Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
260 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
20. A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated Runway .
A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 36 |
D. 36
|
|
|
22. What runway marking extends the full-length runway pavement area?
A. Runway side stripes B. Dashed side stripes C. Runway centerlines D. Dashed centerlines |
A. Runway side stripes
|
|
|
27. Civil land airports have rotating beacons that ________.
A. flash white and green B. flash two white and one green C. flash white D. flash green |
A. flash white and green
|
|
|
30. The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are ________.
A. AIS and NOTAMs B. NFDC and NOTAMs C. NAS and NFDC D. AIS and AFSS |
A. AIS and NOTAMs
|
|
|
34. Responsibility for validating NOTAM data and operating the National NOTAM System belongs to __________.
A. National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) B. NFDC C. ARTCCs D. AFSSs |
B. NFDC
|
|
|
35. Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?
A. Airport manager/operator B. Tower controller C. Pilot D. Flight service specialist |
A. Airport manager/operator
|
|
|
39. Revised, reprinted, or new pages in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3 are indicated by bold _________.
A. asterisks B. horizontal lines C. vertical lines D. stars |
C. vertical lines
|
|
|
66. A pilot flying VFR must stay at least 2,000 feet laterally from the clouds in class ______ and _______
airspace. A. B;C B. C;D C. B;E D. A;E |
B. C;D
|
|
|
68. Aircraft operating on an airway at the published MOCA are only guaranteed __________ within ________ of the VOR serving the airway.
A. terrain clearance; 22SM B. terrain clearance; 22NM C. NAVAID signal; 22SM D. NAVAID signal; 22NM |
D. NAVAID signal; 22NM
|
|
|
69. Which of the following statements regarding “VFR on top” (OTP) is true?
A. Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP B. Pilots maintaining OTP are required to obtain ATC approval prior to changing altitude C. Pilots maintaining OTP may, after advising ATC, deviate from their cleared route D. Traffic advisories will not be provided by ATC |
A. Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP
|
|
|
70. An aircraft on an IFR flight plan is in VFR conditions when a two-way radio failure occurs. The pilot shall ______________.
A. proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable B. return IFR to point of departure C. squawk code 7500 D. proceed to nearest airport and execute an IFR approach |
A. proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable
|
|
|
72. An inappropriate cruising altitude for an aircraft flying VFR on a magnetic course of 360 degrees is:
A. 2,000 MSL B. 2,500 MSL C. 3,500 MSL D. 4,500 MSL |
D. 4,500 MSL
|
|
|
73. Which one of the following items is not required on a VFR flight plan?
A. Pilot’s name and address B. Fuel on board C. Name of each occupant D. Type of aircraft |
C. Name of each occupant
|
|
|
89. Time zones are established for every__________.
A. 15’ of longitude B. 15°of latitude C. 15°of longitude D. 15’ of latitude |
C. 15°of longitude
|
|
|
97. An aircraft departs Denver at 9 P.M. (MST) and travels 3 hours, landing in Boston (EST). What was the aircrafts arrival time UTC? (conversion factor EST to UTC is +5)
A. 0700 B. 1700 C. 0200 D. 0600 |
A. 0700
|
|
|
98. A line connecting points of zero variation is called a(n) ________.
A. isogonic line B. agonic line C. magnetic line D. meridian |
B. agonic line
|
|
|
104. At high altitudes, __________________.
A. an aircraft’s IAS is significantly higher than it’s TAS B. an aircraft’s TAS is significantly higher than it’s IAS C. an aircraft’s groundspeed is always equal to it’s TAS D. an aircraft’s IAS is always equal to it’s TAS |
B. an aircraft’s TAS is significantly higher than it’s IAS
|
|
|
106. VFR flyway planning charts are found on ________.
A. IFR/VFR planning charts B. VFR Terminal Area Charts C. Sectional Charts D. WAC Charts |
B. VFR Terminal Area Charts
|
|
|
116. Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) are air traffic control procedures used at busier airports to do all of the following except _____________.
A. simplify clearance delivery B. expedite traffic flow C. facilitate noise abatement procedures D. reduce pilot/controller workload |
C. facilitate noise abatement procedures
|
|
|
117. A STAR is designed to simplify clearance delivery and facilitate transition between___________.
A. procedure turns and final approaches B. takeoffs and en route operations C. the airport departure and the destination airport D. en route and instrument approach operations |
D. en route and instrument approach operations
|
|
|
118. To accept a clearance for the DANDD 5 arrival to Denver, the pilot must be in possession of the ________ for that STAR.
A. altitude restrictions B. approved chart C. pertinent frequencies D. Planview |
B. approved chart
|
|
|
119. Which statement is true regarding a STAR?
A. A STAR is designed to provide a transition for departures from the airport into the en route environment. B. One STAR may serve several airports. C. Several STARs may be included on a single chart. D. STARs are located with the Instrument Approach Procedures in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication, while SIDs have their own section in the front of the book |
B. One STAR may serve several airports.
|
|
|
132. Which instrument is NOT connected to the pitot-static system?
A. Airspeed indicator B. Vertical speed indicator C. Attitude indicator D. Altimeter |
C. Attitude indicator
|
|
|
133. What may be obtained from the attitude indicator?
A. Rate of turn B. Degrees of bank C. Height above sea level D. Rate of climb |
B. Degrees of bank
|
|
|
134. The major components of the pitot-static system are the ___________.
A. absolute and indicated altitude indicators B. vacuum pump and regulator C. attitude and heading indicators D. impact and static pressure chambers, and lines |
D. impact and static pressure chambers, and lines
|
|
|
135. As a controller, when an aircraft under your control jurisdiction informs you that it is responding to a TCAS RA, you _____________.
A. are responsible for maintaining separation from the intruder aircraft. B. shall not issue instructions contrary to the RA. C. may discontinue traffic advisories and safety alerts. D. shall immediately issue an amended clearance. |
B. shall not issue instructions contrary to the RA.
|
|
|
136. Because of precession, the heading indicator is periodically set by the pilot to agree with the _______.
A. attitude indicator B. altimeter C. magnetic compass D. Directional Gyro (DG) |
C. magnetic compass
|
|
|
137. In order to fly a desired course toward a VOR station, the pilot must ensure that the aircraft’s heading agrees with the course set on the VOR course selector, the instrument displays a “TO” indication, and the _______________.
A. VOR needle is centered B. aircraft is not climbing or descending C. magnetic compass is not precessed D. airspeed is constant |
A. VOR needle is centered
|
|
|
138. The altimeter depends on which of the following for its operation?
A. Pitot tube. B. Gyro. C. Static port. D. Rudder. |
C. Static port.
|
|
|
141. In most small aircraft, if the vacuum pump fails, which instruments become inoperative?
A. Airspeed indicator and turn and bank B. Altimeter and directional gyro C. Heading indicator and attitude indicator D. Vertical speed indicator and attitude indicator |
C. Heading indicator and attitude indicator
|
|
|
143. An interagency agreement that provides for the effective utilization of all available facilities during search and rescue missions is called a(an) _____________.
