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283 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
this is the outer portion of the kidney
|
renal cortex
|
|
this is the inner portion of the kidney
|
medulla
|
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what two parts of the kidney make up the nephron, the functional unit?
|
the cortex and the medulla
|
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this is the kidney's central cavity; the urine drains here via medullary collecting ducts, and they are continuous with the ureter draining that kidney
|
renal pelvis
|
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the urine flows from the kidneys through these tubes into the urinary bladder
|
ureters
|
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If the clearance of any substance is greater than the GFR, what process is that substance undergoing, secretion or absorption?
|
secretion
|
|
when the clearance of a substance is less than the GFR, what process is that substance undergoing, secretion or absorption?
|
absorption
|
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What is the major driving force of filtration?
|
hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries
|
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Where is the filtration force the greatest, at the afferent or efferent end of the glomerular capillaries?
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afferent
|
|
What is the average filtration rate per day?
|
180 L/day
|
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what is the average filtration rate per minute?
|
115-125 mL/min
|
|
about how many times is plasma volume filtered in a day?
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60 times
|
|
what is a normal filtration fraction?
|
.15-.20
|
|
what is the measure of the maximum transport rate for a substance?
|
tubular maximum
|
|
what hormone increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion?
|
aldosterone
|
|
what hormone increases potassium reabsorption and sodium excretion?
|
atrial natriuretic factor
|
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what hormone increases water reabsorption by increasing the number of water channels in the collecting duct (therebody decreasing urine production)?
|
anti-diuretic hormone
|
|
In what organ is renin synthesized and secreted?
|
the kidney
|
|
what specialized cells in the kidney synthesize and secrete renin?
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granular cells (located in the juxtaglomerular apparatus)
|
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a decreased level of what body electrolyte stimulates an increase in renin secretion?
|
sodium
|
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Renin catalyzes the production of what two hormones?
|
angiotensin-II and aldosterone
|
|
where is aldosterone synthesized and secreted from?
|
renal cortex
|
|
aldosterone is stimulated by a low concentration of what plasma electrolyte?
|
sodium
|
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when the aldosterone concentraiton is high, is essentiallyall of the sodium reaching the distal tubule and collecting ducts secreted or reabsorbed?
|
reabsorbed
|
|
which hormone is the major determinant of passive water reabsorption in the collecting ducts?
|
ADH/vasopressin
|
|
Where is ADH synthesized and secreted from?
|
posterior pituitary
|
|
What stimulates the secretion of ADH?
|
decreased body water concentration, decrease in blood pressure, or blood volume
|
|
where is atrial natriuretic peptide synthesized and secreted from?
|
cardiac atria cells
|
|
what stimulates secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide?
|
expansion of plasma volume that accompanies an increase in body sodium (indirectly stimulated by high sodium concentration)
|
|
what two things does ANP inhibit?
|
sodium reabsorption and aldosterone secretion (which therefore allows more sodium excretion in the urine)
|
|
where is erythropoeitin synthesized and secreted from?
|
mainly the kidneys, but to a lesser extent from the liver
|
|
what stimulates erythropoeitin secretion?
|
decreased oxygen delivery to the kidneys
|
|
What is the approximate obligatory water loss per day?
|
0.4444 L/day to eliminate organic wastes and acids
|
|
what is a breakdown product of nitrogen metabolism?
|
urea
|
|
what is a breakdown product of purine metabolism?
|
uric acid
|
|
what is the breakdown product of the muscle protein creatine?
|
creatinine
|
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this is a major hormone secreted by the kidney that regulates calcium absorption in the intestine
|
vitamin D3
|
|
what electrolyte imbalances would cause hypotension?
|
hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypermagnesemia
|
|
what electrolyte imbalances would cause engorged neck veins?
|
hypercalcemia, hypernatremia, sometimes hypomagnesemia
|
|
what electrolyte imbalances would cause tachycardia?
|
hyperkalemia, hypernatremia
|
|
what electrolyte imbalances would cause bounding pulse?
|
hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, hypercalcemia
|
|
what electrolyte imbalance would cause orthostatic hypotension?
