true of DSL technology?

A. Creates high-speed WAN links


B. Replaces leased lines


C. Relatively short physical link


D. Uses single-pair telephone line

c

Encapsulation happens differently when using EoMPLS.

A. FALSE


B. TRUE

B

Which of the following Internet access links are used by many businesses?


A. DSL


B. Leased line


C. Ethernet


D. Cable

b

Which of the following is not true of DSL technology?

A. Creates high-speed WAN links


B. Uses single-pair telephone line


C. Relatively short physical link


D. Replaces leased lines

d

Which of the following are functions of OSI Layer 3 protocols? (Choose two answers.)
A. Path selection


B. Arbitration


C. Error recovery


D. Logical addressing


E. Physical addressing

Answer options D and A are correct.

The network layer defines logical addressing, in contrast to physical addressing. The logical address structure allows easy grouping of addresses, which makes routing more efficient. Path selection refers to the process of choosing the best routes to use in the network. Physical addressing and arbitration typically are data link layer functions, and error recovery typically is a transport layer function.

Imagine a network with two routers that are connected with a point-to-point HDLC serial link. Each router has an Ethernet, with PC1 sharing the Ethernet with Router1 and PC2 sharing the Ethernet with Router2. When PC1 sends data to PC2, which of the following is true?

A. Router1 removes the Ethernet, IP, and TCP headers and rebuilds the appropriate headers before forwarding the packet to Router2.


B. Router1 strips the Ethernet header and trailer off the frame received from PC1, never to be used again.


C. Router1 encapsulates the Ethernet frame inside an HDLC header and sends the frame to Router2, which extracts the Ethernet frame for forwarding to PC2.


D. Router1 strips the Ethernet header and trailer off the frame received from PC1, which is exactly re-created by Router2 before forwarding data to PC2.

Explanation: Answer option B is correct.

PC1 will send an Ethernet frame to Router1, with PC1’s MAC address as the source address and Router1’s MAC address as the destination address. Router1 will remove the encapsulated IP packet from that Ethernet frame, discarding the frame header and trailer. Router1 will forward the IP packet by first encapsulating it inside an HDLC frame, but Router1 will not encapsulate the Ethernet frame in the HDLC frame, but rather the IP packet. Router2 will deencapsulate the IP packet from the HDLC frame and forward it onto the Ethernet LAN, adding a new Ethernet header and trailer, but this header will differ. It will list Router2’s MAC address as the source address and PC2’s MAC address as the destination address.

PC1 and PC2 are on two different Ethernet LANs that are separated by an IP router. PC1’s IP address is 10.1.1.1, and no subnetting is used. Which of the following addresses could be used for PC2? (Choose two answers.)
a) 9.1.1.1


b) 10.200.200.1


c) 10.2.2.2


d) 10.1.1.2


e) 1.1.1.1


f) 225.1.1.1

Answer options A and E are correct.

Without any subnetting in use, all addresses in the same network as 10.1.1.1—all addresses in Class A network 10.0.0.0—must be on the same LAN. Addresses separated from that network by some router cannot be in network 10.0.0.0. So, the two correct answers are the only two answers that list a valid unicast IP address that is not in network 10.0.0.0.

The address ranges for usable IP network addresses for Class C are 192 - 224.

a) TRUE


b) FALSE

b

What are the correct steps of router forwarding logic?

a) Discards the old data-link header and trailer


b) Compares the IP packet's destination address to the IP routing table


c) Uses the FCS field to check for errors


d) Encapsulates the IP packet inside the data-link header and trailer

Explanation: Answer options B, C, D, and A are correct.


These are the steps to routing logic.

Which of the following does not use UDP?

A. POP3


B. DNS
C. NFS
D. VoIP

Answer option A is correct.

POP3 uses TCP.

Which of the following is not a part of a URL?
a) Protocol
b) DNS address
c) Host name
d) Name of web page


Answer option B is correct.
The URL is composed of the protocol, host name, and name of the web page


Which of the following flag fields are used in connection establishment headers? (Select all that apply.)
a) SYN
b) TCP
c) ACK
d) FIN

Explanation: Answer options D and A are correct.
SYN means "Synchronize the sequence numbers," which is one necessary component in initialization for TCP. FIN is short for "Finished."


An engineer had formerly configured a Cisco 2960 switch to allow Telnet access so that the switch expected a password of mypassword from the Telnet user. The engineer then changed the configuration to support Secure Shell. Which of the following commands could have been part of the new configuration? (Choose two answers.)

a)A username name password password vty mode subcommand
b)A username name password password global configuration command
c)A login local vty mode subcommand
d)A transport input ssh global configuration command

BC


SSH requires the use of usernames in addition to a password. Using the username global command would be one way to define usernames (and matching passwords) to support SSH. The vty lines would also need to be configured to require the use of usernames, with the login local vty subcommand being one such option. The transport input ssh command could be part of a meaningful configuration, but it is not a global configuration command (as claimed in one wrong answer). Likewise, one answer refers to theusername command as a command in vty config mode, which is also the wrong mode.

An engineer’s desktop PC connects to a switch at the main site. A router at the main site connects to each branch office through a serial link, with one small router and switch at each branch. Which of the following commands must be configured on the branch office switches, in the listed configuration mode, to allow the engineer to telnet to the branch office switches? (Choose three answers.)
a) The ip address command in VLAN configuration mode
b) The ip address command in global configuration mode
c) The ip default-gateway command in VLAN configuration mode
d) The ip default-gateway command in global configuration mode
e) The password command in console line configuration mode
f) The password command in vty line configuration mode

ADF


To allow access through Telnet, the switch must have password security enabled, at a minimum using the password vty line configuration subcommand. Additionally, the switch needs an IP address (configured under one VLAN interface) and a default gateway when the switch needs to communicate with hosts in a different subnet.

Which of the following describes a way to disable IEEE standard autonegotiation on a 10/100 port on a Cisco switch?
a) Configure the negotiate disable interface subcommand
b) Configure the no negotiate interface subcommand
c) Configure the speed 100 interface subcommand
d) Configure the duplex half interface subcommand
e) Configure the duplex full interface subcommand
f) Configure the speed 100 and duplex full interface subcommands

Answer option F is correct.

Cisco switches do not have a command to disable autonegotiation of speed and duplex. Instead, a switch port that has both speed andduplex configured disables autonegotiation.

Straight-through cable

10BASE-T and 100BASE-T use two pair of wires in a UTP cable. A straight-through cable works correctly when the nodes use opposite pairs for transmitting.


1 to 1


2 to 2


3 to 3


6 to 6

Crossover Cable Pinout

The crossover cable pinout crosses the pair at the transmit pins on each device to the receive pins on the opposite device.


1 to 3


2 to 6


3 to 1


6 to 2

Choosing the Right Cable Pinouts

Crossover cable: If the endpoints transmit on the same pin pair
Straight-through cable: If the endpoints transmit on different pin pairs



PC NICs, Routers and WAPs transmit on pairs

1,2

Hubs and Switches transmit on pair

3,6

Gigabit Ethernet crossover calbe

cable crosses


1 to 3


2 to 6


but it also crosses


4 to 7


5 to 8

Ethernet Frame Format

Preamble - 7 (synchronization)


SFD - 1 (signifies that the next byte begins the destination MAC address field)


Destination - 6


Source - 6


Type - 2 - (defines the type of protocol listed inside the frame)


Data and Pad - 46/1500 - (holds L3PDU)


FCS - 4 - (provide a method for the receiving NIC to determine whether the frame experienced transmission error)

HDLC header field

HDLC - Ethernet equivalent


Flag - Preamble


Address - Destination Address


Type - Type


FCS - FCS

show port-security interface fastEthernet 0/1 (scr)

the cmd shows that the interface is in a secured-shutdown state which means that the interface has been disabled because of port security.

What is the longest copper cable length supported by the IEEE 802.3u FastEthernet standard?

100 Meters

What is the physical rate of transmission of a T1 leased line?
Answer

a) 10 Mbps
b) 100 Mbps
c) 44.455 Mbps
d) 1.544 Mbps
e) 2 Mbps
f) 5.455 Mbps

d)

Which of the following commands might you see associated with the router CLI, but not with
the switch CLI?
a. The clock rate command
b. The ip address address mask command
c. The ip address dhcp command
d. The interface vlan 1 command

a

Cut-through switching

Cut-through switching


One of three options for internal processing on some models of Cisco LAN switches in which the frame is forwarded as soon as enough of the Ethernet header has been received for the switch to make a forwarding decision, including forwarding the first bits of the frame before the whole frame is received.

Fragment-free switching

Fragment-free switching


One of three internal processing options on some Cisco LAN switches in which the first bits of the frame can be forwarded before the entire frame is received, but not until the first 64 bytes of the frame are received, in which case, in a well-designed LAN, collision fragments should not occur as a result of this forwarding logic.

Store-and-forward switching


Store-and-forward switching


One of three internal processing options on some Cisco LAN switches in which the Ethernet frame must be completely received before the switch can begin forwarding the first bit of the frame.

Which of the following devices would be in the same broadcast domain as PC1? (Choose three answers.)

A. PC3, which is separated from PC1 by a transparent bridge
B. PC4, which is separated from PC1 by an Ethernet switch
C. PC5, which is separated from PC1 by a router
D. PC2, which is separated from PC1 by an Ethernet hub


ABD



Which of the following devices would be in the same collision domain as PC1?

A. PC4, which is separated from PC1 by an Ethernet switch
B. PC5, which is separated from PC1 by a router
C. PC2, which is separated from PC1 by an Ethernet hub
D. PC3, which is separated from PC1 by a transparent bridge

c

A Cisco LAN switch connects to three PCs (PC1, PC2, and PC3), each directly using a cable that supports Ethernet UTP speeds up through 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps). PC1 uses a NIC that supports only 10BASE-T, while PC2 has a 10/100 NIC, and PC3 has a 10/100/1000 NIC. Assuming that the PCs and switch use IEEE autonegotiation, which PCs will use half-duplex?
A. PC2
B. PC3
C. None of the PCs will use half-duplex.
D. PC1

c

Which of the following statements best describes what a switch does with a frame destined for an unknown unicast address?

A. It compares the frame's incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.
B. It forwards out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface.
C. It forwards the frame out the one interface identified by the matching entry in the MAC address table.
D. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address.



B
A switch floods broadcast frames, multicast frames (if no multicast optimizations are enabled), and unknown unicast destination frames (frames whose destination MAC address is not in the MAC address table).


Which of the following comparisons does a switch make when deciding whether a new MAC address should be added to its MAC address table?

A. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table.
B. It compares the destination IP address's ARP cache entry to the bridging, or MAC address, table.
C. It compares the VLAN ID to the bridging, or MAC address, table.
D. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table.

D
Switches need to learn the location of each MAC address used in the LAN relative to that local switch. When a switch sends a frame, the source MAC identifies the sender. The interface in which the frame arrives identifies the local switch interface closest to that node in the LAN topology.



Which of the following statements describes part of the process of how a switch decides to forward a frame destined for a known unicast MAC address?

A. It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface.
B. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table.
C. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table. x
D. It compares the frame's incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.
E. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address.

B
A switch compares the destination address to the MAC address table. If a matching entry is found, the switch knows out which interface to forward the frame. If no matching entry is found, the switch floods the frame.


PC1, with MAC address 1111.1111.1111, is connected to Switch SW1’s Fa0/1 interface. PC2, with MAC address 2222.2222.2222, is connected to SW1’s Fa0/2 interface. PC3, with MAC address 3333.3333.3333, connects to SW1’s Fa0/3 interface. The switch begins with no dynamically learned MAC addresses, followed by PC1 sending a frame with a destination address of 2222.2222.2222. If the next frame to reach the switch is a frame sent by PC3, destined for PC2’s MAC address of 2222.2222.2222, which of the following are true? (Choose two answers.)

A. The switch discards (filters) the frame.
B. The switch forwards the frame out interface Fa0/3.
C. The switch forwards the frame out interface Fa0/2.
D. The switch forwards the frame out interface Fa0/1.

CD
When the frame sent by PC3 arrives at the switch, the switch has learned a MAC address table entry for only 1111.1111.1111, PC1’s MAC address. PC3’s frame, addressed to 2222.2222.2222, is flooded, which means it is forwarded out all interfaces except for the interface on which the frame arrived.


Which of the following statements describes part of the process of how a LAN switch decides to forward a frame destined for a broadcast MAC address?

A. It compares the unicast source address to the bridging, or MAC address, table.
B. It compares the unicast destination address to the bridging, or MAC address, table.
C. It compares the frame's incoming interface to the source MAC entry in the MAC address table.
D. It compares the destination IP address to the destination MAC address.
E. It forwards the frame out all interfaces in the same VLAN except for the incoming interface.

E


A switch floods broadcast frames, multicast frames (if no multicast optimizations are enabled), and unknown unicast destination frames (frames whose destination MAC address is not in the MAC address table).


Which of the following Ethernet standards support a maximum cable length of longer than 100 meters? (Choose two answers.)

A. 100BASE-FX
B. 1000BASE-T
C. 1000BASE-LX
D. 100BASE-T

Answer options C and A are correct.