A. Search and Rescue Mission B. Rescue Coordination Center C. National Search and Rescue Plan D. Alert Notice |
C. National Search and Rescue Plan
|
|
|
144. When a VFR aircraft becomes overdue, who initiates the INREQ message?
A. ARTCC B. AFSS C. RCC D. ATCT |
B. AFSS
|
|
|
146. The transfer of search responsibility to RCC is done ____________________.
A. when the ALNOT search has been completed with negative results B. if the aircraft has not been located within 30 minutes after issuance of the ALNOT C. 1 hour past ETA D. at fuel exhaustion time plus 1 hour |
A. when the ALNOT search has been completed with negative results
|
|
|
148. A pilot requesting Lake Reporting Service will report every 10 minutes. Search and rescue must be initiated if no report is received in ____ minutes.
A. 10 B. 15 C. 30 D. 60 |
B. 15
|
|
|
155. Low-level wind shear is a change in windspeed of ______knots or more within _______feet AGL.
A. 25; 1,000 B. 10; 2,000 C. 25; 2,000 D. 10; 1,000 |
B. 10; 2,000
|
|
|
156. Airplane performance gradually degrades as the wind ___________.
A. turns perpendicular to the runway B. decreases suddenly C. passes over a mountain range D. is trapped in a valley |
A. turns perpendicular to the runway
|
|
|
158. An area as large as 10 miles or more of strong damaging winds reaching speeds as high as 120 knots, on or near the ground, is a ______________.
A. wind shear B. microburst C. downburst D. funnel cloud |
C. downburst
|
|
|
159. Which stage of a thunderstorm is characterized by updrafts exceeding 3,000 feet per minute?
A. Towering cumulus B. Mature C. Virga D. Dissipating |
A. Towering cumulus
|
|
|
162. Which effect occurs to airplanes on departure during a high density altitude condition?
A. A slower rate of climb. B. A shorter takeoff roll is required. C. A higher rate of climb. D. An increase in thrust. |
A. A slower rate of climb.
|
|
|
165. The valid period of a routine TAF beginning at 0000Z on the 10th day of the month would be coded as _______________.
A. 1000/1100 B. 1000/1104 C. 1000/1112 D. 1000/1024 |
D. 1000/1024
|
|
|
166. A forecast of non-convective LLWS would be found in what NWS product?
A. SIGMET B. TAF C. Convective SIGMET D. SPECI |
B. TAF
|
|
|
167. Which of the following NWS products is scheduled?
A. AIRMET ZULU B. SIGMET C. MIS D. CWA |
A. AIRMET ZULU
|
|
|
168. A forecast of visibility less than one mile would be found in what NWS product?
A. SIGMET B. AIRMET SIERRA C. CWA D. METAR |
B. AIRMET SIERRA
|
|
|
182. What is the action whereby the responsibility for separation of an aircraft is transferred from one controller to another?
A. Transfer of control B. Transfer of communications C. Point out D. Handoff |
A. Transfer of control
|
|
|
187. When can a pilot interrupt their communications guard?
A. When requested B. When requested and an agreeable time off frequency is established C. When requested and in VFR conditions D. At any time |
B. When requested and an agreeable time off frequency is established
|
|
|
192. The phraseology for contacting Columbia Automated Flight Service Station would be ___________.
|
“COLUMBIA RADIO”
|
|
|
The first priority during coordination or during the transfer of information is ________________.
|
emergencies
|
|
|
194. List, in order, the four steps in the position relief process.
1.) Position review 2.) Assumption of position responsibility 3.) Verbal briefing 4.) Preview position |
4.) Preview position
3.) Verbal briefing 2.) Assumption of position responsibility 1.) Position review |
|
|
199. Use prefixes when relaying ______, ________, or _________ through non-ATC facilities.
A. clearances, instructions, reports B. information, instructions, requests C. clearances, information, requests D. instructions, reports, requests |
C. clearances, information, requests
|
|
|
200. The type of clearance that provides for intermediate stops while en route is a/an _______ Clearance.
A. Approach B. Through C. Composite D. Cruise |
B. Through
|
|
|
206. Minimum vertical separation below an aircraft which is dumping fuel is_________feet.
A. 4,000 B. 2,000 C. 1,000 D. 500 |
B. 2,000
|
|
|
213. What is a radio detection device which provides information on the range, azimuth, and/or elevation of objects?
A. Transponder B. Radar C. Nondirectional beacon D. VORTAC |
B. Radar
|
|
|
214. The primary radar display depicts the _______ and _______ of objects that reflect radio energy.
A. position; altitude B. position; movement C. altitude; speed D. movement; speed |
B. position; movement
|
|
|
215. What are two types of radar jamming?
A. Position and passive B. Action and active C. Precise and passive D. Passive and active |
D. Passive and active
|
|
|
216. Which is not a component of a primary radar system?
A. Transmitter B. Interrogator C. Antenna D. Receiver |
B. Interrogator
|
|
|
217. Which radar feature reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation?
A. Circular Polarization B. Linear Polarization C. Passive radar D. Inversion |
A. Circular Polarization
|
|
|
218. What causes Anomalous Propagation clutter on primary radar systems?
A. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal D. Cool air over warm air reflecting the radar signal |
B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal
|
|
|
219. What causes temperature inversion clutter on primary radar systems?
A. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal D. Cool air over warm air reflecting the radar signal |
C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal
|
|
|
220. Secondary radar interference caused by a transponder replying excessively is called _____.
A. Ring around B. Anomalous Propagation C. Range interference D. Inversion |
A. Ring around
|
|
|
232. LOA or SOP?
Define responsibilities between an air traffic control facility and the Airport Manager |
LOA
|
|
|
249. ATC specialists who are age 40 and above shall be scheduled by facility managers for medical
examinations every ______ if in the terminal/center environment. A. 3 years B. year C. 2 years D. 6 months |
B. year
|
|
|
251. Airspeed in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace shall not be more than ______ knots.
A. 150 B. 180 C. 200 D. 250 |
C. 200
|
|
|
255. Bernoulli’s Principle states: “The internal pressure of a fluid _____ at points where the speed of the fluid ______.”