|
hypokalemia
|
|
what electrolyte imbalance would cause edema?
|
hypernatremia
|
|
what electrolyte imbalance would cause dyspnea?
|
hypernatremia
|
|
excess water intake leads to what electrolyte imbalance?
|
hyponatremia
|
|
trauma and crush injuries are associated with what type of electrolyte imbalance?
|
hyperkalemia
|
|
what electrolyte imbalance is characterized by anxiety, headaches, muscle twitching and weakness, confusion, hypotension, tachycardia, thready pulse, vasomotor collapse, nausea, cyanosis, oliguria/anuria, and cold clammy skin?
|
hyponatremia
|
|
what electrolyte imbalance is characterized by tachycardia and later bradycardia, cardiac arrest, nausea, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, muscle weakness and flaccid paralysis, oliguria/anuria, and metabolic acidosis?
|
hyperkalemia
|
|
what are the four sources of acids in the body?
|
(1) oxidation of glucose and fat
(2) anaerobic glycolysis (3) metabolism of cysteine (4) metabolism of phosphoproteins |
|
when the pH lowers, is it more acidic or alkaline?
|
acidic
|
|
when the pH gets higher, is it more acidic or alkaline?
|
alkaline
|
|
does hypoventilation result in acidosis or alkalosis?
|
acidosis
|
|
does hyperventilation result in acidosis or alkalosis?
|
alkalosis
|
|
what are the three ways of the body to regulate hydrogen balance?
|
(1) body buffer systems (bicarbonate, phosphate)
(2) respiratory regulation (3) renal regulation |
|
in what three forms is H+ excreted in the urine?
|
free H+, NH4+, and H2PO4-
|
|
if the ECF has a low pH, the kidney will (reabsorb, excrete) HCO3- and will (reabsorb, excrete) H+(causing a net gain of plasma HCO3-)
|
reabsorb HCO3-
excrete H+ |
|
If ECF pH is high, the kidney will (reabsorb, excrete) HCO3- and will (reabsorb, excrete) H+ (causing a net loss of HCO3-)
|
excrete HCO3-
reabsorb H+ |
|
what is the primary disturbance that causes a respiratory acidosis?
|
elevated PaCO2
|
|
what is the primary disturbance that causes a respiratory alkalosis?
|
decreased PaCO2
|
|
what is the primary disturbance that causes a metabolic acidosis?
|
decreased plasma HCO3-
|
|
what is the primary disturbance that causes a metabolic alkalosis?
|
elevated plasma HCO3-
|
|
this is a relatively stable condition of the internal environment that results from regulatory system actions
|
homeostasis
|
|
any chemical messenger that travels through the body fluids (chemical messenger synthesized by specific endocrine cells in response to certain stimuli and secreted into the blood, which carries it to target cells)
|
hormone
|
|
where are norepinephrine and epinephrine synthesized and secreted from?
|
adrenal medulla
|
|
what are the four most common amine hormones?
|
dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine, thyroid hormone
|
|
from what substance are the amine hormones synthesized?
|
tyrosine (amino acid)
|
|
where is dopamine synthesized and secreted from?
|
the hypothalamus
|
|
what is the largest class of hormone?
|
protein/peptide hormones
|
|
what type of hormones are responsible for a second messenger system when they bind to a plasma membrane receptor?
|
peptide hormones
|
|
what are steroid hormones synthesized from?
|
cholesterol
|
|
what are the three gonadal hormones?
|
estrogen, progestin, and androgens
|
|
what three types of steroid hormones are secreted from the adrenal cortex?
|
mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), glucocorticoids (cortisol), and androgens
|
|
what are the four types of signals that can induce hormone secretion?