The IEEE Ethernet standards support 100-meter links when using UTP cabling. Most standards that use fiber-optic cabling, like the standards in the two correct answers, use lengths longer than 100 meters.

show port-security interface fastEthernet 0/2



(up and running)

show port-security violation { protect | restrict | shutdown }

switch can be configure to sue one of three actions when a violation occurs. All 3 cause the switch to discard the offending frame



Protect - discard traffic, no SNMP log, no disabling of interface


Restrict - discard traffic, restrict, sends SNMP log message, no disabling of interface


Shutdown - discard traffic, restrict, sends SNMP log message, disables of interface

cmd to prevent VLAN trunking by making a port a nontrunking interface

switchport mode access

cmd to assign port o an unused VLAN

switchport access vlan

cmd to set the native VLAN to not be VLAN 1, but to instead be an unused VLAN

switchport trunk native vlan

interface configuration basics (scr)

interface range command

the interface range FastEthernet
0/11 - 20 command tells IOS that the next subcommand(s) apply to interfaces Fa0/11 through Fa0/20



Emma# configure terminal
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.
Emma(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
Emma(config-if)# duplex full
Emma(config-if)# speed 100
Emma(config-if)# description Server1 connects here
Emma(config-if)# exit
Emma(config)# interface range FastEthernet 0/11 - 20
Emma(config-if-range)# description end-users connect_here

Configuring Port Security (steps)

Step 1. Make the switch interface either a static access or trunk interface, using the switchport
mode access or the switchport mode trunk interface subcommands, respectively.
Step 2. Enable port security using the switchport port-security interface subcommand.
Step 3. (Optional) Override the default maximum number of allowed MAC addresses associated with the interface (1) by using the switchport port-security maximum number interface subcommand.
Step 4. (Optional) Override the default action to take upon a security violation (shutdown) using the switchport port-security violation {protect | restrict | shutdown} interface subcommand.
Step 5. (Optional) Predefine any allowed source MAC address(es) for this interface, using the switchport port-security mac-address mac-address command. Use the command multiple times to define more than one MAC address.


Step 6. (Optional) Tell the switch to “sticky learn” dynamically learned MAC addresses with the switchport port-security mac-address sticky interface subcommand.

SW1# show running-config



(Variations on Port Security Configuration)

(Lines omitted for brevity)
interface FastEthernet0/1
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address 0200.1111.1111
! interface FastEthernet0/2
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
! interface FastEthernet0/3
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
! interface FastEthernet0/4
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 8

Q: As a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc, you have made the basic configurations on routers. You need to configure each router with the OSPF protocol. Run the appropriate commands. (Priority no. = 2, Area = 0)


 


 

Q: As a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc, you have made the basic configurations on routers. You need to configure each router with the OSPF protocol. Run the appropriate commands. (Priority no. = 2, Area = 0)



Explanation: Run the following set of commands to configure the OSPF protocol on each router:


R1



R1>enable
R1#configure terminal
R1(config)#router ospf 2
R1(config-router)#network 192.168.36.12 0.0.0.3 area 0
R1(config-router)#network 192.168.60.96 0.0.0.7 area 0


R2



R2>enable
R2#configure terminal
R2(config)#router ospf 2
R2(config-router)#network 192.168.36.12 0.0.0.3 area 0
R2(config-router)#network 192.168.60.64 0.0.0.7 area 0

Informal IEEE Standard Name


10Base-T


100Base-T


1000Base-LX


1000Base-T


10GBase-T


What are the formal IEEE standard names

10Base-T - 802.3


100Base-T - 802.3u


1000Base-LX - 802.3an


1000Base-T - 802.3z


10GBase-T - 802.3ab

port security sequence of commands

switchport access vlan 10


switchport mode access


switchport port-security


switchport port-security violation restrict


switchport port-security mac-address 0090.ABCD.EF10

show interface fa0/1


(for interface that has shutdown issued on it).

FastEthernet0/1 is administratively down, line protocol is down (disabled)
Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0019.e86a.1181 (bia 0019.e86a.1181)
MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit/sec, DLY 100 usec,
reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255
Encapsulation ARPA, Loopback not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
Auto-duplex, Auto-speed, media type is 10/100BaseTX
input flow-control is off, output flow-control is unsupported
ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00
Last input never, output 01:04:27, output hang never
Last clearing of "show interface" counters never
Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0
Queueing strategy: fifo
Output queue: 0/40 (size/max)
5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec
5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec
64660 packets input, 6290547 bytes
Received 56426 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles
0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored
0 watchdog
0 input packets with dribble condition detected


No speed / No duplex (scr)

show interface description (scr)

Show vlan (scr)

show ip route (scr)

show inteface brief (scr)

Configure the global command that tells the router to not attempt to ask a DNS for name resolution. What command did you enter?

no ip domain-lookup

show ip route



10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 10.30.10.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
L 10.30.10.1/32 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
192.168.10.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 192.168.10.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
L 192.168.10.1/32 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
S 192.168.20.0/24 [1/0] via 10.30.10.2



What are the two numbers in brackets?

The output lists [1/0], where 1 is the administrative distance and 0 is the metric.

show ip route (scr)

show ip route static

show cdp neighbor

show ip route connected

name access list

ip access-list extended BlockUDP

In what modes can you execute the command show mac address-table?


a)User mode


b)Enable mode


c)global configuration mode


d)interface configuration mode


ab

Currently, besides the ports assigned to VLAN 2 and VLAN 3, the rest of the switch is in its default configuration. What would be the result of assigning ports Fa0/13 through Fa0/24 on this switch to a new VLAN 4?
A. 1 new collision domain
B. 12 new collision domains
C. 1 new broadcast domain
D. 12 new broadcast domains.


Answer option C is correct.


On a new switch, creating and assigning existing ports to a new VLAN, results in a single new broadcast domain (VLAN) on that switch.Each VLAN is a separate broadcast domain, so when we add one VLAN, we get one new Layer 2 broadcast domain. The 12 ports already existed on the switch as 12 collision domains before the new VLAN and assignment of any ports to the VLAN.

When a router first powers on, which of the following four steps is performed first?

A. The bootstrap program decides which IOS image (or other OS) to load into RAM, and loads that OS. After loading the IOS image, the bootstrap program hands over control of the router hardware to the newly loaded OS.


B. The router performs a power-on self-test (POST) to discover the hardware components and verify that all components work properly.


C. If the bootstrap program loaded the IOS, IOS finds the configuration file (typically the startup config file in NVRAM) and loads it into RAM as the running config file.


D. The router copies a bootstrap program from ROM into RAM, and runs the bootstrap program.

Explanation: Answer option B is correct.


If the router fails the POST, it will stop the boot process until the cause of failure has been repaired.


The shutdown option actually puts the interface in an error disabled (err-disabled) state, making it unusable. An interface in the err-disabled state requires that someone _____.


A. enter the shutdown command


B. enter the shutdown command followed by the no shutdown command


C. do nothing. The port will automatically become usable again after 30 seconds.


D. enter the no shutdown command​

Explanation: Answer option B is correct.


The error state can only be resolved by manually shutting the interface down and then bringing it back up again.


Which statement is correct for Cisco Layer 2 access switch interfaces by default?

A. Each interface is assigned to a separate VLAN.


B. VLANs must be configured before devices can be connected to the switch.


C. All interfaces are assigned to the one VLAN.


D. There are no VLANs configured on the switch.

Explanation: Answer option C is correct.


By default, a Cisco switch has all its interfaces in the same broadcast domain, known as VLAN 1.

The banner login command is shown when?

a) Before the login prompt, but after the MOTD banner
b) After the login prompt
c) None of the above
d) Before the login prompt


Explanation: Answer option A is correct.


The login banner is designed to be the permanent banner, as opposed to the MOTD (Message of the Day).

Switch ports are in full duplex by default.

TRUE

FALSE

FALSE



Switch ports are by default in the autonegotiate state.

The encryption type used by the service password-encryption command, as noted with the "7" in the password command, refers to one of several underlying password encryption algorithms. Type 7, the only type used by the service password encryption command, is a weak encryption algorithm, and the passwords can be easily decrypted.

TRUE

FALSE

TRUE


It provides low-level encryption.

steps required to enable the switchport security

router>enable


router>config terminal


router(config)#interface


router(config-if)#switchport port-security

add VLANs to the list of allowed VLANs on a virtual Ethernet interface trunk port

switch# configure terminal


switch(config)# interface vethernet 1


switch(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 5-15


switch(config-if)#

what command will you use to encrypt the password

If you have the service password-encryption command enabled, the password you enter is encrypted. When you display it with the more system:running-config command, it is displayed in encrypted form.


If you specify an encryption type, you must provide an encrypted password—an encrypted password you copy from another router configuration


The service password-encryption command does not provide a high level of network security

To create a new privilege level and associate commands with that privilege level, use the following commands in beginning in global configuration mode:

Router(config)# privilege modelevel level command-string


Router(config)# enable secret level level {0 |5} password-string


Router(config)# exit


-------------------------


Configures the specified privilege level to allow access to the specified command



Sets the password for the specified privilege level. This is the password users will enter after entering the enable level command to access the specified level.


0 indicates an unencrypted password string follows; 5 indicates an encrypted password


string follows.



Exists global configuration mode and returns to EXEC mode.



(Optional) Saves the configuration to the startup configuration file in NVRAM.


Note The do keyword allows execution of EXEC commands in configuration mode.

steps required to enable the switchport security feature on an interface

router>enable


router#configure terminal


router(config)#interface interface


router(config-if)#switchport port-security



1. Enter privileged mode


2. Enter global configuration mode


3. Enter interface configuration mode


4. Enable the switchport security feature

c(default : 1)router(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum valueonfigure the maximum number of MAC addresses allowed on a switchport


Configure the switchport violation mode (default : shutdown)router(config-if)#switchport port-security violation {protect | restrict | shutdown}

router(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum value



router(config-if)#switchport port-security violation {protect | restrict | shutdown}

steps required to configure a static MAC address:

router#configure terminal


router(config)#interface interface


router(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address mac-address

steps required to enable the use of sticky learning on a switchport:

router#configure terminal


router(config)#interface interface


router(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky

enable the use of the switchport security feature on ports f0/1 and f0/2, statically configure the 0000.1111.2222 MAC address on the f0/1 switchport and enable sticky learning on the f0/2 switchport.

router#configure terminal


router(config)#interface f0/1


router(config-if)#switchport port-security


router(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.2222


router(config)#interface f0/2


router(config-if)#switchport port-security


router(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky

show spanning-tree vlan 2 (scr)

Configure interfaces into Etherchannel group 1 by issuing the

channel-group 1 mode on

how etherchannel 1 summary (scr)


show spanning-tree bridge

Lower cost of a spanning tree protocol on an interface

spanning-tree vlan 2 cost 1

configuration of the PortFast feature of ports connected to some of the hosts.


configure terminal


interface fa0/11


spanning-tree portfas

show interface trunk

Change the cost of this interface by issuing

ip ospf cost 14

designated port

Many switches can attach to the same Ethernet segment, but in modern networks, normally two switches connect to each link. The switch with the lowest root cost, as compared with the other switches attached to the same link, is placed in forwarding state. That switch is the designated switch, and that switch’s interface, attached to that segment, is called the designated port (DP).

the default priority for switches in STP is

32768

The switch that has the lowest STP cost will become the __________ switch for a specific segment.


1. Root
2. Designated
3. Primary
4. Forwarding

4

Which Cisco IOS command is used to display all switch interfaces, their current statuses, and the current operating mode?


1. show interfaces status
2. show interfaces
3. show ip interface brief
4. show vlan

a

What is the only way an engineer can alter the value of the bridge ID?


1. Modify the main switch MAC address.
2. Configure the bridge ID under STP configuration mode.
3. Swap out the main switch network interface card.
4. Configure the STP priority

4

What is the default base STP priority used on a Cisco switch?


1. 8192
2. 16,384
3. 32,768
4. 1024

3

Which Cisco IOS command would be used on a switch to identify all the interfaces that are enabled with port security?


1. show switchport port-security
2. show port security
3. show interfaces
4. show port-security

4

Which Cisco IOS command specifically lists each VLAN and all interfaces assigned to that VLAN, not including VLAN trunks?


1. show interface all switchport
2. show mac address-table dynamic
3. show vlan all
4. show vlan
5. show interfaces vlan
6. show cam dynamic

4

You are troubleshooting IP connectivity. After pinging from a host computer, you realize you can ping some hosts and not others on the same subnet. What is a potential cause?


1. ICMP redirects are disabled.
2. IP ACLs are preventing it.
3. The default gateway is not functioning.
4. The subnet mask is misconfigured.
5. None of the above.

2

When diagnosing a problem where a host can't reach a remote host, you find that you can't ping the first router in the path, and the first router can't ping the host initiating the connection. Which is not part of a reasonable plan for first-step diagnostics?


1. Investigate Layer 1 issues with the LAN: cabling, powered-off device, and so on.
2. Investigate any Layer 2 issues: VLAN configuration, trunk mismatches, and so on.
3. Check the IP configuration on both the host the and router.
4. Use a host on a remote subnet and use a tracert to determine the path.
5. Ensure that the router's interface is in an up/up state.