A. increases; increases B. decreases; increases C. increases; decreases D. decreases; decreases |
B. decreases; increases
|
|
|
256. Regarding helicopters, the cyclic controls the _____ of the rotor blades and the collective controls the _______.
A. pitch; tilt B. speed; pitch C. tilt; pitch D. angle; speed |
C. tilt; pitch
|
|
|
257. Which of the following does NOT affect aircraft performance?
A. Temperature B. Moisture C. Pressure D. Relative wind |
D. Relative wind
|
|
|
258. A secondary form of lift is a(n) _____ generated by air striking the underside of the airfoil and being
deflected _______. A. upward force; downward B. downward force, upward C. pressure differential; over the wing D. upward force; over the wing |
A. upward force; downward
|
|
|
263. If a pilot adjusts the pitch and yaw, the aircraft is moving along the _______ and ________ axes.
A. longitudinal; vertical B. lateral; vertical C. longitudinal; lateral D. lateral; horizontal |
B. lateral; vertical
|
|
|
264. Relative wind flows in a direction ______ and ________ the direction of flight.
A. parallel with; opposite to B. parallel with; perpendicular to C. opposite to; perpendicular to D. opposite to; divergent from |
A. parallel with; opposite to
|
|
|
267. When air density decreases what occurs?
A. Rate of climb is faster and landing speed will be faster B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased C. Takeoff run is longer and the engine produces more power D. Rate of climb is slower and takeoff run is shorter |
B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased
|
|
|
268. An aircrafts movement around the longitudinal axis is controlled by the ______ and is called ______.
A. rudder; yaw B. ailerons; roll C. elevator; pitch D. ailerons; yaw and is called |
B. ailerons; roll
|
|
|
269. At approximately what angle of attack will air no longer flow smoothly over the wing’s upper surface?
A. 5-10 B. 10-15 C. 13-18 D. 15-20 |
D. 15-20
|
|
|
276. Most CAT I aircraft will generally operate within which speed range?
A. Zero–90 Knots B. 100-160 Knots C. 160-250 Knots D. 300-550 Knots |
B. 100-160 Knots
|
|
|
277. Recognition features of the B737 are .
A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing B. Two jet engines under each wing, low wing C. One jet engine under each wing, T-tail D. One jet engine under each wing, one jet in tail |
A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing
|
|
|
279. Which aircraft has a third engine directly through the tail?
A. L1011. B. MD11. C. DC10. D. B727. |
B. MD11.
|
|
|
284. Name four aircraft identification features.
|
1.Size
2. engine location and number 3. engine type 4. wing placement 5. wing configuration 6. tail configuration 7. windows 8. fuselage shape 9. landing gear. |
|
|
285. Low altitude RNAV route 12 is spoken:
A. “Q twelve” B. “Quebec twelve” C. “T twelve” D . “Tango twelve” |
D . “Tango twelve”
|
|
|
287. The bearing and DME frequencies of a TACAN are paired and assigned by ______numbers.
A. course B. radial C. channel D. heading |
C. channel
|
|
|
288. Generally, the vertical dimensions of a low altitude VOR airway are from ________.
A. the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet AGL B. the surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL C. 12,000 feet AGL up to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL D. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL |
D. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL
|
|
|
292. The GPS receiver needs at least ________satellites to yield three-dimensional information, position, velocity, time, and altitude.
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 |
B. 4
|
|
|
293. The difference between DME slant-range and actual horizontal distance is greatest .
A. at low altitude close to the NAVAID B. at high altitude far from the NAVAID C. at low altitude far from the NAVAID D. at high altitude close to the NAVAID |
D. at high altitude close to the NAVAID
|
|
|
294. An Non Directional Beacon (NDB) used in conjunction with the Instrument Landing System (ILS) is called a(n) ________.
A. compass locator B. marker beacon C. Outer Marker (OM) D. Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) |
A. compass locator
|
|
|
296. Which chart furnishes terminal data for IFR flight in congested areas?
A. IFR Area Charts B. Terminal Area Charts C. Airport/Facility Directory D. En Route Low Altitude Charts |
A. IFR Area Charts
|
|
|
297. Which chart(s) depict ATIS frequencies where ATIS is available?
A. En Route Low Altitude Chart B. En Route High Altitude Chart C. IFR Area Chart D. Both A and C |
D. Both A and C
|
|
|
298. Which of the following is a requirement for an airport to be published on the IFR EnRoute High Altitude Chart?
A. Has a published instrument approach. B. Has a 5000’ or greater hard surfaced runway. C. Has an operational ATCT D. Is public use. |
B. Has a 5000’ or greater hard surfaced runway.
|
|
|
300. How is Class A airspace depicted on an En Route High Altitude Chart?
A. As a shaded brown area B. In blue, with a solid blue border C. With a hatched blue line around the boundary D. Open white area |
D. Open white area
|
|
|
301. On an En Route Low Altitude chart, prohibited, restricted, and warning areas are shown within ______ boundaries.
A. solid grey B. blue hatched C. light brown D. solid magenta |
B. blue hatched
|
|
|
303. ______ approaches utilize WAAS and/or LAAS for course guidance.
A. RNAV B. ILS C. Localizer D. TACAN |
A. RNAV
|
|
|
304. A Nonprecision approach does not provide _____.
A. electronic glide slope information B. azimuth guidance to Category D aircraft C. height and visibility minima D. missed approach instructions |
A. electronic glide slope information
|
|
|
305. The basic marker beacons normally associated with an ILS approach are ______.
A. outer and locator B. inner and outer C. middle and inner D. outer and middle |
D. outer and middle
|
|
|
306. The four segments of an IAP, in the order flown, are?
|
Initial, Intermediate, Final, Missed
|
|
|
307. The ______ altitude depicts the intersection of the published intercept with the path, designated on Government charts by the lightning bolt symbol, is the precision FAF
A. decision height B. minimum glideslope intercept C. minimum descent D. procedure turn |
B. minimum glideslope intercept
|
|
|
308. Which of the following items is not found on the planview section of the IAP Chart?
A. Airport Lat./Long. Coordinates B. Initial Approach Fix C. Transition Routes D. Obstructions |
A. Airport Lat./Long. Coordinates
|
|
|
309. Height of obstructions depicted on Instrument Approach Procedure Charts are ______.
A. always AGL B. found only in the Planview section C. sometimes AGL D. always MSL |
D. always MSL
|
|
|
310. A Localizer approach differs from an ILS approach because .
A. a localizer’s decision height is always higher than that of an ILS B. lateral course guidance is provided by a VOR signal C. localizer approaches can not provide straight-in minimums D. no electronic altitude guidance is provided |
D. no electronic altitude guidance is provided
|
|
|
311. Which statement is true regarding Minimum Safe Altitudes (MSAs)?
A. MSAs provide obstacle clearance within 22 nautical miles of the primary approach NAVAID. B. NAVAID frequency reception is ensured at the MSA. C. Individual MSAs are depicted along each segment of the approach procedure. D. MSAs provide 1,000-foot obstacle clearance. |
D. MSAs provide 1,000-foot obstacle clearance.
|
|
|
312. The intermediate segment of an approach procedure ends at the _______.
A. final approach fix B. initial approach fix C. missed approach point D. runway |
A. final approach fix
|
|
|
330. An aircraft threatened by serious and/or imminent danger which requires immediate assistance is considered as a/an _____ condition.