|
ions, nutrients, neurotransmitters, and other hormones
|
|
this type of response of a cell to a hormone is the stimulation of transcription and translation (in order to stimulate protein synthesis)
|
genomic
|
|
this type of response to a hormone is the flux of a substance in or out of the cell, or the inhibition or excitation of metabolic pathways (2nd messenger pathways)
|
nongenomic
|
|
this is the unbound fraction of hormones that indicates what is available to tissues for metabolism and excretion
|
free hormones
|
|
this type of hormone effect is when the hormone stimulates the target gland to secrete another hormone
|
tropic
|
|
this type of hormone effect is when the hormone stimulates the target gland to grow
|
trophic
|
|
this effect occurs when the presence of one hormone stimulates the action of other hormones
|
permissive effect
|
|
this type of communication occurs when the cell secretes the hormone, and it travels through the ECF to another cell's receptor
|
paracrine
|
|
this type of communication occurs when the cell secretes the hormone, and the hormone comes back to the same cell and affects it in some way
|
autocrine
|
|
what hypothalamic hormone stimulates the release of ACTH from the anterior pituitary gland?
|
corticotropin-releasing hormone
|
|
what hypothalamic hormone stimulates the release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary gland?
|
GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone)
|
|
what hypothalamic hormone stimulates the release of GH from the anterior pituitary gland?
|
GHRH
|
|
what hypothalamic hormone stimulates the release of TSH from the anterior pituitary gland?
|
TRH (thyrotropin releasing hormone)
|
|
what hypothalamic hormone inhibits the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland?
|
dopamine
|
|
in females, this AP hormone stimulates the female gonads to produce estradiol and progesterone
|
FSH
|
|
in males, this AP hormone stimulates the male gonads to produce testosterone
|
LH
|
|
this AP hormone stimulates the liver and the body's cells to produce insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
|
growth hormone
|
|
this AP hormone stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete T3 and T4
|
TSH
|
|
this AP hormone causes lactation in the female breast
|
prolactin
|
|
this AP hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids, which regulate blood glucose
|
ACTH
|
|
what are the two main hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary gland?
|
ADH and oxytocin
|
|
this PP hormone stimulates the insertion of water channels into the renal tubule cells; it stimulates contraction of the vascular smooth muscle and thus the vasoconstriction function, decreasing urine production
|
ADH
|
|
this PP hormone stimulates the ejection of milk from the female breast (also causes uterine contractions); it is also implicated in pair-bonding
|
oxytocin
|
|
what are the four major roles of thyroid hormone in the body?
|
(1) growth and development of the fetal brain
(2) growth and development of the child (3) sets the basal metabolic rate/generates internal heat (4) potentiates the effectiveness of epinephrine and norepinephrine |
|
these types of enzymes are responsible for converting T4 into T3
|
deiodinating enzymes
|
|
which iodothyronine is the most biologically active in the body?
|
T3
|
|
what are the two iodothyronine compounds released by the thyroid gland
|
T3 and T4
|
|
what iodothyrodine is released in the highest amount from the thyroid gland?
|
T4
|
|
a combination of two diiodotyrosines forms what iodothyrodine compound?
|
T4
|
|
a combination of one monoiodotyrosine and one diiodotyrosine forms what iodothyrodine compound?
|
T3
|
|
what enzyme catalyzes the reaction that forms the T3 and T4 molecules?
|
thyroid peroxidase
|
|
what is the major hormone product of the synthesis of T3 and T4?
|
thyroxine
|
|
where is thyroxine stored?
|
the thyroid gland (in the colloid of the follicle)
|
|
what is the precursor for the MIT and DIT that eventually combine to form T3 and T4?
|
thyroglobulin
|
|
what thyroid disorder is myxedema most commonly associated with?
|
hypothyroidism
|
|
this sign of hypothyroidism occurs when extracellular compounds secreted by connective tissue cells accumulate and water becomes trapped with them, causing a characteristic puffiness of the face and other regions
|
myxedema
|
|
which type of thyroid disorder predisposes an individual to rhabdomyolysis?
|
hypothyroidism
|
|
this disorder is a breakdown of muscle fibers, resulting in a release of muscle fiber contents (especially myoglobin) into the blood stream; some of these are harmful to the kidneys and can result in kidney damage
|
rhabdomyolysis
|
|
what are the most common symptoms of rhabdomyolysis?