4

What is the most likely problem if a ping fails when using a device's hostname but not when using the device's IP address?




1. ARP
2. DNS
3. DHCP
4. ND

2

show flash

Which term refers to the headers and possibly trailers defined by the TCP/IP transport layer, and the data encapsulated following that header?


1) bits


2) segment


3) packet


4) frame

2

What protocols are controlled by the TCP/IP link layer (choose 2)?


1) Ethernet


2) HTTP


3) IP


4) PPP

1,4

Q: Which of the following flag fields are used in connection establishment headers? (Select all that apply.)



1)SYN


2)FIN


3)ACK


4)TCP

1,2

1000Base-LX


1000Base-ZX

1000Base-LX


Single-mode 5km


1000Base-ZX


70 km lengh

EoMPLS



MPLS



DSLAM

Ethernet over MPLS



Multiprotocol Label Switching



DSL Access Multiplexer

application layer

this layer provides an interface between the communications software and any application that needs to communicate outside the computer on which the application resides. It also define process for user authentication.

Presentation layer.

define and negotiate data formats.


Encryption is defined here

Session layer.

defines how to start, control, and end conversations.


Includes control and management of multiple bidirectional messages so that the application can be notified if only some of a series of messages are completed

Transport layer.

Multiplexing using ports


Error recovery


Flow control using windowing


Connection establishment and termination


Ordered data transfer and data segmentation

Network layer.

logical addressing


routing


path determination

Data link layer

Defines the rules that determine when a device can send data over a particular medium. Data link protocols also define the format of a header and trailer that allows devices attached to the medium to successfully send and receive data.

Physical layer.

Defines standards from otehr organization

Merge replication





Merging two companies



1) Starts with a snapshot of the two companies (starts with a snapshot of the publisher)



2) Than continues with triggers to track changes (changes are tracked with triggers)



3) sudden surprise at the subscriber are pushed to view during the merger (Changes at the subscriber are synced to the publisher)



4) yes multi merge is allowed



(Multiple subscribers are allowed)




5) when conflicts occur they must be resolved (conflicts may occur and when they do you need the ability to detect and resolve them)

Limitations when reverting a database from a DB snapshot






Single person dating - Start To Yield and Update Filestream


1) single



(only a single DB snapshot can exist for source DB)



2) total access to all catalogs of people (full text catalogs on the source DB must be dropped and then re-created after the revert completes)



3) yesterday's log is useless



(Because the transaction log is rebuild transaction log chain is broken)



4) unaccessible are all swinger clubs



(Both the source DB and the DB snapshot are offline during the revert)



5) file stream




(The source DB cannot be set up with Filestream)


Cut-through processing

The switch starts sending the frame out the output port as soon as possible

Fragment-free processing

waits to receive the first 64 bytes of a frame and then sends is forward

Which of the following is true about the Ethernet FCS field?


1)it is 2 bytes long


2)Ethernet uses FCS for error recovery


3)It is used for encryption


4)It resides in the Ethernet trailer, not the Ethernet header

4

In the cabling for a leased line, which of the following typically connects to a four-wire line provided by a telco?


1)CSU/DSU


2)Router serial interface with internal transceiver


3)Switch serial interface


4)Router serial interface without internal CSU/DSU

1)

which of the following is not true of DSL technology


1)Replaces leased lines


2)Creates high-speed WAN links


3)Uses single-pair telephone line


4)relatively short physical line

1

the CSU/DSU device is used in ______


1) WAN connectivity


2)LAN and WAN connectivity


3)None of the above


4)LAN connectivity

2

What is the purpose of ARP?


1) Request MAC address for known IP address


2) None of the above


3) Request IP address for known MAC address


4) test for connectivity

1

Which of the following is not a goal of a routing protocol?


1) To notice when routes in the table are no longer valid


2) To dynamically learn notes


3) To place the fist route in the routing table


4) To prevent routing loops

3

Which of the following is not a function of the transport layer?


1) flow control


2) connection establishment


3) multiplexing


4) data fragmentation

4

Which of the following are typical functions of TCP (choose 4)?


1) Flow control (windowing)


2) Error recovery


3) Multiplexing using port numbers


4) Eouting


5) Encryption


6) Ordered data transfer

1


2


3


6

A switch is cabled to a router whose host name is Hannah. Which of the following CDP cmd could identify Hannah's model and hardware?


1) show neighboor Hannah


2) show cdp


3) show cdp interface


4) shid cdp neighboors


5) show cdp entry Hannah


6) show neighboors

4,5



The show cdp neighbors cmd lists one line of output per neighbor. However, it does list the platform information of the neighbor, which typically includes the hardware model number.



show cdp entry hannah commands lists a group of messages about the neighboring router, including more detail about the hardware model and the IOS version

show cdp neighbor (def)

show cdp neighbor



this cmd lists one line of output per neighbor. However, it does list the platform information of the neighbor, which typically includes the hardware model number

show cdp entry Hannah (def)

show cdp entry hannah



this cmd lists a group of messages about the neighboring router, including more detail about the hardware model and the IOS version

On a cisco catalyst switch, you issue a show mac-address-table cmd. Which of the following answers list information you would likely see in most lines of output? (2)


1) A Vlan ID


2) An IP address


3) A MAC address


4) Type

1,3

show mac address-table (cmd def)

show mac address-table cmd



Lists all entries in the siwtch's MAC address table, including dynamically learned and statically defined addresses.

Which of the following cmds list the MAC address table entries for MAC addresses configure by port security (2)


1) show mac address-table


2) show mac address-table static


3) show mac address-table port-security


4) show mac address-table dynamic

1,2

Imagine that a switch connects through an Ethernet cable to a router, and the router’s host name is Hannah. Which of the following commands could tell you information about the IOS version on Hannah without establishing a Telnet connection to Hannah? (Choose two answers.)


1) show cdp entry Hannah


2) show cdp neighbors Hannah


3) show cdp neighbors


4) show cdp


5) show neighbors Hannah


6) show cdp neighbors detail

1, 6

If you ping across a serial line and it fails, and you follow it up with a show interface commands and get a Line Status up, Protocol up, most likely.


1) its a layer 3 problem


2) the interface is shut down


3) it is a Layer 1 problem


4) it is a Layer 2 problem

1



if both line and protocol are up and you still cannot ping, it is probably an IP address issues.

Which of the following commands list both access and trunk ports for the VLAN?


1) show vlan id num


2) show vlan brief


3) show mac address-table


4) show interfaces type number swithcport

3



Show vlan brief / show vlan


lists each VLAN and all interfaces assigned to that VLAN.


If you do a ping across a serail link and it fails, and you follow it up with a show interface cmd and get a Line Status up, Protocol status down, most likely


1) it is a layer 1 problem


2) it is a layer 2 problem


3) it is a layer 3 problem


4) the interface is shut down

2



Protocol status down is most likely a Layer 2 issue

Which of the following is a piece of information gathered by CPD? (3)


1) Platform


2) Address list


3) Local port identified


4) Device identifier

1,2,4



CDP reveals the interface on the remore router or switch on the other end of the link that sent the CDP advertisement

Which cmd identifies the interface's access VLAN, voice VLAN, plus the configure and operational mode?


1) show interface type number switchport


2) show vlan id num


3) show vlan brief


4) show mac address-table

1

Which of the following cmd identify switch interfaces as being trunking interfaces: interfaces that currently operate as VLAN trunks? (2)


1) show interface


2) show trunk


3) show interfaces trunk


4) show interfaces switchport

3,4



show interface switchport cmd



lists both the administrative and operational status of each port, When a switch considers a port to be trunking, the cmd lists an operational trunking state of "trunk"



show interface switchport cmd

show interface switchport cmd



lists both the administrative and operational status of each port, When a switch considers a port to be trunking, the cmd lists an operational trunking state of "trunk"

show interfaces trunk cmd

show interfaces trunk cmd



This cmd lists a set of interfaces: the interfaces that are currently operating as trunks

How can switch Fast Ethernet port fa0/2 be removed from VLAN 2 and assigned to VLAN 3?



1) Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode



2) Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode



3) Shut down Fast Ethernet port fa0/2 and then configure the port for VLAN 3



4) Rename Fast Ethernet port fa0/2 to Fast Ethernet port fa0/3



1



Each access port of a switch can only be a member of one VLAN. VLAN membership can therefore be reassigned by simply issuing the switchport mode access vlan vlan-id command on the port.

A network tech accidentally deletes VLAN from a switch when port fa0/14 through fa0/24 are assigned to VLAN 22. What happens to the ports that were assigned to VLAN 22?


1) Devices connected to the VLAN 22 member ports will be unable to communicate


2) By default, the ports will automatically become members of the native VLAN


3) By default, the ports will automatically become members of VLAN 1.


4) All ports will remain assigned to VLAN 22 becuase it cannot be deleted if any ports are currently assigned to it

1



if a VLAN with member ports is deleted, those ports are isolated and connected devices cannot communicate until the ports are assigned to an existing VLAN.

Which of the following is true of routers that are routing between VLANs?





1. The router has a trunk port that links to the switch.



2. None of the answers are correct.



3. Layer 2 switches forward data between 2 VLANs.




4. The router has an access port that links to the switch.


1



Routers use VLAN trunking instead of a separate link for each VLAN through the port connected to the switch.

What are the three modes available to be configured on Cisco LAN switches in a VTP domain?





1. client



2. root



3. transparent



4. server




5. bridge


1,3,4



Cisco LAN switches can be configured to server (default), client, or transparent VTP mode. They can also be set to off mode.

Which of the following is/are not a reason to prevent VLAN traffic from crossing the trunk?



1. Not seen using the show vlan command


2. Removed from the allowed list


3. Does not exist and shutdown


4. All options are reasons to prevent traffic.

4

show vlan brief

Considering the differences between NAT and PAT, which is the most accurate description?


1) PAT translates many IP addresses into a few or even one IP address


2) NAT allows for multiple protocols across a single IP address


3) NAT translates many IP addresses into a few or even one IP address


4) PAT allows for multiple protocols across multiple IP address

1)



Both NAT and PAT can support multiple protocols for each of their translations. PAT translates multiple inside local addresses into a single global address. PAT is also used with pools when there are more inside devices than addresses in the pool and the keyword overload has been used in the configuration.



NAT is a one-to-one translation of IP to IP

Which cmd enables you to view summary of NetFlow statistics of protocols on a Cisco IOS router?


1) show ip flow export


2) show ip interface


3) show flow


4) show ip flow cache


5) show ip cache flow

5



The show ip cache flow cmd displays a summary of NetFlow statistics, including which protocols are in use

show frame pvc summary

show frame-relay pvc 110

Which if the following technologies match with their use?


1) digital signature for authentication


2) AES for data integrity


3) SHA1 for confidentiality


4) 3DES for encryption


5) MD5 for encryption

1,4



Digital signatures can be used for authenticating the VPN peer on the other side of the tunnel, and 3DES is an encryption algorithm that can be used for encryption.MD5 and SHA-1 are a hashing algorithm used for data integrity. AES is an encryption algorithm used for privacy of data.

show log (scr)

What cmd enables you to see information about current Cisco IOS software licenses that are on the device?


1) show version


2) show start


3) show run


4) license-info


5) show licenses

1,5



show license cmd provides info on the current licenses active on the device



show version cmd does provide some of the details about licensing near the end of the output

The newer console port

type-B usb console



the older is RJ-45

Class A determine via binary



Class B determine via binary



Class C determine via binary

Class A determine via binary


00000000 = 0


01111111 = 127



Class B determine via binary


10 000000 = 128


11 000000 = 192



Class C determine via binary


110 00000 = 192


111 00000 = 223


Cmds to administratively shut down vlan

1) shutdown vlan vlan-id (global config)



2) shutdown (vlan config)

engineer can limit the VLANs allowed on the trunk by using the following interface subcmd:

switchport trunk allowed vlan { add | all | except | remove } vlan-list




this cmd provides a way to easily add and remove VLANs from the list

Cisco has supported two ifferent trunking protocols over the years:

Inter-Switch Link (ISL) (proprietary)


IEEE 802.1Q

Cisco switches break the range of VLAN IDs (1-4094) into ____________ ranges

two



the normal range and the extended range



All switches can use normal-range VLANs with values from 1 to 1005.