A. urgent B. distress C. concerned D. lost |
B. distress
|
|
|
331. If you are in contact with an aircraft with a suspected bomb threat, what action should you not take?
A. Comply with the pilots requests B. Handle the aircraft as an emergency C. Suggest actions for the pilot to take D. Provide the most expeditious handling possible |
C. Suggest actions for the pilot to take
|
|
|
332. A pilot of an aircraft experiencing radio failure can be expected to squawk ____.
A. 7300 B. 7500 C. 7600 D. 7700 |
C. 7600
|
|
|
335. Which facility is responsible for receiving and relaying all pertinent ELT signal information to the appropriate authorities?
A. AFSS B. ARTCC C. RCC D. ATCT |
B. ARTCC
|
|
|
337. What National Weather Service office provides meteorological forecasts, and advice to ARTCCs and other FAA facilities regarding weather impact on their missions?
A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU) B. Weather Forecast Office (WFO) C. Meteorological Watch Office (MWO) D. Aviation Weather Center (AWC) |
A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU)
|
|
|
340. What type of air mass produces stable air that is associated with smooth air, poor visibility, and stratiform clouds?
A. A warm air mass moving over a cold surface B. A cold air mass moving over a warm surface C. Any warm air mass D. Any cold air mass |
A. A warm air mass moving over a cold surface
|
|
|
344. A sinking parcel of air compresses and as it encounters increasing pressure; this causes a cloud
to quickly _____. A. warms, form B. warms, dissipate C. cools, form D. cools, dissipate |
B. warms, dissipate
|
|
|
346. Air flow around a high diverges in a ______ motion and _____, causing the air to compress and
warm, which tends to dissipate clouds. A. clockwise, rises B. clockwise, sinks C. counterclockwise, rises D. counterclockwise, sinks |
B. clockwise, sinks
|
|
|
347. Standard atmosphere is NOT used for ______.
A. pressure altimeter calibrations B. aircraft performance calculations C. weather observations D. aircraft design |
C. weather observations
|
|
|
349. Which front is associated with poor visibility, smooth air, and steady precipitation?
A. Warm B. Occluded C. Cold D. Stationary |
A. Warm
|
|
|
350. What type of precipitation occurs when there is a shallow layer aloft with above freezing temperatures, with
a deep layer of below freezing air based at the surface? A. Rain B. Snow C. Ice pellets D. Freezing rain |
C. Ice pellets
|
|
|
353. “A scheduled report transmitted at fixed intervals” describes a _________ .
A. METAR B. SPECI C. TAF D. UUA |
A. METAR
|
|
|
355. A sky coverage of six-eighths is reported as______ .
A. BKN B. FEW C. SCT D. SKC |
A. BKN
|
|
|
358. In the METAR/SPECI Sky Condition Group, heights are reported in ________ .
A. hundreds of feet AGL B. thousands of feet AGL C. hundreds of feet MSL D. thousands of feet MSL |
A. hundreds of feet AGL
|
|
|
368. Air traffic facilities must solicit PIREPs when ______ is reported.
A. light turbulence B. visibility of 5 miles or less C. a ceiling at or below 10,000 feet D. icing of trace or greater intensity |
B. visibility of 5 miles or less
|
|
|
List the conditions of when air traffic facilities must solicit PIREP's.
|
55 Veronica Better SITT
5-Ceilings at or below 5,000 feet (includes cloud bases/tops) 5-Visibility 5 miles or less (surface or aloft) V-Volcanic ash clouds are reported or forecast B-When braking action advisories are in effect (Terminal only) S-Wind shear I-Icing (light or greater intensity) T-Turbulence (moderate or greater) T-Thunderstorms and related phenomena |
|
|
Ensure each PIREP includes which five elements?
|
Location
Time Altitude/flight level Type aircraft At least one other element |
|
|
When the PIREP involves turbulence, include:
|
Whether in clouds or clear air
Type and intensity of turbulence |
|
|
When the PIREP involves icing, include:
|
Type and intensity of icing
Air temperature in which icing is occurring |
|
|
369. Each PIREP must include the type of aircraft, altitude, location, and .
A. coordinated universal time B. the temperature in degrees Celsius C. remarks D. local time |
A. coordinated universal time
|
|
|
After departing OKC at 0455Z, SWA5325, B737-700, 20 miles northwest of OKC climbing through
15,300 feet, reported bases 2,700, still IMC. Light turbulence was reported during the climb from 1,500 to 3,000, negative ice, wind 310 at 28 377. What should be recorded in the remarks? A. WND 31028KT B. NEG ICE C. DURC D. OKC315020 |
C. DURC
|
|
|
381. What symbol should be used to delete any unwanted or unused altitude information?
A. X B. − C. + D. / |
A. X
|
|
|
384. When used on a strip, “VA” indicates which of the following?
A. Volcanic Ash B. Variable Altitude C. Visual Approach D. Virginia |
C. Visual Approach
|
|
|
385. Which of the following is the correct format to record a block altitude?
A. 100B120 B. 210/230 C. 230B210 D. B150/170 |
A. 100B120
|
|
|
386. Flight progress strips that are hand printed must _________.
A. use standard characters B. be legible C. conform to the machine printed format D. all the above |
D. all the above
|
|
|
387. On all en route strips, Block 5 is used for what purpose?
A. Aircraft ID B. Equipment suffix C. Aircraft type D. Filed true airspeed |
D. Filed true airspeed
|
|
|
388. For en route strips, altitude information is found in which block?
A. 8 B. 27 C. 16 D. 20 |
D. 20
|
|
|
389. On an en route strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
C. 3
|
|
|
390. On an en route strip, which block contains the center-estimated time over the fix?
A. 11 B. 15 C. 19 D. 25 |
B. 15
|
|
|
392. On all terminal strips, Block 5 is used for what purpose?
A. Aircraft ID B. Aircraft type C. Computer ID D. Beacon code |
D. Beacon code
|
|
|
393. For terminal arrival strips, altitude information is found in which block?
A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9 |
D. 9
|
|
|
394. On a terminal strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?
A. 10 B. 7 C. 1 D. 2 |
C. 1
|
|
|
395. On a terminal strip, which block contains the estimated time of arrival over a coordination fix?
A.3 B. 8 C. 18 D. 10 |
B. 8
|
|
|
399. Which of the following statements about the NAS is FALSE ?
A. NextGen is the NAS modernization program. B. The NAS is entirely owned and operated by the FAA C. The NAS is continuously evolving. D. The NAS includes ATCS, NAVAIDS, and FARs |
B. The NAS is entirely owned and operated by the FAA
|
|
|
400. What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7340.2?
A. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists B. Prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by air traffic controllers C. Provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA |
D. Contains approved words and phrase contractions used by the FAA
|
|
|
404. Traffic management programs are one of several processes administered by the Air Traffic Control System
Command Center (ATCSCC) to achieve optimum use of the and minimize without increasing controller workload. A. airspace, accidents B. NAS, delays C. ATC System, accidents D. airports, delays |