|
tea colored (dark) urine, generalized weakness, muscle stiffness or aching, muscle tenderness, weakness of the affected muscle, joint pain, seizures, and unintended weight gain
|
|
when do you see peak GH secretion in the circadian pattern?
|
about 1 hour after the onset of deep sleep
|
|
this compound is released by the liver upon stimulation from growth hormone; it acts as an autocrine or paracrine agent to stimulate the differentiating chondrocytes in the epiphyseal plates of the bones to undergo cell division
|
insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1)
|
|
what two types of disorders occur when chronic, excess amounts of growth hormone are secreted into the blood?
|
acromegaly and gigantism
|
|
this response to excess growth hormone occurs when the disorder occurs before puberty, when the epiphyseal plates are open and linear growth is still possible
|
gigantism
|
|
this rresponse to excess growth hormone occurs when the disorder occurs after puberty, when linear growth is no longer possible; instead, there is growth in the hands, feet, forehead, and jaw, etc.
|
acromegaly
|
|
what area of the adrenal gland synthesizes the three types of corticoids?
|
cortex
|
|
what area of the adrenal gland synthesizes epinephrine and norepinephrine
|
medulla
|
|
what is the precursor for the synthesis of the adrenal cortex corticoids?
|
cholesterol
|
|
in the adrenal cortex, what is the free cholesterol that is taken it get converted to (which is a precursor for the corticoid hormones)?
|
pregnenolone
|
|
what corticoid hormone is critical in maintaining blood glucose during times of fasting or starvation?
|
cortisol
|
|
what type of muscle fibers are most affected by high cortisol in the body?
|
type IIB
|
|
synthetic glucocorticoids are a hallmark treatment in what situation to act as an immunosuppressant?
|
organ transplantation
|
|
what is the general term for any situation in which plasma cortisol levels are chronically lower than normal?
|
adrenal insufficiency
|
|
when cortisol levels are low, what hormone levels are increasingly high due to the loss of negative feedback?
|
ACTH
|
|
this disorder occurs when excess cortisol diminishes protein synthesis and facilitates protein degradation in cardiac and skeletal muscle
|
steroid myopathy
|
|
what two types of cells arise from the myeloid lineage of leukocytes?
|
neutrophils and monocytes
|
|
what do monocytes eventually become?
|
macrophages
|
|
what two types of cells arise from the lymphoid lineage of leukocytes?
|
B and T cells
|
|
where do the B lymphocytes mature?
|
the bone marrow
|
|
where do the T lymphocytes mature?
|
the thymus gland
|
|
this is a nonspecific mechanism of intraellular destruction of microbes, in which an immune cell will engulf and destroy an antigen
|
phagocytosis
|
|
what are the two most important phagocytic cells in the body?
|
neutrophils and macrophages
|
|
this is the immune function that marks a substance for elimination from the body
|
opsonization
|
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is the complement protein/MAC cascade involved in specific or nonspecific immunity?
|
nonspecific
|
|
are macrophages and neutrophils involved in specific or nonspecific immunity?
|
nonspecific
|
|
which type of specific immunity are B cells associated with, humoral or cell mediated?
|
humoral
|
|
which type of specific immunity are T cells associated with, humoral or cell mediated?
|
cell mediated
|
|
is IL-1 involved in specific or non-specific immunity?
|
nonspecific
|
|
is IL-2 involved in specific or non specific immunity?
|
specific
|
|
what are the circulating molecules that are associated with specific immunity?
|
antibodies/immunoglobulins
|
|
what are the soluble mediators that are associated with the humoral specific immunity?
|
cytokines (lymphokines)
|
|
what are the soluble mediators that are associated with the cell mediated specific immunity?
|
lymphokines and perforin
|
|
this type of specific immunity is produced after natural exposure to an antigen or immunization
|
active
|
|
this type of specific immunity is the transfer of preformed antibodies or T-lymphocytes into the recipient
|
passive
|
|
this is the immediate (local) biochemical and cellular response of the body to cellular trauma in vascularized tissue
|
inflammation
|
|
about how long does acute inflammation last?
