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159 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
A new drug application will have all of the following in it EXCEPT
a) human pharmacokinetics
b) bioavailability
c) microbiology (for anibxs)
d) pictures of the medication
e) benefits/risk discussion for drug usage
f) proposed product labeling (including dosage)
d.
A new drug application intergrates all data on the drug and is
a) typically 100 pages or more & takes 6 months to review
b) typically 10,000 pages or more & takes 2 years to review
c) typically 10,000 pages or more & takes 1 year to review
d) typically 5000 pages or more & takes 1 year to review
c) typically 10K pages or more & takes 1 year to review (on average)
Prior to final approval of a NDA, the manufacturing facilities must be inspected to assure its capability to comply with quality standards including
a) what's contained in the application
b) what's specified in the FDA's Critically Good Manufacturing Procedural Standards
c) what's specified in the FDA's Current Good Manufacturing Practice Standards
d) a & b
e) a & c
e) a & c
T/F? In the decision process of a NDA, the approval letter further conditions that must be met for approval & decribes what deficiencies must be corrected.
false
(the APPROVABLE letter does this)

more info:
(1) Approvable letter
(2) Approval letter
(3) Not Approvable letter--application has 1+ significant deficiencies
T/F? As of this past August, the FDA now has a 2 choice decision process--one of approval or one where they will issue a "complete response" letter in detail actions to take to get approved.
true
In the post-marketing phase of an approved drug,
a) Phase 4--Clinical studies req's the drug product is continually monitored in clinical investigations to add to the understanding of the drug's effects.the drug product is continually monitored in clinical investigations to add to the understanding of the drug's effects.
b) adverse rxn reporting must be made & the drug's sponsor is req'd to review and report to the FDA all adverse effects reported to them by any internal or external sources (e.g. physicians, postmarketing studies, RPh's, etc)
c) comprehensive annual reports are req'd
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
An orphan disease is a disease that
a) is rare & affects fewer than 500,000 people in the US
b) is rare & affects fewer than 200,000 people in the US
c) there's no reasonable expectation that costs of research and development for the indication can be recovered by sales of the product in the US
c) a & c
d) b & c
d) b & c
Examples of orphan diseases include
a) cystic fibrosis
b) multiple sclerosis
c) chronic lymphocyte leukemia
d) a & b only
e) a & c only
f) all of the above
e) a & c only
The purpose(s) of IND for orphan drugs include
a) to develop drugs where there is an insufficient market incentive
b) financial support for clinical trials
c) 7 yrs of exclusive marketing rights
d) a & b only
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
In the treatment of IND, a "treatment protocol"
a) is filed during phase 1 and 2 to allow treatment of the desperately ill
b) is filed during phase 2 and 3 to allow treatment of the desperately ill
c) is filed during phase 1-4 to allow treatment of the desperately ill
d) is filed during phase 2 only to allow treatment of the desperately ill
a) is filed during phase 1 and 2 to allow treatment of the desperately ill
An Abbreviated New Drug Application omits nonclinical lab studies and clinical studies except those pertaining to
a) pharmacokinetics
b) bioavailability
c) microbiology
d) toxicology
b) bioavailability
T/F? Generic drugs get on the market by an Abbreviated NDA.
true
A Supplemental New Drug Application is used if there are changes in all of these EXCEPT
a) drug formulation or synthesis
b) manufacturing facilities
c) analytical standards
d) container
e) all of these are correct
e) all of these are correct
T/F? Preclinical research and development (R&D) takes about 1 year.
false (about 2 years)
T/F? Phase 1 takes about 3 years.
true
T/F? Phase 3 takes about 5 years.
true
T/F? NDA submission takes about 5 years.
false (about 8 years)
The extent to which a (drug) product retains, within specified limits, and throughout its period of storage and
use (i.e., its shelf-life), the same properties and characteristics that it possessed at the time of its manufacture is called
a) drug integrity
b) drug toxicology
c) drug pharmacokinetics
d) drug stability
d) drug stability
A property that is relevant and critical to the stability of a drug is its ________ ________ and means that a drug must stay intact.
a) chemical stability
b) physical stability
c) chemical integrity
d) physical integrity
c) chemical integrity
Changes in chemical stability of a drug can effect all of the following EXCEPT:
a) therapeutics
b) toxicology
c) organoleptic properties
d) all of the above are true
d) all of the above are true
Examples of chemical therapeutic changes include
a) pharmacology
b) kinetics
c) blood levels changing
d) a & b
e) all of the above
d) a & b