B. NAS, delays
|
|
|
405. Which document lists location identifiers authorized by the FAA?
A. FAA Order JO 7340.2 B. FAA Order JO 7110.65 C. Aeronautical Information Manual D. FAA Order JO 7350.8 |
D. FAA Order JO 7350.8
|
|
|
407. “Automation procedures are used in preference to non-automation procedures” is an example of ATC:
A. Duty Priority B. Procedural Preference C. Operational Priority D. Primary Purpose |
B. Procedural Preference
|
|
|
408. The correct designation for a runway with a magnetic heading of 009 degrees is runway ____ .
A. 9 B. 1 C. 01 D. 10 |
B. 1
|
|
|
410. Which of the following statements about airport beacons is FALSE?
A. They are turned on at night B. They are turned on during restricted weather C. They are turned on whenever the tower is operational D. They identify the type of airport |
C. They are turned on whenever the tower is operational
|
|
|
411. At an airport with no precision approach procedures, which of the following runway markings will NOT be
present? A. Touchdown zone B. Runway designator C. Runway centerline D. Aiming point |
A. Touchdown zone
|
|
|
415. Minimum vertical separation between RVSM equipped IFR aircraft up to and including FL410 is
feet. A. 1,000 B. 5,000 C. 4,000 D. 2,000 |
A. 1,000
|
|
|
416. Which methods are used for establishing non-radar longitudinal separation?
|
Depart at a specified time
Arrive at a fix at a specified time Hold at a fix until a specified time |
|
|
417. When using non-radar departure divergence ______.
A. the airport must have at least 2 runways that intersect B. the ATCS must wait 10 minutes between successive departures C. the ATCS must ensure visual separation exists D. the ATCS must assign courses that diverge by at least 45 degrees |
D. the ATCS must assign courses that diverge by at least 45 degrees
|
|
|
418. When using visual separation, what are the separation minima?
A. 5NM B. 1,000 feet C. 10 minutes D. There are no specified minima. |
D. There are no specified minima.
|
|
|
420. A nonstandard holding pattern ______.
A. has leg lengths which must be measured in minutes B. is one that is located at a navigational aid C. uses left turns D. uses right turns |
C. uses left turns
|
|
|
423. What type of NOTAM consists of information that is regulatory in nature, pertaining to flight, including but not
limited to changes to IFR charts, procedures, and airspace usage? A. NOTAM D B. FDC NOTAM C. Military NOTAM D. Pointer NOTAM |
B. FDC NOTAM
|
|
|
424. A feature which improves a primary radar display is:
A. Moving target indicator B. Anomalous propagation C. Temperature inversion D. Ring around |
A. Moving target indicator
|
|
|
426. Which of the following is a component of a secondary radar system?
A. Moving Target Indicator B. Circular polarization C. Receiver D. Transponder |
D. Transponder
|
|
|
428. Which document provides direction and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities?
A. FAA Order JO 7110.10 B. FAA Order JO 7210.3 C. Aeronautical Information Manual D. Terminal Phraseology Guide |
B. FAA Order JO 7210.3
|
|
|
430. Advising the En Route Radar and Radar Associate positions of sector actions required to accomplish the
safe and efficient operation of the sector is a responsibility of the En Route ______ position. A. radar coordinator/handoff B. radar flight data C. clearance delivery D. traffic management |
A. radar coordinator/handoff
|
|
|
431. Which AFSS position uses the radio call sign "Flight Watch"?
A. EFAS B. Inflight C. Broadcast D. Preflight |
A. EFAS
|
|
|
432. Airmen’s information can be disseminated via Aeronautical Charts and .
A. satellite communications B. facility directives C. flight information publications D. FAA orders |
C. flight information publications
|
|
|
435. Which of the following is an example of a temporary directive?
A. Supplements B. LOA C. GENOT D. Orders |
C. GENOT
|
|
|
440. An aircraft with a certified takeoff weight of ______ pounds or less will fall into the small weight class.
A. 12,500 B. 41,000 C. 50,000 D. 155,000 |
B. 41,000
|
|
|
441. A helicopter generates wingtip vortices when _______.
A. lift is first generated B. in stationary hover C. in vertical ascent D. in forward flight |
D. in forward flight
|
|
|
442. Which three aircraft characteristics represent the greatest generated wake turbulence?
A. Heavy, dirty, slow B. Small, clean, fast C. Large, dirty, slow D. Heavy, clean, slow |
D. Heavy, clean, slow
|
|
|
443. The pitch (angle of attack) of a helicopter rotor blade is controlled by the ________.
A. cyclic B. throttle C. collective D. antitorque pedal |
C. collective
|
|
|
446. When an IFR flight loses two-way communications with ATC, controllers should consider the pilot’s actions with regard to their:
A. route, speed and altitude B. route, time to leave their clearance limit and speed C. altitude, route and time to leave their clearance limit D. altitude, time to leave their clearance limit and speed |
C. altitude, route and time to leave their clearance limit
|
|
|
448. Which of the following statements concerning special VFR (SVFR) is true?
A. ATC clearance is required. B. SVFR operations may be conducted at any altitude below FL180. C. Pilot need not request SVFR clearance. D. 3SM visibility is required. |
A. ATC clearance is required.
|
|
|
451. Which special use airspace is always located offshore?
A. Warning Area B. Alert Area C. Controlled Firing Area D. National Security Area |
A. Warning Area
|
|
|
456. Counter control to a wake turbulence induced roll is most effective when _______.
A. there is no more than a 5 knot crosswind B. a large aircraft follows a heavy aircraft C. a rapid descent is made D. the ailerons extend beyond the edge of the vortex |
D. the ailerons extend beyond the edge of the vortex
|
|
|
459. With a(n) _______ in airspeed, drag ________.
A. increase; increases rapidly B. increase; decreases rapidly C. decrease; increases rapidly D. decrease; remains the same |
A. increase; increases rapidly
|
|
|
460. When air is forced to travel at a faster speed across the top of a wing versus the bottom, this will result in ________ the wing.
A. lower pressure above B. lower pressure below C. higher pressure above D. atmospheric pressure above |
A. lower pressure above
|
|
|
461. A pilot flying VFR must maintain at least 5 miles visibility in all or part of class ______ and ______ airspace.
A. E;A B. E;G C. G;D D. C;D |
B. E;G
|
|
|
462. No person may operate an aircraft under VFR in Class C airspace with a flight visibility of less than
_______. A. 1NM B. 1SM C. 3NM D. 3SM |
D. 3SM
|
|
|
463. An ATC specialist who is 41 years of age and works in the Terminal option is required to have a medical examination every ________.