|
8-10 days
|
|
what is the time frame in which inflammation becomes considered chronic?
|
more than two weeks
|
|
what are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?
|
redness, heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function
|
|
these substances act to guide movement of the white blood cells out of the blood into the area of inflammation
|
chemokines
|
|
what are the first phagocytic cells to arrive at the inflamed area?
|
neutrophils
|
|
this is the process by which WBCs attach to the endothelial cell and ultimately move along the vessel wall
|
marginalization
|
|
this is any foreign molecule that stimulates an immune response
|
antigen
|
|
these are cells that present and antigen, complexed with MHC proteins on its surface, to T cells
|
antigen-presenting cells
|
|
CD8 cells recognize antigens that are complexed with what MHC complex?
|
I
|
|
CD4 cells recognize antigens that are complexed with what MHC complex?
|
II
|
|
this is a lymphocyte that, upon activation, proliferates and differentiates into an antibody-secreting plasma cell; able to recognize antigens in the soluble form and secrete Ig to eliminate antigens
|
B lymphocytes
|
|
these are a specific type of T cell that function to help the immune response; they secrete IL-2, stimulating further proliferation of themselves and also cytokine secretion
|
CD4
|
|
these are the cells within the B cell that secrete antibodies
|
plasma cells
|
|
these are the cells that are set aside after lymphocyte activation that are posed to recognize if the antigen returns in the future
|
memory cells
|
|
these are a specific type of T cell that function to recognize and eliminate antigens; following activation, they produce a lytic protein called perforin that will kill antigen cells
|
CD8 cells (cytotoxic)
|
|
this is a type of leukocyte that leaves the blood stream and is transformed into a macrophage
|
monocyte
|
|
this is a cell that phagocytizes foreign matter, processes it, presents the antigen to the lymphocytes, and secretes cytokines involved in inflammation
|
macrophages
|
|
these cells are the first of the phagocytic cells to arrive at an inflamed area and ingest bacteria, dead cells, and debris; they also release chemicals that are involved in inflammation
|
neutrophils
|
|
these are cells that function to destroy multicellular parasites and participate in immediate hypersensitivity reactions
|
eosinophils
|
|
these are cells that release histamine in an inflamed area (circulatory counterpart to mast cells)
|
basophils
|
|
these cells are found throughout connective tissues, particularly beneath the epithelial surfaces of the body; they are derived from bone marrow cells that have left the blood to enter connective tissue, where they differentiate and undergo cell division; they secrete locally acting chemical messengers such as histamine that are importnat in inflammation responses
|
mast cells
|
|
these are protein messengers that regulate host cell division and function in both nonspecific and specific immune defenses; they link the components of the immune system together
|
cytokines
|
|
these protiens make up about 10% of the plasma proteins; activation of this system leads to a cascade of events that produces tow major effects-enhances inflammation and produces MAC
|
complement proteins
|
|
this pathway of activating complement proteins occurs when there is binding of antibody-antigen complex with complement protein C1 (involves antibodies IgM and IgG)
|
classical
|
|
this pathway of complement protein activation occurs when bacterial or fungal cell wall polysaccharides bind with C3b; does not require the acquired immune system
|
alternate
|
|
this process guides the movement of white blood cells out of the blood into the area of inflammation by chemoattracants
|
chemotaxis
|
|
this is an inflammatory mediator secreted by mast cells and basophils that act on microcirculation to cause vasodilation and increased permeability to proteins
|
histamine
|
|
this is a group of cytokines that nonspecifically inhibit viral replication (gamma version also stimulates the killing ability of natural killer cells and macrophages)
|
interferon
|
|
these are a family of cytokines that have many effects on immune responses and host cell dfenses
|
interleukins
|
|
Sub
|
Under
subdivide, subdue, subjugate, subjunctive, sublunary, submarine, submerge, subdordinate, subpoena, subscribe, subside, substitude, subterfuge, subterranean, suburb |
|
this compound is secreted by activated helper T cells; causes antigen activated helper T, cytotoxic T, and NK cells to proliferate and causes the activation of macrophages
|
IL-2
|
|
this complex embeds itself in the microbial plasma membrane and forms porelike channels in the membrane, making it leaky; water and salts enter the microbe, which disrupts the intracellular environment and kills it
|
membrane attack complex (MAC)
|
|
after being secreted from Cd8 cells after their activation, this complex inserts itself into the target cell's membrane and forms channels, causing the cell to become leaky and die
|
perforin
|
|
this is a general term for products of arachidonic acid metabolism and function as important inflammatory mediators
|
eicosanoids
|
|
these drugs are often used to manage chronic inflammation or acute flare ups of chronic disease, allergies, and graft rejection; function to decrease the number of circulating lymphocytes
|
steroid drugs (prednisone)
|
|
these are anti inflammatory drugs that block the cyclooxygenase pathway, blocking prostaglandins and thromboxane
|
NSAIDs
|
|
these drugs block the production of cytokines produced by the CD4 cell, in order to reduce graft rejection
|
immune suppressants
|
|
these cells are believed to regulate the other T cells and therefore function as negative feedback; possibly play a role in immune tolerance
|
suppressor T cells
|
|
what are the two primary lymphoid organs?