Only some siwtches can use extended -range VLANs 1005 to 4094

Steps to config vlan

1. From config mode, use the vlan vlan-id global config cmd to create the VLAN and to move the user into VLAN config mode


2. (Optional) use the name name VLAN subcmd to list a name for the VLAN


3. For desirable interfaces enter interface config mode


4. Use the switchport access vlan id-number interface subcmd to specify the VLAN number associated with that interface


5. (Optional) disable trunking on that same interface, so that the interface does not negotiate to become a trunk, use the switchport mode access interface subcmd

VTP

VTP VLAN Trunking Protocl



Cisco-proprietary protocol and tool used to advertise each VLAN configure in one switch so that all the other switches in the network

CMD to set VTP to transparent mode

vtp mode transparent global cmd



or



vtp mode off



to check the VTP status use


vtp mode off

VTP modes

server


client


transparent


(standard construct template)


switches that support both type of trunking (ISL and 802.1Q) use __________________ interface subvmd to either configure the type or allow DTP to negotiate the type

switchport trunk encapsulation {dot1q | isl | negotiate }

configure basic password and host name



cmd sequence



s#configure terminal


s(config)# enable secret cisco


s(config)# hostname ema


ema(config)#line console 0


ema(config-line)#password faith


ema(config-line)# login


ema(config-line)# exit


ema(config)#line vty 0 15


ema(config-line)# password love


ema(config-line)# login


ema(config-line)# end


ema#

Switches can control their support of Telnet and/or SSH on the vty lines using what cmd?

transport input { all | none | telnet | ssh }

what cmds store the password in clear text

the console and vty lines with the password cmd


username password

To prevent password vulnerability in a printed version of the config file, or in a backup copy of the config file stored on a server you can encrypt some passwords using

service password-encryption



global config cmd



it affects has password cmd in both console and vty modes and username password global cmd

this cmd show two very important details related to switch IO addressing

lists the interface status of the VLAN 1


lists the interface IP address

CDP discovers several useful details from the neighboring Cisco device

Device identifier - typically the hostname


Address list - network and data-link address


Port identifier - the interface on the remote router or switch


auxiliary port def

auxiliary port is similar to console port. The main difference with an auxiliary port is that it also allows you to config modem cmd so that modem can be connected to the router

Access list configuration mode prompt

s#config t


s(config)# ip access-list standard Tod


s(config-std-nacl)#

Routing protocol config mode prompt

s(config)# ip routing


s(config)# router rip


s(config-router)#

user exec mode



privileged exec mode



global configuration mode

user exec mode - limited to basic monitoring cmd



privileged exec mode - provides access to all other router cmd



global configuration mode - cmd that affect the entire system

specific config mode



setup mode

specific config mode - cmd that affect interface/process only



setup mode - interactive config mode

Cmd sequence to configure auxiliary password on a router

t#config t


t(config)#line aux 0


t(config-line)#login


t(config-line)#password aux


t(config-line)#login


Manually encrypting your password

t#config t


t(config)#service password-encryption


t(config)#exit


t#run

using the pipe

sh run | ?



sh run | begin interface

You can see if a router's serial interface has a DCE cable connected with the __________________

show controllers int



router#sh controllers s0/0/0


Interface Serial0/0/0


Hardware is GT96K


DTE V.35idb at 0x4342FCB0, driver data structure 0x434373D4

How to see if an interface is DCE connection

router#sh controllers s0/2/0


Interface Serial0/2/0


Hardware is GT96K


DCE V.35, clock rate 10000000

show ip route eigrp

show ip eigrp topology

Setting up SSH

router(config)#hostname todd


todd(config)#ip domain-name lamle.com


todd(config)#username todd password lamle


todd(config)#crypto key generate rsa


todd(config)#ip ssh version 2


todd(config)#line vty 0 15


todd(config)#transport input ssh telnet

access interface

access interface is a LAN network design term that refers to a switch interface connected to end-user devices, configured so that it does not use VLAN trunking

trunk interface def

trunk interface



A switch interface configured so that it operate using VLAN trunking

Trunking administrative mode

Trunking administrative mode



The configured trunking setting on a Cisco switch interface, as configured with the switchport mode command

Trunking operational mode

Trunking operational mode



The current behavior of a Cisco switch interface for VLAN trunking

VTP transparent mode

One of three VTP operational modes. Switches in transparent mode can configure VLANs, but they do no tell other switches about the changes, and they do not learn about VLAN changes from other switches

trunking administrative mode options with the switchport mode cmd

access - always act as an access port



trunk - always act as trunk port



dynamic desirable - initiates negotiation messages and responds to negotiation messages to dynamically choose whether to start using trunking



dynamic auto - passively waits to receive trunk negotiation messages, at which point the switch will respond and negotiate whether to use trunking

switchport mode dynamic desirable cmd

asks the switch to both negotiate as well as to beign the negotiation process, rather than waiting on the other device

show interfaces trunk

this cmd lists information about all interfaces that currently operationally tunk

Display OSPF info (ospf)

show ip ospf



show ipv6 ospf

Display all source of routing information (ospf)

show ip protocol



show ipv6 protocol

Displays details about ospf-enabled interfaces (ospf)

show ip ospf interface



show ipv6 ospf interface



Display concise details about ospf enable interfaces (ospf)

show ip ospf interface brief



show ipv6 ospf interface brief


List of neighbors (ospf)

show ip ospf neighbors



show ipv6 ospf neighbors

summary of lsdb (ospf)

show ip ospf database



show ipv6 ospf database

show ospf learned routes

show ip route ospf



show ipv6 route ospf

The engineer can configure the interface as OSPFv3 passive interface telling the route to do the following

Quite sending OSPF hellos on the interface


Ignore received Hellos on the interface


Do not form neighbor relationships over the interfaces


continue to advertise about any subnet connect to the interface

how to configure an interface to be passive for OSPFv3

passive-interface gigabitethernet0/0

CEF

CEF Cisco Express Forwarding



A method of internal processing on Cisco routers, meant to make the routing process very efficient, doing so by caching IP routes in a table that can be searched very quickly, and by remembering data link headers rather than building them for every packet that is forwarded.

Connected route

Connected route



On a router, an IP route added to the routing table when the router interfaces is both up and has an IP address configured. The route is for the subnet that can be calculated based on the configured IP address and mask.

Static route

Static route



An IP route on a router created by the user configuring the details of the route on the local router.

ABR

ABR Are Border Router




A router using OSPF in which the router has interfaces in multiple OSPF areas


Convergence

Convergence



The time required to react to changes in the network, removing and adding new, better routes so that the current best routes are in all the routers' routing table

Distance vector

Distance vector



The logic behind the behavior of some interior routing protocols, such as RIP. Distance vector routing algorithms call for each router to send its entire routing table in each update but only to its neighbors. distance vector routing algorithms can be prone to routing loops but are computationally simple than line-state routing algorithms.

Link-state def

A classification of the underlying algorithm used in some routing protocols. Link-state protocols build a detailed database that lists link (subnet) and their state (up, down), from which the best routes can then be calculated.

Link-state advertisement (LSA)

In OSPF, the name of the data structure that resides inside the LSDB and describes in detail the various components in a network, including routers and links

LSDB (def and abbr)

LSDB



Link-state database



In OSPF, the data structure in RAM of router that holds the various LSAs, wth the collective LSAs representing the entire topology of the network

SPF

SPF - Shortest path first



The name of the algorithm used by link-state routing protocol to analyze the LSDB and find the least-cost router to each subnet.

standard access list

a list of IOS global configuration commands that can match only a packet's source IP address, for the purpose of deciding which packets to discard and which to allow through the router

extended access list

A list of IOS access-list global configuration commands that can match multiple parts of an IP packet, including the source and destination IP address and TCP/UDP ports, for the purpose of deciding which packets to discard and which to allow through the router

named access list

an ACL that identifies the various statements in the ACL based on a name, rather that a number

inside global

for packets sen to and from a host that resides inside the trusted part of a network that uses NAT, a term referring to the IP address used in the headers of those when those packets traverse the global internet

inside local

for packets sent to and from a host that resides inside the trusted part of a network that uses NAT, a term referring to the IP address used in the headers of those packets traverse the enterprise (private) part of the network

PAT

port address translation



a NAT feature in which one inside global IP address support over 60K concurrent TCP and UDP connection

NAT

NAT - Network Address Translation



A mechanism for reducing the need for globally unique IP addresses. NAT allows an organization with addresses that are not globally unique to connect to the Internet, by translating those addresses into public addresses in the globally routable address space.

Global routing prefix

An IPv6 prefix that defines an IPv6 address block made up of global unicast address, assigned to one organization, so that the organization has a block of globally uniques IPv6 addresses to use in its network

Global unicast address

A type of unicast IPv6 address that has been allocated from a range of public globally uniques IP addresses, as registered through IANA/ICANN, its member agencies, and other registries or IPSs

Unicast local address

A type of IPv6 unicast address meant as a replacement for IPv4 private addresses

All-nodes multicast addres

A specific IPv6 multicast address, FF02::1, with link-local scope, used to send packets to all devices on the link that support IPv6

All-routers multicast address

All-routers multicast address



A specific IPv6 multicast address, FF02::2, with link-local scope, used to send packets to all devices that act as IPv6 routers on the local link

EUI-64

Literally, a standard for an extended unique identifier that is 64 bits long. Specifically for IPv6, a set of rules for forming a 64-bit identifier, used as the interface ID in IPv6 addresses, by starting with a 48-bit MAC address, inserting FFE (hex) in the middle, and inverting the seventh bit

Link-local address

A type of unicast IPv6 address that represents an interface on a single data link. Packets sent to a link-local address cross only that particular link and are never forwarded to other subnets by a router. Used for communication that do not need to leave the local link/

Link-local scope

With IPv6 multicasts, a term that refers to the parts of the network to which a multicast packet can flow, with link-local referring to the fact that the packet stays on the subnet in which it originated

Solicited-nodemulticast address

A term used in IPv6 to refer to how hosts first check whether another host is using a unicast address before the first host uses that address

Neighbor Advertisement (NA)

A message defined by the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP), used to declare to other neighbors a host's MAC address. Sometimes sent in response to a previously received NDP Neighbor Solicitation (NS) messages.

Neighbor Solicitation (NS)

NS



A message defined by the IPv6 NDP, used to ask a neighbor to reply with a Neighbor Advertisement which lists the neighbor's MAC address.

Router Advertisement (RA)

RA



A message defined by the IPv6 NDP, used by routers to announce their willingness to act as an IPv6 router on a link. These can be sent in response to a previously received NDP Router Solicitation (RS) message

Router Solicitation (RS)

A message defined by the IPv6 Neighbor Discover Protocol, used to ask any routers on the link to reply, identifying the router, plus other configuration settings

Stateful DHCP

A term used in IPv6 to contrast with stateless DHCP. Stateful DHCP keeps track of which clients have been assigned which IPv6 addresses

SLAAC

SLAAC - Stateless Address Auto-configuration



a feature of IPV6 in which a host or router can be assigned an IPv6 unicast address without the need for a stateful DHCP server

Stateless DHCP

A term used in IPv6 to contrast with stateful DHCP. Stateless DHCP servers don't lease IPv6 addresses to clients. Instead, they supply other useful information, such as DNS server IP address, but with no need to track information about the clients.

Before class B network 172.16.0.0 is subnetted by a network engineer, what parts of the structure of the IP address in this network already exist, with a specific size? (2)


A) host


B) broadcast


C) network


d) subnet

A and C



An unsubnetted Class A, B, or C network has two parts: the network and host parts.

A Class B network needs to be subnetted such that it supports 100 subnets and 100 hosts/subnet. Which of the following answers list a workable combination for the number of network, subnet, and host bits? (Select two answers.)


a) Network = 16, subnet = 9, host = 7


b) Network = 16, subnet = 8, host = 8


c) Network = 16, subnet = 7, host = 7


d) Network = 8, subnet = 7, host = 17

ab



The number of network, subnet, and host bits must total 32 bits

Which of the following installation steps are typically required on a Cisco router, but not typically required on a Cisco switch? (Choose two answers.)


a) Turn the on/off switch to "on"


b) Connect the power cable


c) Connect to the console port


d) Connect serial cables

Explanation: Answer options D and A are correct.



Cisco routers have an on/off switch, but Cisco switches generally do not.

You just bought two Cisco routers for use in a lab, connecting each router to a different LAN switch with their Fa0/0 interfaces. You also connected the two routers’ serial interfaces using a back-to-back cable. Which of the following steps are not required to be able to forward IPv4 packets on both routers’ interfaces? (Choose two answers.)


a) Configuring the bandwidth command on one router's serial interface


b) Configuring an IP address on each router's Fast Ethernet and serial interfaces


c) Setting the interface description on both the Fast Ethernet and serial interface of each router


d) Configuring the clock rate command on one router's serial interface

Answer options A and C are correct.



To route packets, a router interface must have an IP address assigned and be in an “up and up” interface state. For a serial link created in a lab, without using CSU/DSUs, one router must be configured with a clock rate command to the speed of the link. The bandwidth and description commands are not required to make a link operational.

Which of the following commands do not list the IP address and mask of at least one interface? (Choose two answers.)


a) show version


b) show interfaces


c) show ip interface brief


e) show protocols type number


f) show running-config

Answer options C and A are correct.



The show ip interface brief command lists all the interface IPv4 addresses but none of the masks. The show version command lists none of the IP addresses and none of the masks. The other three commands list both the address and mask.

A router is configured with the no ip subnet-zero global configuration command. Which of the following interface subcommands would not be accepted by this router?



a) ip address 10.0.0.5 255.255.255.252


b) ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0


c) ip address 10.0.0.129 255.255.255.128


d) ip address 10.1.2.2 255.254.0.0


Explanation: Answer option D is correct.



With the no ip subnet-zero command configured, the router will not allow any interfaces to be configured with an IP address in the zero subnet. Of the listed answers, subnet 10.0.0.0 255.254.0.0 is a zero subnet, with a range of addresses from 10.0.0.1 to 10.1.255.254. The ip address 10.1.2.2 255.254.0.0 command would be rejected.