A. year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 5 years |
A. year
|
|
|
464. Which of the following statements is true concerning FAR Part 91 aircraft speed restrictions?
A. Above 10,000 MSL, no aircraft may exceed 250 knots. B. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots in any Class C airspace. C. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots when operating below Class B airspace. D. Under no circumstances may an aircraft exceed 250 knots in Class B airspace. |
C. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots when operating below Class B airspace.
|
|
|
469. A civilian aircraft designator _________.
A. is always 4 alpha-numerics B. indicates the mission C. generally indicates the manufacturer D. may be 1 to 4 characters |
C. generally indicates the manufacturer
|
|
|
471. Which of the following statements regarding wingtip vortices is true?
A. They drift inward and sink. B. They drift outward and sink. C. They drift inward and rise. D. They drift outward and rise. |
B. They drift outward and sink.
|
|
|
472. The most hazardous aspect of structural icing is ____.
A. decreases weight B. increased drag C. reduced thrust D. airfoil distortion |
D. airfoil distortion
|
|
|
473. Which are the primary control surfaces on an airplane?
A. Ailerons, elevator, and flaps B. Elevator, flaps, and trim tabs C. Rudder, ailerons, and elevator D. Flaps, ailerons, and propeller |
C. Rudder, ailerons, and elevator
|
|
|
474. Which of the following is NOT a principal airfoil?
A. Wing B. Propeller C. Horizontal tail surface D. Fuselage |
D. Fuselage
|
|
|
476. A pilot flying under IFR conditions experiences a radio failure. If a route has not been assigned and/or ATC has not advised a route to be expected, what action should the pilot take?
A. Proceed by the route filed in the flight plan. B. Land at nearest available airport. C. Climb to VFR-on-top and continue flight. D. Proceed to alternate airport. |
A. Proceed by the route filed in the flight plan.
|
|
|
478. To be eligible for an ATC tower operator's certificate, you must hold a ________ medical certificate.
A. First Class B. Second Class C. Third Class D. No medical is required. |
B. Second Class
|
|
|
481. What is generally the vertical limit of Class D airspace?
A. 2,500 feet MSL B. Up to, but not including, 18,000 MSL C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation D. 3,500 AGL |
C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation
|
|
|
483. Which of the following is an optional component of an ILS?
A. Inner marker beacon B. Visual information C. Glide slope D. Localizer |
A. Inner marker beacon
|
|
|
484. Standard Instrument Departure charts are published every ______.
A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 112 days D. 56 days |
D. 56 days
|
|
|
487. Class D airspace on a sectional aeronautical chart is depicted by a ________ line.
A. dashed blue B. solid blue C. solid magenta D. dashed magenta |
A. dashed blue
|
|
|
488. The maximum usable range of an “H” class VOR is______ .
A. 25 NM B. 130 NM C. 40NM D. 100 NM |
B. 130 NM
|
|
|
491. Which of the following is a gyroscopic instrument?
A. Heading indicator B. Altimeter C. Airspeed indicator D. Vertical speed indicator |
A. Heading indicator
|
|
|
492. Instrument Approach Procedures (IAPs) are designed to ______________.
A. be used only by aircraft in IFR conditions B. transition an aircraft to a point where the aircraft may be vectored to the final approach course C. expedite air traffic in terminal areas D. provide an IFR descent from an en route environment to a point where a safe landing can be made |
D. provide an IFR descent from an en route environment to a point where a safe landing can be made
|
|
|
494. The primary purpose of an IFR Area Chart is to furnish __________.
A. VFR reporting points B. visual landmarks for use in congested areas C. terminal data for VFR flights in congested areas D. terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas |
D. terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas
|
|
|
496. Basic terrain contour lines on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart are generally spaced at ______ foot intervals.
A. 100 B. 500 C. 1,000 D. 2,000 |
B. 500
|
|
|
498. An aircraft travels 300 nautical miles over the ground in three hours while experiencing a tailwind of 25 knots. The aircraft’s ground speed is _____knots.
A. 150 B. 125 C. 100 D. 90 |
C. 100
|
|
|
499. The navigational method based solely on computing air speed, course, wind, ground speed, and elapsed time is _______.
A. dead reckoning B. VFR navigation C. pilotage D. radio navigation |
A. dead reckoning
|
|
|
502. In which section of the Instrument Approach Chart are the DME arcs depicted?
A. Profile View B. Airport Diagram C. Planview D. Circling section |
C. Planview
|
|
|
503. The STAR is not designed to ____________.
A. expedite ATC arrival procedures. B. funnel arrival traffic into one-way corridors and reduce coordination between ATC facilities. C. provide guidance to a fix in the terminal area. D. ensure appropriate separation minima between aircraft. |
D. ensure appropriate separation minima between aircraft.
|
|
|
508. What condition will cause an aircraft’s indicated airspeed to decrease?
A. A decrease in altitude or temperature B. A decrease in altitude or an increase in temperature C. An increase in altitude or a decrease in temperature D. An increase in altitude or temperature |
D. An increase in altitude or temperature
|
|
|
510. A pilot would most likely be issued a STAR from a/an ________ controller.
A. tower B. approach C. ground D. en route |
D. en route
|
|
|
512. Airports are listed in the A/FD in which order?
A. largest to smallest B. state, airport, city C. city, airport, state D. state, city, airport |
D. state, city, airport
|
|
|
515. One minute of latitude is equal to _________ any place on the Earth’s surface.
A. 60 nautical miles (NM) B. 60 statute miles (SM) C. 1 nautical mile (NM) D. 1 statute mile (SM) |
C. 1 nautical mile (NM)
|
|
|
516. Which instrument would be affected if the pitot tube became clogged?
A. Altimeter B. Vertical speed indicator C. Heading indicator D. Airspeed indicator |
D. Airspeed indicator
|
|
|
518. World Aeronautical Charts are used primarily for which type of navigation?
A. RNAV B. Pilotage C. IFR D. Satellite |
B. Pilotage
|
|
|
521. Lines connecting points of equal difference between true and magnetic north are called lines______.
A. agonic B. isochronous C. isogonic D. isobaric |
C. isogonic
|
|
|
523. The pilot of an aircraft which has been hijacked can be expected to squawk Code _____.
A. 7300 B. 7500 C. 7600 D. 7700 |
B. 7500
|
|
|
526. A warm, moist air mass moving over a _____ surface often produces _______, poor visibility, stratiform clouds, fog, and drizzle.
A. warm, turbulence B. warm, smooth air C. cold, turbulence D. cold, smooth air |
D. cold, smooth air
|
|
|
528. Which effect will an airplane experience when taking off with a tailwind?
A. A longer take off roll is required. B. A shorter take off roll is required. C. A larger initial rate of climb occurs. D. It will drift off the side of the runway. |
A. A longer take off roll is required.
|
|
|
529. Ice becomes perceptible. Rate of accumulation is slightly greater than sublimation. Deicing/anti-icing equipment is NOT utilized unless encountered for an extended period of time (over 1 hour). What type of ice is being described?
A. Trace B. Light C. Moderate D. Mixed |
A. Trace
|
|
|
532. Which in-flight advisory would provide a forecast of occasionally severe turbulence over Colorado?
A. AIRMET Tango B. AIRMET Zulu C. SIGMET D. Convective SIGMET |
C. SIGMET
|
|
|
533. What product is for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours?
A. AIRMET B. FA C. TAF D. CWA |
D. CWA
|
|
|
535. Which is not a reportable intensity of icing?
A. Trace B. Light C. Moderate D. Heavy |
D. Heavy
|
|
|
537. The effective utilization of all available search and rescue facilities, including Federal, state, and local efforts, is described by the _______.
A. Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) B. Letters of Agreement (LOA) C. National Search and Rescue Plan D. Air Force and Coast Guard |
C. National Search and Rescue Plan
|
|
|
538. The average vertical depth of this layer of the atmosphere is 36,000 feet, but varies from about 65,000 feet at the equator to 20,000 feet at the poles.
A. Troposphere B. Tropopause C. Stratosphere D. Mesosphere |
A. Troposphere
|
|
|
539. What cloud type indicates thermal lift of air, and whose tops can reach over 60,000 feet?
A. Cirriform B. Nimboform C. Cumuliform D. Stratiform |
C. Cumuliform
|
|
|
540. Which front moves in such a way that colder air replaces warmer air?
A. Clouded front B. Warm front C. Cold front D. Stationary front |
C. Cold front
|
|
|
541. What National Weather Service office provides meteorological forecasts, and advice to ARTCCs and other FAA facilities regarding weather impact on their missions?
A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU) B. Weather Forecast Office (WFO) C. Meteorological Watch Office (MWO) D. Aviation Weather Center (AWC) |
A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU)
|
|
|
546. Convective SIGMETs are valid for ____ hours and are used to report convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft.
A. four B. two C. three D. six |
B. two
|
|
|
547. A Meteorological Impact Statement (MIS) is __________.
A. an unscheduled discussion product that summarizes anticipated weather conditions with potential impact on air traffic flow control and flight operations in an ARTCC’s area of responsibility B. an unscheduled weather advisory issued by CWSU meteorologists for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours C. a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation for a specified time period within 5SM of an airport. D. a weather advisory concerning convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft |
A. an unscheduled discussion product that summarizes anticipated weather conditions with potential impact on air traffic flow control and flight operations in an ARTCC’s area of responsibility
|
|
|
548. Air Traffic Facilities are required to solicit PIREPs when _________ is reported or forecasted.
A. Ceiling at or below 7,000 feet B. Light icing C. Light turbulence D. Visibility at or below 10 miles |
B. Light icing
|
|
|
550. The Rescue Coordination Center is operated by the ______.
A. FCC B. ARTCC C. ATCT D. military |
D. military
|
|
|
552. Which statement about a pressure system and cloud creation is TRUE?
A. Air in a high pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds B. Air in a low pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds C. Air in a high pressure system will descend, warm, and create clouds D. Air in a low pressure system will descend, warm, and dissipate clouds |
B. Air in a low pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds
|
|
|
568. Which of the following is not a component of a secondary radar system?
A. Interrogator B. Antenna C. Transponder D. Receiver |
D. Receiver
|
|
|
569. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a secondary radar system?
A. Only displays aircraft with transponders B. Provides a shorter range than primary radar C. More vulnerable to blind spots D. Responses are degraded by weather or ground clutter |
A. Only displays aircraft with transponders
|
|
|
573. A pilot flying VFR must stay at least 2,000 feet laterally from the clouds in classes ____and______
airspace. A. B;C B. C;D C. C;E D. D;E |
B. C;D
|
|
|
574. A pilot must use supplemental oxygen for the entire flight when flying at altitudes _______.
A. between 12,500 MSL up to and including 14,000 MSL B. above 14,000 MSL C. above 15,000 MSL D. the pilot is not required to use supplemental oxygen |
B. above 14,000 MSL
|
|
|
576. When _______ and _______ are in equilibrium, the aircraft neither gains nor loses altitude.
A. lift; weight B. lift; thrust C. thrust; drag D. weight; drag |
A. lift; weight
|
|
|
578. The definition of “wake turbulence” includes a number of phenomenon affecting flight safety. Which of the following choices is not included in the definition?
A. Mach buffet B. Thrust steam turbulence C. Propeller wash D. Jet blast |
A. Mach buffet
|
|
|
579. A hovering helicopter will generate a high speed outward vortex to a distance of approximately______times the diameter of the rotor.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
C. 3
|
|
|
586. Class B operating rules can be found on the back of _________.
A. IFR/VFR planning charts B. VFR Terminal Area Charts C. Sectional Charts D. WAC Charts |
B. VFR Terminal Area Charts
|
|
|
587. The primary purpose of an IFR Area Chart is to furnish ________.
A. VFR reporting points B. visual landmarks for use in congested areas C. navigation information using a smaller scale that the En Route Low Altitude Chart D. terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas |
D. terminal data for IFR flights in congested areas
|
|
|
588. Which DP is always printed graphically and must be assigned by ATC?
A. ODPs B. IDP C. SID D. STAR |
C. SID
|
|
|
589. On the profile view of a non-precision instrument approach, the Maltese Cross depicts the ________.
A. Final Approach Fix (FAF) B. glide slope intercept point C. Missed Approach Point (MAP) D. threshold crossing point |
A. Final Approach Fix (FAF)
|
|
|
590. The height of obstructions shown on the planview and airport diagram section of an IAP are always given in _____.
A. AGL B. MSL C. Both AGL and MSL D. MSA |
B. MSL
|
|
|
593. A pilot of an aircraft experiencing radio failure can be expected to squawk ______.
A. 7300 B. 7500 C. 7600 D. 7700 |
C. 7600
|
|
|
594. What cloud type indicates thermal lift of air, and whose tops can reach over 60,000 feet?
A. Cirriform B. Nimboform C. Cumuliform D. Stratiform |
C. Cumuliform
|
|
|
595. What National Weather Service office provides meteorological forecasts, and advice to ARTCCs and other
FAA facilities regarding weather impact on their missions? A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU) B. Weather Forecast Office (WFO) C. Meteorological Watch Office (MWO) D. Aviation Weather Center (AWC) |
A. Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU)
|
|
|
599. What type of forecast is issued when specific conditions are affecting or are expected to affect an area of at
least 3,000 square miles or an area judged to have a significant impact on the safety of aircraft operations? A. AIRMET B. Convective SIGMET C. SIGMET D. CWA |
C. SIGMET
|
|
|
601. Each PIREP must include the altitude, location, time, and _______.
A. aircraft type B. remarks C. sky conditions D. temperature |
A. aircraft type
|
|
|
604. Which of the following represents, in order, the steps of the position relief briefing?
A. Preview position, position review, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility B. Position review, position equipment check, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility C. Monitor position, position equipment check, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility D. Preview position, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility, position review |
D. Preview position, verbal briefing, assumption of position responsibility, position review
|
|
|
605. What is the proper procedure for deleting any umwanted or unused altitudes?
A. Draw a line underneath it B. Draw a slash (/) through it C. Erase it D. Write an X through it |
D. Write an X through it
|
|
|
606. On terminal flight progress strips, blocks 10 -18 are ________.
A. specified by facility directive B. always the same C. never used D. specified in the 7110.65 |
A. specified by facility directive
|
|
|
608. The terminal flight progress strip has _____ use(s) in the terminal option.
A. one B. two C. three D. four |
C. three
|
|
|
609. Use prefixes when relaying ______, ______, or _______ through non-ATC facilities.
A. clearances, instructions, reports B. information, instructions, requests C. clearances, information, requests D. instructions, reports, requests |
C. clearances, information, requests
|
|
|
612. Which is not a function of the Radar position in the ARTCC?
A. Maintain direct communication with aircraft B. Scan radar display C. Make weather observations D. Ensure separation |
C. Make weather observations
|
|
|
617. A/An ________ is a predetermined maneuver which keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace while
awaiting further clearance from air traffic control. A. holding procedure B. approach procedure C. procedure turn D. auto-rotation |
A. holding procedure
|
|
|
619. The primary radar display depicts the _____ and _______ of objects that reflect radio energy.
A. position; altitude B. position; movement C. altitude; speed D. movement; speed |
B. position; movement
|
|
|
620. Which of the following is an example of a temporary directive, e.g., a notice that needs to be distributed immediately?