(blood level changes is an example of a PHYSICAL therapeutic change)
T/F? During clinical studies, the final formulation is completed as well as the packaging and labeling.
True
What is the term used that describes 1 to 2 molecules that differ only in the spatial arrangment around a single carbon atom?
a) organoleptic
b) epimerize
c) propagation
d) isomerize
b) epimerize
Penicillins can decompose in ______ solutions to possibly ________ compounds.
a) acidic, toxic
b) basic, toxic
c) acidic, allergenic
d) basic, allergenic
c) acidic, allergenic
__________ can degrade under ________ conditions yielding _________ as a byproduct & causes respiratory depression.
a) Tetracycline, acidic, uric acid
b) Pilocarpine, basic, cyanide
c) Paroxetine, acidic, cyanide
d) Pralidoxime, basic, cyanide
d) Pralidoxime, basic, cyanide
_________ properties are susceptible to sensory impressions.
a) Sympathetic
b) Aromatic
c) Organoleptic
d) Elegant
c) Organoleptic
Not only is chemical integrity critical for drug stability, physical integrity is also. Changes in physical integrity can affect
a) toxicity
b) therapeutics
c) organoleptic properties
d) a & b
e) b & c
f) a, b & c
e) b & c

(toxicity is only mentioned under chemical integrity)
An example of therapeutic changes with physical integrity include
a) pharmacology
b) kinetics
c) blood levels
d) all of the above
c) blood level changes

(due to dissolution changes/solubility)
And example of an organoleptic property change is
a) dissolution in suspensions
b) dissolution in solutions
c) dissolution in powders
d) all of the above
a) dissolution in suspensions

(drig in soln elicits taste)
T/F? Microbial invasion of a drug product is considered a stability problem.
true

(can be unappealing and/or deadly)
The most common degradation mechanisms are hydrolysis (#1 most common) & oxidation, but other degradation mechanisms include
a) photolysis
b) dehydration
c) isomerization
d) polymerization
e) a, b, & c only
f) all of the above
f) all of the above
Examples of functional groups susceptible for hydrolytic cleavage include all of the following except
a) esters
b) amides
c) phenols
d) lactams
e) lactones
c) phenols
An example of an ester that's susceptible to hydrolytic cleavage is
a) penicillin
b) aspirin
c) spironolactone
d) dibucaine
e) captopril
b) aspirin
Degradation products of ester hydrolysis include
a) carboxyl
b) alcohol
c) quinone
d) a & b
e) a & c
d) a & b
Degradation products of Amide hydrolysis include
a) carboxylic acid
b) amine
c) alcohol
d) a & b
c) a & c
d) a & b
An example of a lactam (cyclic amide) that's susceptible to hydrolytic cleavage include
a) penicillins
b) cephalosporins
c) spironolactones
d) catecholamine
e) a & b
f) none of the above
e) a & b
An example of a lactone (cyclic ester) that's susceptible to hydrolytic cleavage includes
a) penicillin
b) spironolactone
c) catecholamine
d) aspirin
b) spironolactone
T/f? Lactone is also known as a cyclic amide.
False (aka cyclic ESTER)

cyclic amide is Lactam
Removal of electrons is known as
a) hydrolysis
b) oxidation
c) polymerization
d) ionization
b) oxidation
T/F? Autoregulation is a fast process because oxygen is very reactive, removing electrons quickly.
false

(it's SLOW b/c O2 is NOT very reactive & CAN'T remove electrons)
A type of oxidation that involves the uncatalyzed oxidation of a substrate by molecular oxygen is called
a) autoxidation
b) autoregulation
c) free radial oxidation
d) deoxidation
a) autoxidation
T/F? Molecular oxygen (O2) is a double diradical (designated 2O2) and has 2 unpaired electrons with parallel spins.
false

(it's a TRIPLET diradical (3O2)...)
Molecular oxygen is not very reactive compared to some reactive oxygen species such as
a) superoxide
b) hydrogen peroxide
c) hydroxyl radical
d) oxidative radical
e) a, b & c
f) all of the above
e) a, b & c
Free radical mechanism of oxidation involve
a) initiation
b) propogation
c) termination
d) radicalization
e) a & b only
f) a, b & c
f) a, b & c
__________ involves the formation of substrate free radicals necessary for the propagation of the chain.
a) Initiation
b) Propogation
c) Termination
d) all of the above
a) Initation
Which of the following is FALSE involving initiation in oxidation?
a) involves hydrogen abstraction
b) can occur through autoxidation by molecular oxygen or w/ other chain-initiating radicals
c) free radicals combine to form chemically inert products
d) chain initiating radicals are generated by the action of light, heat, transition metals, or reactive compounds
c) free radicals combine to form chemically inert products
(this defines TERMINATION)
__________ in the free radical mechanism of oxidation happens when free radicals grow in number
a) Initiation
b) Propogation
c) Termination
e) Isomerization
d) none of the above
b) Propogation
__________ in the free radical mechanism of oxidation happens when free radicals combine to form chemically inert products
a) Initiation
b) Propogation
c) Termination
d) all of the above
c) Termination
Functional groups susceptible to oxidation include all of the following except
a) amides
b) phenols
c) cetechols
d) thiols
e) polyunsaturated hydrocarbons
a) amides
A drug example for the oxidation susceptible functional group catechols include
a) captopril
b) catecholamine
c) spironolactone
d) morphine
e) a, b & c
b) catecholamine