Router R1 lists a route in its routing table. Which of the following answers list a fact from a route, that the router then compares to the packet’s destination address? (Choose 2 answers.)



a) Next-hop router


b) Mask


c) Outgoing interface


d) Subnet ID


Explanation: Answer options B and D are correct.



The route defines the group of addresses represented by the route using the subnet ID and mask. The router can use those numbers to find the range of addresses that should be matched by this route. The other two answers list facts useful when forwarding packets that happen to match the route.


Lesson: Configuring IPv4 Addresses and Routes

Router 1 has a Fast Ethernet interface 0/0 with IP address 10.1.1.1. The interface is connected to a switch. This connection is then migrated to use 802.1Q trunking. Which of the following commands could be part of a valid configuration for Router 1’s Fa0/0 interface? (Choose two answers.)


a) trunking enable 4


b) trunking enable


c) dot1q enable 4


d) dot1q enable


e) interface fastethernet 0/0.4


f) encapsulation dot1q 4



Explanation: Answer options E and F are correct.



Of all the commands listed, only the two correct answers are syntactically correct router configuration commands. The command to enable 802.1Q trunking is encapsulation dot1q vlan_id.

Which of the following commands correctly configures a static route?


a) ip route 10.1.3.0 /24 10.1.130.253


b) ip route 10.1.3.0 serial 0


c) ip route 10.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.130.253


d) ip route 10.1.3.0 /24 serial 0

Explanation: Answer option C is correct.

The correct syntax lists a subnet number, then a subnet mask in dotted-decimal form, and then either an outgoing interface or a next-hop IP address.

A PC opens a command prompt and uses the ipconfig command to see that the PC’s IP address and mask are 192.168.4.77 and 255.255.255.224. The user then runs a test using the ping 192.168.4.117 command. Which of the following answers is the most likely to happen?



a) The PC sends an ARP looking for the MAC address of the DHCP server.


b) The PC sends a DNS query for 192.168.4.117.


c) The PC sends packets to its default gateway.


d) The PC sends packets directly to the host with address 192.168.4.117.

Explanation: Answer option C is correct.



PCs use two-option logic: send local packets (destined for hosts in the same subnet) directly, and send remote packets (destined for hosts in other subnets) to the default gateway/router. In this case, the PC’s own IP address is 192.168.5.77, with mask 255.255.224.0, so it is in subnet 192.168.4.64/27. This subnet has a range of addresses from 192.168.4.64 to 192.168.4.95, including the subnet and broadcast address. As a result, the PC sends the packet to its default gateway. As for the other incorrect answers, if the ping command had used a host name, it would have first asked a DNS server to resolve the name. Also, the PC already has an IP address, so DHCP would not be needed.


Lesson: Configuring IPv4 Addresses and Routes

A Layer 3 switch has been configured to route IP packets between VLANs 1, 2, and 3, which connect to subnets 172.20.1.0/25, 172.20.2.0/25, and 172.20.3.0/25, respectively. The engineer issues a show ip route command on the Layer 3 switch, listing the connected routes. Which of the following answers lists a piece of information that should be in at least one of the routes?


a) Next-hop router 172.20.4.1


b) Interface VLAN 2


c) Mask 255.255.255.0


d) Interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0.3


Explanation: Answer option B is correct.



The configuration of the Layer 3 switch’s routing feature uses VLAN interfaces, with the interface number matching the VLAN ID. The matching connected routes, like all connected IP routes, will list the interfaces but not a next-hop IP address. The three connected routes will list the VLAN interfaces 1, 2, and 3, respectively.

Which of the following network commands, following the command router ospf 1, tells this router to start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1?


a) network 10.0.0.1 0.0.255.255 area 0


b) network 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.255 area 0


c) network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0


d) network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0


Explanation: Answer option C is correct.



The network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0 command works, because it matches all interfaces whose first octet is 10. The rest of the commands match as follows: all addresses that end with 0.0.0 (wildcard mask 255.0.0.0); all addresses that begin with 10.0.0 (wildcard mask 0.0.0.255); and all addresses that begin 10.0 (wildcard mask 0.0.255.255).

Which of the following commands list the OSPF neighbors off interface serial 0/0? (Choose two answers.)


a) show ip ospf interface brief


b) show ip neighbor


c) show ip interface


d) show ip ospf neighbor serial 0/0


e) show ip ospf neighbor


Explanation: Answer options E and D are correct.



Of the three wrong answers, two are real commands that simply do not happen to list the OSPF neighbors. show ip ospf interface brief lists interfaces on which OSPF is enabled, but does not list neighbors. show ip interface lists IPv4 details about interfaces, but none related to OSPF. One incorrect answer, show ip neighbor, is not a valid IOS command.

Which of the following is true about how a router using a link-state routing protocol chooses the best route to reach a subnet?


a) The router uses the path that has the lowest hop count.


b) The router compares the metrics listed for that subnet in the updates received from each neighbor and picks the best (lowest) metric route.


c) The router calculates the best route by running the SPF algorithm against the information in the link-state database.


d) The router finds the best route in the link-state database.


Explanation: Answer option C is correct.



Link-state protocols do not exchange data that lists routes. They do list metric information, but it is per-interface information, and it is not tied to a subnet. Link-state protocols do require the SPF algorithm to take the varied pieces of information and create routes based on that information.


Which of the following routing protocols use a metric that is, by default, at least partially affected by link bandwidth? (Choose two answers.)



a) RIP-2


b) EIGRP


c) OSPF


d) RIP-1


Explanation: Answer options B and C are correct.



Both versions of RIP use the same hop-count metric.

Which of the following commands, following the command router ospf 1, tells this router to start using OSPF on interfaces whose IP addresses are 10.1.1.1, 10.1.100.1, and 10.1.120.1?



a) network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0


b) network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.0 area 0


c) network 10.1.1.0 0.x.1x.0 area 0


d) network 10.1.1.0 255.0.0.0 area 0


e) network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0


Explanation: Answer option A is correct.



The network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0 command matches all IP addresses as a result of the 255.255.255.255 wildcard mask, so this command enables OSPF in Area 0 on all interfaces. The answer with wildcard mask 0.255.255.0 is illegal, because it represents more than one string of binary 0s separated by binary 1s. The answer with x’s is syntactically incorrect. The answer with wildcard mask 255.0.0.0 means “Match all addresses whose last three octets are 0.0.0,” so none of the three interfaces are matched.


link state protocols

in link-state protocols, also called SPF protocols, the routers each create three separate tables.


One for tracking directly attached neighbors


One to determine the topology of the entire internetwork


One used as the routing table



Cmd to verify DHCP server

#show ip dhcp binding
 

#show ip dhcp binding


CMD to show dhcp pool and lease

 
show ip dhcp pool SF_LAN


show ip dhcp pool SF_LAN

Bootstrap

Stored in the microcode of the ROM



The bootstrap is used to bring a router up during initialization. It boots the router and then loads the IOS


POST def

Stored in the ROM,




The POST is used to check the basic functionality of the router hardware and determines which interfaces are present

Mini IOS

ROM - Called RXBOOR or boot loader by Cisco,




a small IOS in ROM that can be used to bring up an interface and load a Cisco IOS into flash memory. The mini-IOS can also perform a few other maintenance operations.

RAM

Used to hold packet buffers, ARP cache, routing tables, and also the software and data structures that allow the router to function. Running-config is stored in RAM, and most routers expand the IOS from flash into RAM upon boot.

Packet buffer



Routing table

Packet buffer - RAM



Routing table - RAM

ROM monitor

Stored in ROM




The ROM monitor is used for manufacturing, testing, and trouble-shooting, as well as running a mini-IOS when the IOS in flash fails to load.

ROM def

Used to start and maintain the router. Holds the POST and the bootstrap program as well as the mini-IOS

Flash memory def

Stores the Cisco OPS by default. Flash memory is not erased when the router is reloaded. It is EEPROM created by Intel.

NVRAM

Used to hold the router and switch configuration. NVRAM is not erased when the router or switch is reloaded. Does not store an IPS. The configuration register is stored in NVRAM.

Configuration register

Used to control how the router boots up.



This value can be found as the last line of the show version command output and by default is set to 0x2012, which tells the router to load the IOS from flash memory as well as to load the configuration from NVRAM.

Show processes

Show processes

Show processes

If you have a DNS server on your network, you will need to add a few commands to make the DNS name resolution work

#config t


(config)#ip domain-lookup


(config)#ip name-server 4.4.4.4


(config)#ip domain-name lamle.com

By default CDP transmits every 60 seconds and will hold packets from a neighbor in the CDP table for 180 seconds. What global cmds can be used...

cdp holdime


length of time that receiver must keep the packets it receives from neighboring devices



cdp time - rate at which CDP packets are sent on all active interfaces

IF someone statically configures an IP address on a LAN and the DHCP server hands out that same address, you will end up with a duplicate address. What cmd can can help

show ip dhcp server statistics

List DHCP server statistics

show ip dhcp server statistics

A syslog server save copies of console messages and can time-stamp them so you can view them at a later time. What cmds are used to do this?

(config)#logging host 172.16.10.1


(config)#service timestamps log datetime msec

Config an interface on a router to accept the DHCP client requests and forward them to the DHCP server with the following cmd

#config ter


(config)#interface fa0/0


(config-if)#ip helper-address 10.10.10.254

Cmd to list the state information about each IP address currently leased to a client

show ip address bindings

DHCP Relay

If you need to provide address from a DHCP server to hosts that aren't on the same LAN as the DHCP server, you can configure your router interface to relay or forward the DHCP client request

show cdp

Router#show cdp


Global CDP information:


Sending CDP packets every 60 seconds


Sending a holdtime value of 180 seconds


Sending CDPv2 advertisements is enabled

show cdp entry device.cisco.com

The following is sample output from the show cdp entry command with no limits. Information about the neighbor device.cisco.com is displayed, including device ID, address and protocol, platform, interface, hold time, and version.


outer# show cdp entry device.cisco.com-------------------------Device ID: device.cisco.comEntry address(es): IP address: 192.168.68.18 CLNS address: 490001.1111.1111.1111.00 DECnet address: 10.1Platform: cisco 4500, Capabilities: RouterInterface: Ethernet0/1, Port ID (outgoing port): Ethernet0Holdtime : 125 secVersion :Cisco IOS SoftwareCisco IOS (tm) 4500 Software (C4500-J-M), Version 12.1(2)Copyright (c) 1986-2000 by cisco Systems, Inc.

Compiled Mon 07-Apr-00 19:51 by joeuser

show cdp entry protocol

show cdp entry protocol command. Only information about the protocols enabled on device.cisco.com is displayed.


Router# show cdp entry device.cisco.com protocol



Protocol information for device.cisco.com:


IP address: 192.168.68.18


CLNS address: 490001.1111.1111.1111.00



DECnet address: 10.1

show cdp interface

how cdp interface



Serial0 is up, line protocol is up, encapsulation is SMDS


Sending CDP packets every 60 seconds


Holdtime is 180 seconds


Ethernet0 is up, line protocol is up, encapsulation is ARPA


Sending CDP packets every 60 seconds



Holdtime is 180 seconds

show cdp entry protocol (scr)

The following is sample output from the show cdp entry protocol command. Only information about the protocols enabled on device.cisco.com is displayed.


Router# show cdp entry device.cisco.com protocol



Protocol information for device.cisco.com:


IP address: 192.168.68.18


CLNS address: 490001.1111.1111.1111.00


DECnet address: 10.1

show cdp entry device.cisco.com (scr)

Router# show cdp entry device.cisco.com



-------------------------


Device ID: device.cisco.com


Entry address(es):


IP address: 192.168.68.18


CLNS address: 490001.1111.1111.1111.00


DECnet address: 10.1


Platform: cisco 4500, Capabilities: Router


Interface: Ethernet0/1, Port ID (outgoing port): Ethernet0


Holdtime : 125 sec



Version :


Cisco IOS Software


Cisco IOS (tm) 4500 Software (C4500-J-M), Version 12.1(2)


Copyright (c) 1986-2000 by cisco Systems, Inc.


Compiled Mon 07-Apr-00 19:51 by joeuser

Show cdp (scr)

Router#show cdp


Global CDP information:


Sending CDP packets every 60 seconds


Sending a holdtime value of 180 seconds


Sending CDPv2 advertisements is enabled

you can add the RIP routing protocol by using this two cmd

router rip


network



#config t


(config)#router rip


(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0


(config-router)#network 192.168.10.2


(config-router)#version 2


(config-router)#no auto-summary

redistribution def

translating from one type of routing protocol to another.



The means that you can support old routers using RIP but then use some newer routers as well

preventing an interface for sending and receiving RIP advertisements

#config t


(config)#router rip


(config-router)#passive-interface FA0/0

3. Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route


172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.2? (Choose two.) A. The command is used to establish a static route.


B. The default administrative distance is used.


C. The command is used to configure the default route.


D. The subnet mask for the source address is 255.255.255.0.


E. The command is used to establish a stub network.

3. A, B. Although option D almost seems right, it is not; the mask is the mask used on the remote network, not the source network. Since there is no number at the end of the static route, it is using the default administrative distance of 1.