A. Supplements B. LOA C. GENOT D. GETS |
C. GENOT
|
|
|
624. Filing a VFR flight plan is __________.
A. optional, but strongly encouraged B. mandatory when penetrating a Military Operations Area C. only necessary when weather conditions are below VFR minimums D. only necessary for search and rescue missions |
A. optional, but strongly encouraged
|
|
|
625. At an airport where takeoff minimums are not prescribed (revenue flights only), an aircraft with two engines
or less may depart when there is at least ___ statute mile(s) visibility. A. 3 B. 2 C. 1 D. ½ |
C. 1
|
|
|
626. If a pilot adjusts the pitch and yaw, the aircraft is moving along the _______ and ________ axes.
A. longitudinal; vertical B. lateral; vertical C. longitudinal; lateral D. lateral; horizontal |
B. lateral; vertical
|
|
|
631. Another name for thrust stream turbulence is ______.
A. turbine wash B. burner blast C. jet fuel burn D. jet blast |
D. jet blast
|
|
|
632. For a military aircraft, the first letter(s) of the designator identifies the aircraft’s ________.
A. manufacturer B. model C. service branch D. mission |
D. mission
|
|
|
633. Category III aircraft generally climb at what rate?
A. 500’ – 1000’ per minute B. 1000’ – 2000’ per minute C. 2000’ – 4000’ per minute D. Greater than 4000’ per minute. |
C. 2000’ – 4000’ per minute
|
|
|
636. The navigational method based solely on computing air speed, course, wind, ground speed, and elapsed time is _______.
A. radio navigation B. RNAV navigation C. FMS D. dead reckoning |
D. dead reckoning
|
|
|
642. Which instrument does not depend on 'rigidity in space' for its operation?
A. heading indicator B. attitude indicator C. magnetic compass D. turn coordinator |
C. magnetic compass
|
|
|
649. “Any wind more than 90 degrees to the longitudinal axis of the runway” defines a _____.
A. tailwind B. crosswind C. variable wind D. sudden wind shift |
A. tailwind
|
|
|
652. Which type of bulletin uses the alphabetic designators Sierra, Tango, or Zulu to indicate the type of condition being reported?
A. AIRMET B. MIS C. SIGMET D. WST |
A. AIRMET
|
|
|
653. Based on the following PIREP, the base of the second cloud layer is _________.
UA/OV KMRB-KPIT/TM 1600/FL100/TP BE55/SK BKN024-TOP032/BKN-OVC043- TOPUNKN/TA M12/IC LGT-MOD RIME 055-080 A. 4,300 feet MSL B. 3,200 feel AGL C. 4,300 feet AGL D. 2,400 feet MSL |
A. 4,300 feet MSL
|
|
|
661. There are ______ types of ATC prefixes used when relaying through a non-ATC facility.
A. two B. three C. four D. five |
B. three
|
|
|
671. When air density decreases what occurs?
A. Rate of climb is faster and landing speed will be faster B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased C. Takeoff run is longer and the engine produces more power D. Rate of climb is slower and takeoff run is shorter |
B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased
|
|
|
672. Which of the following is not a principal airfoil?
A. Wing B. Fuselage C. Propeller D. Horizontal tail surfaces |
B. Fuselage
|
|
|
673. Regarding helicopters, the cyclic controls the _______ of the rotor blades and the collective controls the _______.
A. pitch; tilt B. speed; pitch C. tilt; pitch D. angle; speed |
C. tilt; pitch
|
|
|
675. What are the three basic types of landing gear?
A. straight; swept; delta B. tandem; fixed; conventional C. tricycle; conventional; tandem D. forward; mid; conventional |
C. tricycle; conventional; tandem
|
|
|
676. One minute of latitude is equal to ______ any place on the Earth’s surface.
A. 5000 feet B. ½ nautical mile C. 1 nautical mile (NM) D. 1 statute mile (SM) |
C. 1 nautical mile (NM)
|
|
|
677. A line of equal magnetic variation is called a/an ________ line.
A. isogonic B. agonic C. magnetic D. longitude |
A. isogonic
|
|
|
678. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Global Positioning System (GPS)?
A. The system is affected by weather.) B. The system provides satellite-based radio navigation. C. The system provides highly accurate position information. D. The system provides velocity information. |
A. The system is affected by weather.)
|
|
|
680. Which document would you use to determine type of fuel available at an airport?
A. US Terminal Procedures Charts B. Airport/Facility Directory C. Sectional Chart D. IFR Area Chart |
B. Airport/Facility Directory
|
|
|
683. The purpose of TCAS is to _________.
A. provide standard separation B. prevent a collision C. replace ATC D. ensure terrain avoidance |
B. prevent a collision
|
|
|
684. The universal emergency frequencies are ______.
A. VHF 121.0; VHF 243.5 B. VHF 122.5, UHF 245.0 C. VHF 121.5, UHF 243.0 D. VHF 245.0, UHF 122.5 |
C. VHF 121.5, UHF 243.0
|
|
|
685. The Coast Guard and Air Force conduct ___________ operations through the Rescue Coordination Center.
A. airborne search and rescue B. sheriffs department search and rescue C. telephonic search and rescue D. physical search and rescue |
D. physical search and rescue
|
|
|
691. What forecast product provides a plain language, non-technical description of weather expected to occur over an extended period ranging from several hours to two days?
A. AIRMET B. MIS C. SIGMET D. WST |
B. MIS
|
|
|
692. Air Traffic Facilities are required to solicit PIREPs when _______ is reported or forecasted.
A. Ceiling at or below 7,000 feet B. Light icing C. Light turbulence D. Visibility at or below 10 miles |
B. Light icing
|
|
|
695. What does the abbreviation “RA” mean when used on a flight progress strip?
A. Radar Advisories (flight following) B. Resolution Advisory (pilot reported TCAS event) C. Runway Approach D. Radar Approach |
B. Resolution Advisory (pilot reported TCAS event)
|