|
bone marrow and thymus gland
|
|
in what type of tissue do the lymphocytes become activated in order to participate in specific immune responses, primary or secondary lymphoid tissue?
|
secondary
|
|
this is the ability of the body to tolerate its own cells (not to have an immune response to self tissues)
|
immune tolerance
|
|
this process is the destruction of T cells with receptors that are capable of binding self proteins
|
clonal deletion
|
|
this process causes potentially self-reacting T cells to become unresponsive
|
clonal inactivation
|
|
what is the largest class of antibody?
|
IgG
|
|
what is the major antibody found in fetal blood?
|
maternal IgG
|
|
what is the predominant antibody upon first exposure to an antigen?
|
IgM
|
|
what is the predominant antibody upon second exposure to an antigen?
|
IgG
|
|
this antibody plays a major role in allergic responses
|
IgE
|
|
this antibody is often found in the mucosal linings of the body, and it is most common to lack these
|
IgA
|
|
this immune response occurs when someone first encounters an antigen
|
primary
|
|
this immune response occurs when someone subsequently encounters an antigen again (already having formed antibodies and memory cells for it)
|
secondary
|
|
what are the two most common ions secreted into the tubule?
|
K+ and H+
|
|
what is the normal fasting blood glucose level?
|
80-90 mg/dL
|
|
in this portion of the tubule, the tubular cells have a brush border and many mitochondria; this part of the tubule is very active, reabsorbing 100% glucose and proteins and 67% of ultrafiltrate water and electrolytes
|
proximal tubule
|
|
this part of the tubule contains no active transport, but is permeable to water and electrolyte; the counter current mechanism of flow insures that a hyperosmotic filtrate is delivered to the thick portion of the ascending limb
|
loop of Henle (descending and early ascending limbs)
|
|
this part of the tubule is impermeable to water and contains cotransport mechanism of Na, K, and 2Cl- (this forms an osmotic gradient); the filtrate becomes diluted as it goes through this area and becomes hypotonic
|
thick ascending limb
|
|
this part of the tubule is impermeable to water and does active transport of salts; here, aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption
|
distal tubule
|
|
this part of the tubule is permeable to water and contains active transport of salts; aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion, ANF increases sodium excretion, and ADH increases water reabsorption
|
collecting duct
|
|
where does the final adjustment of urine osmolarity occur?
|
the collecting tubule
|
|
the pH of the blood is determined by what ratio?
|
base/acid
|
|
this is any substance that will accept an H+ ion
|
base
|
|
this is any substance that will liberate an H ion
|
acid
|
|
venous blood is slightly more (alkaline, acidic) than arterial blood because it has passed through metabolically active tissues
|
acidic (7.35)
|
|
the intracellular fluid is more (alkaline, acidic) than the ECF
|
acidic (6.0-7.4)
|
|
what are the upper and lower limits of arterial pH that are compatible with life?
|
6.8-8.0
|
|
what is the key defense mechanism in long term chronic situations of acidosis?