17. Which of the following is an EGP?


A. RIPv2


B. EIGRP


C. BGP


D. RIP

C. BGP

18. Which of the following is an advantage of static routing?


A. Less overhead on the router CPU


B. No bandwidth usage between routers


C. Adds security


D. Recovers automatically from lost routes

18. D. Recovery from a lost route requires manual intervention by a human to replace the lost route. The advantages are less overhead on the router and network, as well as more security.

Inside local def

An address used for a host inside an enterprise.


It is the actual IP address assigned to a host in the private enterprise network

Inside global def

pAn address used for a host inside an enterprise. NAT uses an inside global address to re[resent the inside host as the packet is sent through the outside network (Internet).



A NAT router changes the src IP address of a packet sent by an inside host from an inside local address to an inside global address as the packet goes from the inside to the outside network

Outside global def

An address used for a host outside an enterprise.


Outside global address is the actual IP address assigned to a host that resides in the outside network, typically the internet

Outside local def

An outside IP address is the IP address that represent the host outside the enterprise network

Dynamic NAT

The NAT router creates a one-to-one mapping between an inside local and inside global address, and change the IP address in packets as they exit and enter the network. The mapping of an inside local address to an inside global address happens dynamically

Does OSPF support auto-summatization?

No

OSPF link def

Link is a network or router interface assigned to any given network.


When an interface is added to the OSPF process it's considered to be a lin

OPSF Router ID def

The router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify router. Cisco chooses the router by using the highest IP address of all configure loopback interface.



If no loopback interfaces are configured with address, OSFP will choose the highest IP address out of all active physical interface

OSPF Neighbor def

Two or more routers that have an interface on a common network, such as two router connected on a PPP serial link.


OSPF neighbors must have a number of common configuration details in order to be able to establish neighbor relationship


Area ID


Sub are flag


Hello and dead intervals

OSPF Adjacency

it is a relationship between two OSPF router that permits the direct exchange of router update.

OSPF designated router def

a DR is elected whenever OSPF routers are connected to the same broadcast network to minimize the number of adjacency formed and to publicize received routing info to and from the remaining routers on the broadcast network or link

OSPF Hello protocol def

OSPF Hello protocol provides dynamic neighbor discovery and maintains neighbor relationships. Hello packets and LSA (link state advertisements) build and maintain the topological database

OSPF neighborship database def

neighborship database is a list of all OSPF routers for which Hello packets have been seen.

OSPF Topological database def

topological database contains info from all of the LSA packets that have been received for an area.


The router uses the information from the topology database as input to the Dijkstra algorithm that computes the shortest path on the network

OSPF LSA def

LSA is an OSPF data packet containing link-state and routing info that is shared among OSPF routers

OSPF areas def

OSPF area is a neighboring of contiguous networks and routers. All routers in the same are share a common area ID.

OSPF operation is basically divided into these three categories:

Neighbor and adjacency initialization


LSA flooding


SPF tree calculation

What address is used by OSPF to send Hello packets

224.0.0.5

LSA flooding

LSA flooding is the method OSPF uses to share routing information. Via LSU packets, LSA information containing the link-state data is shared with all OSPF routers within an area.

CMD for enabling OSFP

router ospf

Configuring OSPF Areas

Router#config t


Router(config)#router ospf 1


Router(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 area 0

Configuring Loopback Interfaces OSPF

Corp(config)#int loopback 0 *Mar 22 01:23:14.206: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface


Loopback0, changed state to up


Corp(config-if)#ip address 172.31.1.1 255.255.255.255

show ip ospf Command

Corp#sh ip ospf


Routing Process "ospf 1" with ID 223.255.255.254


Start time: 00:08:41.724, Time elapsed: 2d16h


Supports only single TOS(TOS0) routes


Supports opaque LSA


Supports Link-local Signaling (LLS)


Supports area transit capability


Router is not originating router-LSAs with maximum metric


Initial SPF schedule delay 5000 msecs


Minimum hold time between two consecutive SPFs 10000 msecs


Maximum wait time between two consecutive SPFs 10000 msecs


Incremental-SPF disabled


Minimum LSA interval 5 secs


Minimum LSA arrival 1000 msecs


LSA group pacing timer 240 secs


Interface flood pacing timer 33 msecs


Retransmission pacing timer 66 msecs


Number of external LSA 0. Checksum Sum 0x000000

show ip ospf database Command

Corp#sh ip ospf database


OSPF Router with ID (223.255.255.254) (Process ID 1)


Router Link States (Area 0)


Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum Link count


10.10.10.2 10.10.10.2 966 0x80000001 0x007162 1


172.31.1.4 172.31.1.4 885 0x80000002 0x00D27E 1


192.168.10.1 192.168.10.1 886 0x8000007A 0x00BC95 3


192.168.20.1 192.168.20.1 1133 0x8000007A 0x00E348 3


223.255.255.254 223.255.255.254 925 0x8000004D 0x000B90 5


Net Link States (Area 0)


Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum


10.10.10.1 223.255.255.254 884 0x80000002 0x008CFE

show ip ospf interface Command

Corp#sh ip ospf int f0/0


FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up


Internet Address 10.10.10.1/24, Area 0


Process ID 1, Router ID 223.255.255.254, Network Type BROADCAST, Cost: 1


Transmit Delay is 1 sec, State DR, Priority 1


Designated Router (ID) 223.255.255.254, Interface address 10.10.10.1


Backup Designated router (ID) 172.31.1.4, Interface address 10.10.10.2 Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40, Retransmit 5


oob-resync timeout 40 Hello due in 00:00:08


Supports Link-local Signaling (LLS)


Cisco NSF helper support enabled


IETF NSF helper support enabled


Index 3/3, flood queue length 0


Next 0x0(0)/0x0(0)


Last flood scan length is 1, maximum is 1

show ip ospf neighbor Command

Corp#sh ip ospf neighbor


Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Address Interface


172.31.1.4 1 FULL/BDR 00:00:34 10.10.10.2 FastEthernet0/0


192.168.20.1 0 FULL/ - 00:00:31 172.16.10.6 Serial0/1


192.168.10.1 0 FULL/ - 00:00:32 172.16.10.2 Serial0/0

show ip protocols Command

Corp#sh ip protocols


Routing Protocol is "ospf 1"


Outgoing update filter list for all interfaces is not set


Incoming update filter list for all interfaces is not set


Router ID 223.255.255.254


Number of areas in this router is 1. 1 normal 0 stub 0 nssa


Maximum path: 4 Routing for Networks:


10.10.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 172.16.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0


172.16.10.5 0.0.0.0 area 0


Reference bandwidth unit is 100 mbps Routing Information Sources:


Gateway Distance Last Update


192.168.10.1 110 00:21:53


192.168.20.1 110 00:21:53


Distance: (default is 110) Distance: (default is 110)

1. There are three possible routes for a router to reach a destination network. The first route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The second route is from RIPv2 with a metric of 4. The third is from EIGRP with a composite metric of 20514560. Which route will be installed by the router in its routing table?


A. RIPv2


B. EIGRP


C. OSPF


D. All three

B. Only the EIGRP routes will be placed in the routing table because it has the lowest administrative distance (AD), and that is always used before metrics.

3. Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)


A. It is locally significant.


B. It is globally significant.


C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.


D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.


E. All routes in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.

A, C. The process ID for OSPF on a router is only locally significant and you can use the same number on each router, or each router can have a different number—it just doesn’t matter. The numbers you can use are from 1 to 65,535. Don’t get this confused with area numbers, which can be from 0 to 4.2 billion.

4. All of the following must match for two OSPF routers to become neighbors except which?


A. Area ID


B. Router ID


C. Stub area flag


D. Authentication password if using one

B. The router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router. It need not and should not match.

7. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the output shown?


Corp#sh ip ospf neighbor


Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Address Interface


172.31.1.4 1 FULL/BDR 00:00:34 10.10.10.2 FastEthernet0/0


192.168.20.1 0 FULL/ - 00:00:31 172.16.10.6 Serial0/1


192.168.10.1 0 FULL/ - 00:00:32 172.16.10.2 Serial0/0 A. There is no DR on the link to 192.168.20.1.


B. The Corp router is the BDR on the link to 172.31.1.4.


C. The Corp router is the DR on the link to 192.168.20.1.


D. The link to 192.168.10.1 is Active.

A. A dash (-) in the State column indicates no DR election, because they are not required on a point-to-point link such as a serial connection.

8. What is the administrative distance of OSPF?


A. 90


B. 100


C. 120


D. 110

D. By default the administrative distance of OSPF is 110.

In OSPF, Hellos are sent to what IP address?


A. 224.0.0.5


B. 224.0.0.9


C. 224.0.0.10


D. 224.0.0.1

A. Hello packets are addressed to multicast address 224.0.0.5.


10. What command generated the following output?


172.31.1.4 1 FULL/BDR 00:00:34 10.10.10.2 FastEthernet0/0


192.168.20.1 0 FULL/ - 00:00:31 172.16.10.6 Serial0/1


192.168.10.1 0 FULL/ - 00:00:32 172.16.10.2 Serial0/0


A. show ip ospf neighbor


B. show ip ospf database


C. show ip route


D. show ip ospf interface

10. A. The show ip ospf neighbor command displays all interface-related neighbor infor-mation. This output shows the DR and BDR (unless your router is the DR or BDR), the RID of all directly connected neighbors and the IP address and name of the directly con-nected interface.

11. Updates addressed to 224.0.0.6 are destined for which type of OSPF router?


A. DR


B. ASBR


C. ABR


D. All OSPF routers

11. A. 224.0.0.6 is used on broadcast networks to reach the DR and BDR.

14. Type the command that will disable OSPF on the Fa0/1 interface under the routing process. Write only the command and not the prompt.

14. passive-interface fastEthernet 0/1 The command passive-interface fastEthernet 0/1 will disable OSPF on the specified interface only.

15. Which two of the following commands will place network 10.2.3.0/24 into area 0? (Choose two.)


A. router eigrp 10


B. router ospf 10


C. router rip


D. network 10.0.0.0


E. network 10.2.3.0 255.255.255.0 area 0


F. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area0


G. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

15. B, G. To enable OSPF, you must first start OSPF using a process ID. The number is irrelevant; just choose a number from 1 to 65,535 and you’re good to go. After you start the OSPF process, you must configure interfaces on which to activate OSPF using the network command with wildcards and specification of an area. Option F is wrong because there must be a space after the parameter area and before you list the area number.

16. Given the following output, which statement or statements can be determined to be true? (Choose all that apply.)


RouterA2# show ip ospf neighbor


Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Address Interface


192.168.23.2 1 FULL/BDR 00:00:29 10.24.4.2 FastEthernet1/0


192.168.45.2 2 FULL/BDR 00:00:24 10.1.0.5 FastEthernet0/0


192.168.85.1 1 FULL/- 00:00:33 10.6.4.10 Serial0/1


192.168.90.3 1 FULL/DR 00:00:32 10.5.5.2 FastEthernet0/1


192.168.67.3 1 FULL/DR 00:00:20 10.4.9.20 FastEthernet0/2


192.168.90.1 1 FULL/BDR 00:00:23 10.5.5.4 FastEthernet0/1


<>


A. The DR for the network connected to Fa0/0 has an interface priority higher than 2.


B. This router (A2) is the BDR for subnet 10.1.0.0.


C. The DR for the network connected to Fa0/1 has a router ID of 10.5.5.2.


D. The DR for the serial subnet is 192.168.85.1.

16. A. The default OSPF interface priority is 1, and the highest interface priority determines the designated router (DR) for a subnet. The output indicates that the router with a router ID of 192.168.45.2 is currently the backup designated router (BDR) for the seg-ment, which indicates that another router became the DR. It can be then be assumed that the DR router has an interface priority higher than 2. (The router serving the DR func-tion is not present in the truncated sample output.)

18. Type the command that produced the following output. Write only the command and not the prompt.


FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up


Internet Address 10.10.10.1/24, Area 0


Process ID 1, Router ID 223.255.255.254, Network Type BROADCAST, Cost: 1


Transmit Delay is 1 sec, State DR, Priority 1


Designated Router (ID) 223.255.255.254, Interface address 10.10.10.1


Backup Designated router (ID) 172.31.1.4, Interface address 10.10.10.2


Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40, Retransmit 5


oob-resync timeout 40 Hello due in 00:00:08


Supports Link-local Signaling (LLS)


Cisco NSF helper support enabled


IETF NSF helper support enabled


Index 3/3, flood queue length 0


Next 0x0(0)/0x0(0)


Last flood scan length is 1, maximum is 1


Last flood scan time is 0 msec, maximum is 0 msec


Neighbor Count is 1, Adjacent neighbor count is 1


Adjacent with neighbor 172.31.1. Suppress hello for 0 neighbor(s)

18. show ip ospf interface The show ip ospf interface command displays all inter-face-related OSPF information. Data is displayed about OSPF information for all OSPF-enabled interfaces or for specified interfaces.