|
bone minerals
|
|
does the bicarbonate buffer system in the body cause a net gain or a conservation of HCO3-?
|
conservation
|
|
does the phosphate buffer system in the body cause a net gain or a conservation of HCO3-?
|
net gain
|
|
will hyperventilation cause alkalosis or acidosis?
|
alkalosis
|
|
will hypoventilation cause alkalosis or acidosis?
|
acidosis
|
|
if you went into an acidosis, would you increase or decrease your ventilation rate?
|
increase
|
|
if you went into an alkalosis, would you increase or decrease your ventilation rate?
|
decrease
|
|
if you are in an acidosis, would you reabsorb or excrete HCO3-?
|
reabsorb
|
|
if you are in an alkalosis, would you reabsorb or excrete HCO3-?
|
excrete
|
|
what are some of the common causes for respiratory acidosis?
|
COPD, decrease in ventilation from brain damage, drug overdose, sleep apnea, or a problem with gas exchange (as in pneumonia)
|
|
what are some of the common causes for respiratory alkalosis?
|
hyperventilation, altitude, neurologic pathology, gram (-) sepsis infection
|
|
what are some of the common causes for metabolic acidosis?
|
diabetes (especially acute), severe diarrhea (losing HCO3 through GI tract), vomiting intestinal contents
|
|
what are some of the common causes for metabolic alkalosis?
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vomiting gastric contents alone (losing H+), excess aldosterone, loop diuretics, home remedies
|
|
this is a tissue that is a collectionof cells that synthesize and secrete a chemical messenger
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endocrine
|
|
these are some well known second messenger systems
|
adenylyl cyclase-->camp
phospholipase C-->IP3 and DAG tyrosine kinase guanylate cyclase-->cGMP calcium-->activates protein kinase AKT pathway |
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what type of receptors on the cell that produces the steroid hormone capture the cholesterol needed?
|
LDL receptors
|
|
what two enzymes initiate steroid hormone synthesis in the cell?
|
adenylyl cyclase (cAMP) and protein kinase A
|
|
what enzyme releases free cholesterol during the formation of a steroid hormone?
|
cholesterol esterase
|
|
what enzymes on the mitochondria of a steroid hormone producing cell play a role in the synthesis of the cholesterol intermediate?
|
P450 enzymes
|
|
about how many cells in the anterior pituitary gland make growth hormone?
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50%
|
|
what region is the chief integrative center for the autonomic nervous system?
|
hypothalamus
|
|
ACTH stimulates what area to synthesize and secrete glucocorticoids?
|
the adrenal cortex
|
|
what disease is a common example of hyposecretion?
|
of insulin, diabetes mellitus type I
|
|
what disease is a common example of hyporesponsiveness?
|
to insulin, diabetes mellitus type II
|
|
what disease is a common example of hyperresponsiveness?
|
denervation supersensitivity
|
|
what are the cells in the anterior pituitary gland that synthesize and secrete human growth hormone?
|
somatotrophs
|
|
what hormone inhibits synthesis and secretion of growth hormone?
|
somatostatin
|
|
what are some things that stimulate growth hormone secretion?
|
GHRH, ghrelin (hunger), protein deficiency, decrease in fatty acids or glucose, fasting, puberty, exercise, stage IV sleep, physiologic stress
|
|
what are some things that inhibit growth hormone secretion?
|
somatostatin, increasing blood glucose and fatty acids, administration of exogenous GH, obesity, senescence, somatomedins
|
|
is GH secretion greater in males or females?
|
females
|
|
what hormone stimulates GH secretion with a peak just before ovulation?
|
estradiol
|
|
what hormone stimulates GH secretion in males?
|
testosterone
|
|
what are the three main effects of GH and somatomedins?
|
(1) increased protein synthesis
(2) mobilization and utilization of fatty acids (3) decrease utilization of glucose, elevating blood glucose |
|
excess GH can cause disturbances in the body that are similar to what disease?
|
type II diabetes
|
|
what three things do the growth promoting effects of hGH require?