Which of the following is the best summarization of the following networks:


192.168.128.0 through 192.168.159.0


A. 192.168.0.0/24


B. 192.168.128.0/16


C. 192.168.128.0/19


D. 192.168.128.0/20

20. C. If you start at 192.168.128.0 and go through 192.168.159.0, you can see this is a


block of 32 in the third octet. Since the network address is always the first one in the


range, the summary address is 192.168.128.0. What mask provides a block of 32 in


the third octet? The answer is 255.255.224.0, or /19.

Which of the following network addresses correctly summarizes the three networks


shown below efficiently?


10.0.0.0/16


10.1.0.0/16


10.2.0.0/16


A. 10.0.0.0/15


B. 10.1.0.0/8


C. 10.0.0.0/14


D. 10.0.0.8/16

C. The interesting octet in this example is the second octet, and it is a block size of four


starting at 10.0.0.0. By using a 255.252.0.0 mask, we are telling the summary to use a


block size of four in the 2nd octet. This will cover 10.0.0.0 through 10.3.255.255. This


is the best answer.

When a ping to the local host IP address succeeds but a ping to the default gateway


IP address fails, what can you rule out? (Choose all that apply.)


A. The IP address of the local host is incorrect.


B. The IP address of the gateway is incorrect.


C. The NIC is not functional.


D. The IP stack has failed to initialize.

10. C, D. If a ping to the local host succeeds, you can rule out IP stack or NIC failure.

When a ping to the local host IP address fails, what can you assume?


A. The IP address of the local host is incorrect.


B. The IP address of the remote host is incorrect.


C. The NIC is not functional.


D. The IP stack has failed to initialize.

C. When a ping to the local host IP address fails, you can assume the NIC is not


functional.

Which two of the following are true regarding the distance-vector and link-state routing


protocols? (Choose two.)


A. Link state sends its complete routing table out of all active interfaces at periodic


time intervals.


B. Distance vector sends its complete routing table out of all active interfaces at periodic


time intervals.


C. Link state sends updates containing the state of its own links to all routers in the


internetwork.


D. Distance vector sends updates containing the state of its own links to all routers in


the internetwork.

B, C. The distance-vector routing protocol sends its complete routing table out of all


active interfaces at periodic time intervals. Link-state routing protocols send updates


containing the state of their own links to all routers in the internetwork.

Which of the following is an advantage of static routing?


A. Less overhead on the router CPU


B. No bandwidth usage between routers


C. Adds security


D. Recovers automatically from lost routes

D. Recovery from a lost route requires manual intervention by a human to replace


the lost route. The advantages are less overhead on the router and network, as well


as more security.

Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a


router? (Choose two.)


A. It is locally significant.


B. It is globally significant.


C. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.


D. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running


on the router.


E. All routes in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to


exchange routing information.


4. All of the following must match for two

A, C. The process ID for OSPF on a router is only locally significant and you can use the same number on each router, or each router can have a different number—it just doesn’t matter. The numbers you can use are from 1 to 65,535. Don’t get this confused with area numbers, which can be from 0 to 4.2 billion.


4. All of the following must match for two OSPF routers to become neighbors except which?


A. Area ID


B. Router ID


C. Stub area flag


D. Authentication password if using one

B. The router ID (RID) is an IP address used to identify the router. It need not and


should not match.

You get a call from a network administrator who tells you that he typed the following


into his router:


Router(config)#router ospf 1


Router(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0


He tells you he still can’t see any routes in the routing table. What configuration error


did the administrator make?


A. The wildcard mask is incorrect.


B. The OSPF area is wrong.


C. The OSPF process ID is incorrect.


D. The AS configuration is wrong.

A. The administrator typed in the wrong wildcard mask configuration. The wildcard should have been 0.0.0.255 or even 0.255.255.255.

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the output shown?


Corp#sh ip ospf neighbor


Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Address Interface


172.31.1.4 1 FULL/BDR 00:00:34 10.10.10.2 FastEthernet0/0


192.168.20.1 0 FULL/ - 00:00:31 172.16.10.6 Serial0/1


192.168.10.1 0 FULL/ - 00:00:32 172.16.10.2 Serial0/0


A. There is no DR on the link to 192.168.20.1.


B. The Corp router is the BDR on the link to 172.31.1.4.


C. The Corp router is the DR on the link to 192.168.20.1.


D. The link to 192.168.10.1 is Active.

A. A dash (-) in the State column indicates no DR election, because they are not required on a point-to-point link such as a serial connection.

What command generated the following output?


172.31.1.4 1 FULL/BDR 00:00:34 10.10.10.2 FastEthernet0/0


192.168.20.1 0 FULL/ - 00:00:31 172.16.10.6 Serial0/1


192.168.10.1 0 FULL/ - 00:00:32 172.16.10.2 Serial0/0


A. show ip ospf neighbor


B. show ip ospf database


C. show ip route


D. show ip ospf interface

A. show ip ospf neighbor

Updates addressed to 224.0.0.6 are destined for which type of OSPF router?


A. DR


B. ASBR


C. ABR


D. All OSPF routers

A. 224.0.0.6 is used on broadcast networks to reach the DR and BDR.

A designated router is elected on ______



Each OSPF router maintains an identical database describing _____.



A Hello protocol provides _________.



A routing table contains ______.

A designated router is elected on broadcast networks.



Each OSPF router maintains an identical database describing the AS topology.



A Hello protocol provides dynamic neighbor discovery.



A routing table contains only the best routes.

Which two of the following commands will place network 10.2.3.0/24 into area 0?


(Choose two.)


A. router eigrp 10


B. router ospf 10


C. router rip


D. network 10.0.0.0


E. network 10.2.3.0 255.255.255.0 area 0


F. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area0


G. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

B, G. To enable OSPF, you must first start OSPF using a process ID. The number is


irrelevant; just choose a number from 1 to 65,535 and you’re good to go. After you


start the OSPF process, you must configure interfaces on which to activate OSPF using


the network command with wildcards and specification of an area. Option F is wrong


because there must be a space after the parameter area and before you list the area


number.

Given the following output, which statement or statements can be determined to be


true? (Choose all that apply.)


RouterA2# show ip ospf neighbor


Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Address Interface


192.168.23.2 1 FULL/BDR 00:00:29 10.24.4.2 FastEthernet1/0


192.168.45.2 2 FULL/BDR 00:00:24 10.1.0.5 FastEthernet0/0


192.168.85.1 1 FULL/- 00:00:33 10.6.4.10 Serial0/1


192.168.90.3 1 FULL/DR 00:00:32 10.5.5.2 FastEthernet0/1


192.168.67.3 1 FULL/DR 00:00:20 10.4.9.20 FastEthernet0/2


192.168.90.1 1 FULL/BDR 00:00:23 10.5.5.4 FastEthernet0/1


<>


A. The DR for the network connected to Fa0/0 has an interface priority higher than 2.


B. This router (A2) is the BDR for subnet 10.1.0.0.


C. The DR for the network connected to Fa0/1 has a router ID of 10.5.5.2.


D. The DR for the serial subnet is 192.168.85.1.

A. The default OSPF interface priority is 1, and the highest interface priority determines


the designated router (DR) for a subnet. The output indicates that the router with a


router ID of 192.168.45.2 is currently the backup designated router (BDR) for the segment,


which indicates that another router became the DR. It can be then be assumed that


the DR router has an interface priority higher than 2. (The router serving the DR function


is not present in the truncated sample output.)

What are three reasons for creating OSPF in a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)


A. To decrease routing overhead


B. To speed up convergence


C. To confine network instability to single areas of the network


D. To make configuring OSPF easier

A, B, C. OSPF is created in a hierarchical design, not a flat design like RIP. This


decreases routing overhead, speeds up convergence, and confines network instability to


a single area of the network.

18. Type the command that produced the following output. Write only the command and


not the prompt.


FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up


Internet Address 10.10.10.1/24, Area 0


Process ID 1, Router ID 223.255.255.254, Network Type BROADCAST, Cost: 1


Transmit Delay is 1 sec, State DR, Priority 1


Designated Router (ID) 223.255.255.254, Interface address 10.10.10.1


Backup Designated router (ID) 172.31.1.4, Interface address 10.10.10.2


Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40, Retransmit 5


oob-resync timeout 40


Hello due in 00:00:08


Supports Link-local Signaling (LLS)


Cisco NSF helper support enabled


IETF NSF helper support enabled


Index 3/3, flood queue length 0


Next 0x0(0)/0x0(0)


Last flood scan length is 1, maximum is 1


Last flood scan time is 0 msec, maximum is 0 msec


Neighbor Count is 1, Adjacent neighbor count is 1


Adjacent with neighbor 172.31.1. Suppress hello for 0 neighbor(s)

18. Type the command that produced the following output. Write only the command and


not the prompt.


FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up


Internet Address 10.10.10.1/24, Area 0


Process ID 1, Router ID 223.255.255.254, Network Type BROADCAST, Cost: 1


Transmit Delay is 1 sec, State DR, Priority 1


Designated Router (ID) 223.255.255.254, Interface address 10.10.10.1


Backup Designated router (ID) 172.31.1.4, Interface address 10.10.10.2


Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40, Retransmit 5


oob-resync timeout 40


Hello due in 00:00:08


Supports Link-local Signaling (LLS)


Cisco NSF helper support enabled


IETF NSF helper support enabled


Index 3/3, flood queue length 0


Next 0x0(0)/0x0(0)


Last flood scan length is 1, maximum is 1


Last flood scan time is 0 msec, maximum is 0 msec


Neighbor Count is 1, Adjacent neighbor count is 1


Adjacent with neighbor 172.31.1. Suppress hello for 0 neighbor(s)

config corp router with default route towards interent

Corp#config t Corp(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/0 Corp(config)#router ospf 1 Corp(config-router)#default-information originate

Configuring Loopback Interfaces ospf

SF#config t SF(config)#int loopback 0 *Mar 22 01:25:11.206: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Loopback0, changed state to up SF(config-if)#ip address 172.31.1.2 255.255.255.255

sh ip ospf database

OSPF Router with ID (223.255.255.254) (Process ID 1)


Router Link States (Area 0)


Link ID ADV Router Age Seq# Checksum Link count


10.10.10.2 10.10.10.2 966 0x80000001 0x007162 1


172.31.1.4 172.31.1.4 885 0x80000002 0x00D27E 1


192.168.10.1 192.168.10.1 886 0x8000007A 0x00BC95 3


192.168.20.1 192.168.20.1 1133 0x8000007A 0x00E348 3


223.255.255.254 223.255.255.254 925 0x8000004D 0x000B90 5

show ip ospf interface

FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up


Internet Address 10.10.10.1/24, Area 0


Process ID 1, Router ID 223.255.255.254, Network Type BROADCAST, Cost: 1


Transmit Delay is 1 sec, State DR, Priority 1


Designated Router (ID) 223.255.255.254, Interface address 10.10.10.1


Backup Designated router (ID) 172.31.1.4, Interface address 10.10.10.2


Timer intervals configured, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40, Retransmit 5


oob-resync timeout 40


Hello due in 00:00:08


Supports Link-local Signaling (LLS)


Cisco NSF helper support enabled


IETF NSF helper support enabled


Index 3/3, flood queue length 0


Next 0x0(0)/0x0(0)


Last flood scan length is 1, maximum is 1

show ip ospf neighbor Command

Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Address Interface


172.31.1.4 1 FULL/BDR 00:00:34 10.10.10.2 FastEthernet0/0


192.168.20.1 0 FULL/ - 00:00:31 172.16.10.6 Serial0/1


192.168.10.1 0 FULL/ - 00:00:32 172.16.10.2 Serial0/0

show ip protocols Command

Routing Protocol is "ospf 1"


Outgoing update filter list for all interfaces is not set


Incoming update filter list for all interfaces is not set


Router ID 223.255.255.254


Number of areas in this router is 1. 1 normal 0 stub 0 nssa


Maximum path: 4


Routing for Networks:


10.10.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0


172.16.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0


172.16.10.5 0.0.0.0 area 0


Reference bandwidth unit is 100 mbps


Routing Information Sources:


Gateway Distance Last Update


192.168.10.1 110 00:21:53


192.168.20.1 110 00:21:53


Distance: (default is 110) Distance: (default is 110)

Voice access ports

Nowadays, most switches will allow you to add a second VLAN to an access port on a switch port for your voice traffic, called the voice VLAN. The voice VLAN used to be called the auxiliary VLAN, which allowed it to be overlaid on top of the data VLAN, enabling both types of traffic to travel through the same port. Even though this is technically considered to be a different type of link, it’s still just an access port that can be configured for both


data and voice VLANs. This allows you to connect both a phone and a PC device to one switch port but still have each device in a separate VLAN.