|
normal insulin levels, adequate diet of CHO and protein
|
|
what hormone sensitizes the gonads to LH and FSH during puberty?
|
growth hormone
|
|
what hormone inhibits growth?
|
cortisol
|
|
what substance is the precursor for synthesis of all the adrenocortical hormones (corticoids)?
|
cholesterol
|
|
what two things stimulate the secretion of aldosterone?
|
angiotensin II and elevated plasma K levels
|
|
normal levels of cortisol affects the actions of many other hormones, and is thus said to have a __ effect on endocrine action
|
permissive
|
|
which hormone is life essential and plays an important role in the body's response to stress?
|
cortisol
|
|
secretion of a lot of this hormone can cause tanning of the skin
|
ACTH
|
|
70-80% of the circulating cortisol in the body travels bound to this corticosteroid binding protein
|
transcortin
|
|
15% of the circulating cortisol is bound to plasma __
|
albumin
|
|
only __-__ percent of cortisol is "free" in the blood
|
5-10
|
|
plasma cortisol is in equilibrium with a biologically inactive analog called __
|
cortisone
|
|
what type of muscle has a high density of glucocorticoid receptors?
|
skeletal
|
|
cortisol is __ to insulin actions (therefore, it can produce insulin resistance)
|
antagonistic
|
|
cortisol exerts a__ role on the action of hormones responsible for maintaining vascular responsiveness (critical in maintaining normal blood pressure)
|
permissive
|
|
what is the functional unit of the thyroid gland?
|
follicle
|
|
what situation would lead to less reverse T3, and an increase in T3 and T4 to burn energy? (overfeeding or underfeeding)
|
overfeeding
|
|
what situation would lead to more reverse T3 and a decrease in T3 and T4 to conserve fuel and decrease the basal metabolic rate?
|
underfeeding
|
|
if you increase T3 and T4, does TSH increase or decrease?
|
decrease
|
|
if there is too much TSH, and the follicle cells are overstimulated, what is produced?
|
a goiter
|
|
inside the cell, thyroid hormone stimulates the synthesis of what types of proteins?
|
Na/K ATPase
Mitochondrial enzymes Other enzymes that affect metabolism |
|
what are the four major effects of thyroid hormone on the body?
|
(1) growth and development of the fetal brain
(2) growth and development of the child (3) basal metabolic rate (4) potentiates the effectiveness of epi and norepi |
|
what is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the US?
|
the autoimmune, acquired destruction of the thyroid gland by circulating antibodies
|
|
what is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in the US?
|
autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland by circulating antibodies known as thyroid stimulating antibodies (called grave's disease, mimics TSH and stimulates thyroid)
|
|
this is the body's recognition and destruction of cancerous cells
|
immune surveillance
|
|
this is formed when the microbe is engulfed by the phagocyte
|
phagosome
|
|
what are the 5 basic steps of inflammation?
|
(1) release of histamine/other vasoactive subsances
(2) vasodilation (3) chemotaxis (4) neutrophils (5) macrophages |
|
the activation of this cascade produces substances that act as vasodilators, induce pain, cause smooth muscle contraction, increase vascular permeability
|
kinin cascade (primary-bradykinin)
|
|
what drug blocks the production of cytokines produced by the CD4 cells?
|
cyclosporin
|
|
What are the three phases of the immune response?
|
(1) antigen recognition
(2) activation phase (clonal expansion) (3) effector (kill) phase |
|
what class of MHC is found on all the cells in the body except the erythrocytes?
|
MHC I
|
|
what MHC complex is found primarily on macrophages and some B lymphocytes?
|
MHC II
|
|
what portion of an antibody binds the antigens?
|
variable
|
|
what portion of the antibody binds the complement protein?
|
constant
|
|
what antibody found in the mucosal membranes is responsible for neutralizing foreign subsances?
|
IgA
|
|
what cells are important in the elimination of bacteria?
|
CD4 and B cells
|
|
what cells are important in the elimination of viruses?
|
CD4 and CD8 cells
|
|
the secretion of what substances nonspecifically inhibits viral replication?
|
interferons
|