Trunk ports

Believe it or not, the term trunk port was inspired by the telephone system trunks, which carry multiple telephone conversations at a time. So it follows that trunk ports can similarly carry multiple VLANs at a time as well

ISL def

Inter-Switch Link (ISL)



proprietary to Cisco


encapsulates the frame

802.1q

inserts a field into the frame to identify the VLAN

using unassigned VLANs

Remember that a created VLAN is unused until it is assigned to a switch


port or ports and that all ports are always assigned in VLAN 1 unless set


otherwise.

show vlan

VLAN Name Status Ports


---- ------------------------- --------- -------------------------------


1 default active Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, Fa0/4


Fa0/5, Fa0/6, Fa0/7, Fa0/8


Fa0/9, Fa0/10, Fa0/11, Fa0/12


Fa0/13, Fa0/14, Fa0/19, Fa0/20


Fa0/21, Fa0/22, Fa0/23, Gi0/1


Gi0/2


2 Sales active


3 Marketing active


4 Accounting active


[output cut]

change, delete, or rename VLAN 1

You can’t change, delete, or rename VLAN 1 because it’s the default VLAN and you just can’t change it

DTP

Dynamic Trunk Protocol - Cisco proprietary



if there is a compatible switch connected, they will start trunking automatically, which is precisely where my four ports are



is used for negotiating trunking on a link


between two devices as well as negotiating the encapsulation type of either 802.1q or ISL. I use the nonegotiate command when I want dedicated trunk ports; no questions asked.


S1# show interfaces trunk

S1# show interfaces trunk


Port Mode Encapsulation Status Native vlan


Fa0/15 desirable n-isl trunking 1


Fa0/16 desirable n-isl trunking 1


Fa0/17 desirable n-isl trunking 1


Fa0/18 desirable n-isl trunking 1


Port Vlans allowed on trunk


Fa0/15 1-4094


Fa0/16 1-4094


Fa0/17 1-4094


Fa0/18 1-4094

S1#sh interfaces fastEthernet 0/15 switchport


Name: Fa0/15


Switchport: Enabled


Administrative Mode: dynamic desirable


Operational Mode: trunk


Administrative Trunking Encapsulation: negotiate


Operational Trunking Encapsulation: isl


Negotiation of Trunking: On


Access Mode VLAN: 1 (default)


Trunking Native Mode VLAN: 1 (default)


Administrative Native VLAN tagging: enabled


Voice VLAN: none


[output cut]

The highlighted output shows us the administrative mode of dynamic desirable, that the port is a trunk port, and that DTP was used to negotiate the frame tagging method of ISL. It also predictably shows that the native VLAN is the default of 1.

configure interface Fa0/3 to VLAN 3.

S3#config t


S3(config)#int fa0/3


S3(config-if)#switchport mode access


S3(config-if)#switchport access vlan 3

trunk configuration on interfaces Fa0/15–18 as


set to trunk:

S1(config)#int range f0/15-18


S1(config-if-range)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q


S1(config-if-range)#switchport mode trunk

switchport mode dynamic auto (expl)

This mode makes the interface able to convert the link


to a trunk link. The interface becomes a trunk interface if the neighboring interface is set


to trunk or desirable mode. The default is dynamic auto on a lot of Cisco switches, but that


default trunk method is changing to dynamic desirable on most new models.

switchport mode dynamic desirable (expl)

This one makes the interface actively attempt to


convert the link to a trunk link. The interface becomes a trunk interface if the neighboring


interface is set to trunk, desirable, or auto mode. I used to see this mode as the default


on some switches, but not any longer. This is now the default switch port mode for all


Ethernet interfaces on all new Cisco switches.

switchport mode trunk (expl)

Puts the interface into permanent trunking mode and negotiates


to convert the neighboring link into a trunk link. The interface becomes a trunk interface


even if the neighboring interface isn’t a trunk interface.

switchport nonegotiate (expl)

Prevents the interface from generating DTP frames. You can use this command only when the interface switchport mode is access or trunk. You must manually configure the neighboring interface as a trunk interface to establish a trunk link.

configured on S1 port F0/15, causing it to


drop all traffic sent and received for VLANs 4, 6, 12, and

S1(config)#int f0/15


S1(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 4,6,12,15

change the native VLAN, use the following command

S1(config)#int f0/15


S1(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 4

Standard access lists

These ACLs use only the source IP address in an IP packet as the condition test. All decisions are made based on the source IP address. This means that standard access lists basically permit or deny an entire suite of protocols. They don’t distinguish between any of the many types of IP traffic such as Web, Telnet, UDP, and so on.

Extended access lists

Extended access lists can evaluate many of the other fields in the layer 3 and layer 4 headers of an IP packet. They can evaluate source and destination IP addresses, the Protocol field in the Network layer header, and the port number at the Transport layer header.


This gives extended access lists the ability to make much more granular decisions when controlling traffic.

Named access lists

named access lists are either standard or extended and not actually a distinct type

Inbound access lists

When an access list is applied to inbound packets on an interface, those packets are processed through the access list before being routed to the outbound interface. Any packets that are denied won’t be routed because they’re discarded before the routing process is invoked.

Outbound access lists

When an access list is applied to outbound packets on an interface, packets are routed to the outbound interface and then processed through the access list before being queued.

access-list numbers 1–99 or 1300–1999

access-list numbers 1–99 or 1300–1999, you’re telling the router that you want to create a standard IP access list, which means you can only filter on source IP address.

this cmd tells the list to deny any packets from host 172.16.30.2.

access-list 10 deny host 172.16.30.2

Corp(config)#access-list 10 deny 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255

This example reveals an access list starting at 172.16.16.0 going up a block size of 8 to


172.16.23.255.

When you use a web browser to make an HTTP connection toan IPv6 device, you have to type the address into the browser with brackets around theliteral address.
example

http://[2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab]/default.html

Global unicast addresses
2000::/3
Link-local addresses
FE80::/10
Unique local addresses
FC00::/7



intended for nonrouting purposesover the Internet, but they are nearly globally unique





Multicast
FF00::/8



packets addressed to a multicast address aredelivered to all interfaces tuned into the multicast address aka one to many

0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0
Equals ::. This is the equivalent of IPv4’s 0.0.0.0 and is typicallythe source address of a host before the host receives an IPaddress when you’re using DHCP-driven stateful configuration.
0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
Equals ::1. The equivalent of 127.0.0.1 in IPv4.
0:0:0:0:0:0:192.168.100.1
This is how an IPv4 address would be written in a mixed IPv6/IPv4 network environment.
The global unicast address range.
2000::/3
The unique local unicast range.
FC00::/7
The link-local unicast range.
FE80::/10
The multicast range.
FF00::/8
3FFF:FFFF::/32
Reserved for examples and documentation.
2001:0DB8::/32
Also reserved for examples and documentation.
2002::/16
Used with 6-to-4 tunneling, which is an IPv4-to-IPv6 transitionsystem. The structure allows IPv6 packets to be transmitted overan IPv4 network without the need to configure explicit tunnels.
ipv6 unicast-routing global configurationcommand:
Corp(config)#ipv6 unicast-routing



By default, IPv6 traffic forwarding is disabled, so using this command enables it. Also,as you’ve probably guessed, IPv6 isn’t enabled by default on any interfaces either, so wehave to go to each interface individually and enable it.

EUI
extendedunique identifier
Stateless Autoconfiguration
Stateless Autoconfiguration (eui-64)Autoconfiguration is an especially useful solution because it allows devices on a network toaddress themselves with a link-local unicast address as well as with a global unicast address.



This process happens through first learning the prefix information from the router and thenappending the device’s own interface address as the interface ID.




physical MACaddress, which is exactly what’s used for the interface ID. But since the interface ID in anIPv6 address is 64 bits in length and a MAC address is only 48 bits, where do the extra 16bits come from? The MAC address is padded in the middle with the extra bits—it’s paddedwith FFFE.For example, let’s say I have a device with a MAC address that looks like this:0060:d673:1987. After it’s been padded, it would look like this: 0260:d6FF:FE73:1987.

Stateless Autoconfiguration example 0090:2716:fd0f
MAC address 0090:2716:fd0f



IPv6 EUI-64 address: 2001:0db8:0:1:0290:27ff:fe16:fd0f

Stateless Autoconfiguration example MAC address aa12:bcbc:1234
MAC address aa12:bcbc:1234



IPv6 EUI-64 address: 2001:0db8:0:1:a812:bcff:febc:1234

Stateless Autoconfiguration example MAC address 0c0c:dede:1234
MAC address 0c0c:dede:1234

IPv6 EUI-64 address: 2001:0db8:0:1:0e0c:deff:fede:1234

Stateless Autoconfiguration example MAC address 0b34:ba12:1234
MAC address 0b34:ba12:1234

IPv6 EUI-64 address: 2001:0db8:0:1:0934:baff:fe12:1234

To perform autoconfiguration, a host goes through a basic two-step process:
1. First, the host needs the prefix information, similar to the network portion of an IPv4address, to configure its interface, so it sends a router solicitation (RS) request for it.This RS is then sent out as a multicast to all routers (FF02::2). The actual informationbeing sent is a type of ICMP message, and like everything in networking, this ICMPmessage has a number that identifies it. The RS message is ICMP type 133.2. The router answers back with the required prefix information via a router advertisement(RA). An RA message also happens to be a multicast packet that’s sent to the all-nodesmulticast address (FF02::1) and is ICMP type 134. RA messages are sent on a periodicbasis, but the host sends the RS for an immediate response so it doesn’t have to wait untilthe next scheduled RA to get what it needs.

The IPv6 equivalent to IPv4 0.0.0.0

0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0 or ::.




Equivalent to IPv4s 0.0.0.0 and is typically the source address of a host before the host receives an IP address



The IPv6 equivalent to 127.0.0.1

0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 or ::1

How an IPv5 address would be written in a mixed IPv6/IPv6 network environment

0:0:0:0:0:0:192.168.10.1

The global unicast address range

2000::/3

The unique local unicast range

FC00::/7

The link-local unicast range

FE80::/10

The multicast rane

FF00::/8

IPv6 Reserved for sample documentation

3FFF:FFFF::/32

IPv6 range used for 6-to-4 tunneling

2002::/16

A switch user is currently in console line configuration mode. Which of the following would place the user in enable mode? (Choose two answers.)


a) Using the exit command once


b) Using the quit command


c) Pressing the Ctrl-Z key sequence once


d) Using the end command once

cd




Answer options D and C are correct.The exit command moves the user one config mode backward, toward global configuration mode, or if already in global configuration mode, it moves the user back to enable mode. From console mode, it moves the user back to global configuration mode. The end command and the Ctrl-Z key sequence both move the user back to enable mode regardless of the current configuration submode.

Fred has just added DSL service at his home, with a separate DSL modem and consumer-grade router with four Ethernet ports. Fred wants to use the same old phone he was using before the installation of DSL. Which is most likely true about the phone cabling and phone used with his new DSL installation? a)The old phone must be replaced with a digital phone.b)He uses the old phone, cabled to one of the router/switch device's Ethernet ports. c)He uses the old phone, cabled to the DSL modem's ports. d)He uses the old phone, cabled to an existing telephone port, and not to any new device.

Answer option D is correct.With DSL, the requirements on the phone’s wiring are unchanged. The phone can connect to any working telephone jack, as if the DSL modem and router did not exist.

Which of the following Internet access technologies, used to connect a site to an ISP, offers asymmetric speeds? (Choose two answers.)


a)BGP


b)Cable Internet


c)DSL


d)Leased lines

Answer options C and B are correct.Leased lines transmit data at the same speed in both directions, making it a symmetric service. DSL and cable Internet offer asymmetric speeds, with a faster downstream speed. BGP is a routing protocol and is not an Internet access technology.

Two routers, R1 and R2, connect using an Ethernet over MPLS service. The service provides point-to-point service between these two routers only, as a Layer 2 Ethernet service. Which of the following are the most likely to be true about this WAN? (Choose two answers.)




a) R1 will forward data link frames to R2 using an Ethernet header/trailer.


b) R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to R2.


c) R1 will connect to a physical Ethernet link, with the other end of the cable connected to a device at the WAN service provider point of presence.


d) R1 will forward data link frames to R2 using an HDLC header/trailer.

Answer options C and A are correct.The physical installation uses a model in which each router uses a physical Ethernet link to connect to some SP device in an SP facility called a point of presence (POP). The Ethernet link does not span from each customer device to the other. From a data link perspective, both routers use the same Ethernet standard header and trailer used on LANs; HDLC does not matter on these Ethernet WAN links.

Which of the following fields in an HDLC header is equivalent to Preamble in an Ethernet header?


a) FCS


b) Flag


c) Address


d) Type

Answer option B is correct.




The Flag field in an HDLC header is equivalent to Preamble in an Ethernet header.

The CSU/DSU device is used in ________ .


a)WAN connectivity


b)LAN and WAN connectivity


c)None of the above


d)LAN connectivity

Answer option B is correct. CSU/DSU is a WAN device that connects LANs to WANs.

What Ethernet standard was improved to make it viable as a WAN technology?


a) Cable length


b) Devices


c) Popularity


d) Speed

Answer option A is correct. As the IEEE improved cabling distances for fiber Ethernet links, Ethernet became a reasonable WAN technology.

Which of the following is not true when comparing DSL to cable Internet service?


a) Cable speeds are faster


b) Both are "always on"


c) Both support asymmetric speeds


d) Cable costs about the same as DSL

Answer option D is correct. DSL providers charge less to compensate for slower speeds.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of leased lines?


a) All of the answers are correct.


b) Use full-duplex logic


c) Deliver bits in both directions


d) Have a predetermined speed

Answer option A is correct. The leased-line service delivers bits in both directions, at a predetermined speed, using full-duplex logic.