note: epinephrine is import to catechols, also.
-catechols produce quinones, which are usually colored
A drug example for the oxidation susceptible functional group thiols include
a) captopril
b) catecholamine
c) spironolactone
d) morphine
e) a, b & c
a) captopril

note: captopril forms a dimer
-cysteine is found in proteins
-thiols form disulfide bonds when oxidized
Examples of polyunsaturated hydrocarbons include
a) carbohydrates
b) lipids
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin A
e) b & c
f) b & d
f) b & d
__________ is the chemical breakdown caused by light that usually involves complex mechanisms.
a) Photosynthesis
b) Ozonolysis
c) Photolysis
d) Isomerization
c) Photolysis
All of the following describes photolysis EXCEPTL
a) a photon with a wavelength of 300nm has 200kJ/mol of energy comparable to bond energy of organic molecules, thus helping to break or make bonds.
b) different molecules have susceptibilities to different types of light based on their absorption characteristics
c) The most common photolytic mechanism is photoxidation
d) all the above are true
a.

(300nm has 400kJ/mol of energy, not 200)
The most common photolytic mechanism is
a) photohydrolysis
b) photodehydration
c) photoxidation
d) photoisomerization
c) photoxidation

(a & b are all kinds of photodegradation rxns that can occur)
Besides hydrolysis, oxidation, and photolysis, some other chemical degradations include
a) dehydration
b) isomerization
c) polymerization
d) a & b only
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
T/F? Dehydration is considered a physical process when looking at the elimination of water molecules from the chemical stucture.
false
(it's a chemical process)

physical=removal of H2O froma crystal hydrate, which is a type of polymorphism
An example of dehydration degradation in medicine include
a) penicillins
b) erythromycin
c) tetracycline
d) macrolides
e) a, b, & c
f) b & c only
f) b & c only
T/F? Physical dehydration does not change solubility of a drug
false
Isomerization degradation involves all of the following except
a) conversion of a drug to its enantiomer or geometric isomer
b) stereoisomerism involving the arrangement of substituents about an symetric carbon atom(s) so that the various isomers differ in how they rotate a plane in polarized light
c) examples include pilocarpine, epinephrine, penicillin, Vitamin E, and amphotericin A
d) all of the above are correct
e) all of the above are false
e) all of the above are false

corrected versions:
a) conversion of a drug to its OPTICAL or geometric isomer
b) stereoisomerism involving the arrangement of substituents about an ASSYMETRIC carbon atom(s) so that the various isomers differ in how they rotate a plane in polarized light
c) examples include pilocarpine, epinephrine, tetracycline (not penicillin!), Vitamin A (not E!), and amphotericin B (not A!)
All of the following are significant to isomerization except
a) Geometric isomers are the same in their physicochemical properties
b) It's estimated that 50-60% of drugs are chiral compounds, with most of them being racemic mixtures
c) Enantiomers can have different biological properties
d) Drugs marketed as a pure enantiomer may racemize
a)

Geometric isomers can DIFFER in their physiochemical properties
What drug can undergo base-catalyzed racemization in aqueous media?
a) ampicillin
b) chlorpromazine
c) pilocarpine
d) thalidomide
e) all of the above
d) thalidomide
_________ are a pair of molecular entities which are mirror images of each other and non-superimposable.
a) Constitutional isomers
b) Stereoisomers
c) Enantiomers
d) Polymers
c) Enantiomers
What is the term used to describe when 2 or more drug molecules combine to form a complex molecule?
a) Isomerization
b) Polymorphism
c) Polymerization
d) Racemization
c) Polymerization
Medication examples of polymerizations include all of the following except
a) ampicillin
b) tetracycline
c) chlorpromazine
d) aminopenicillins
b) tetracycline
Physical degradation mechanisms that change physical properties rather than chemical structure include all of the following EXCEPT
a) polymorphism
b) hygroscopicity/water sorption
c) vaporization
d) absorption to containers
e) all of the above are correct
d)

correct: adsorption to containers
____________ is the capacity for appearing in many forms.
a) Polmerization
b) Hygroscopicity
c) Amorphism
d) Polymorphism
d) Polymorphism
Regarding polymorphism, what are some possible forms of a solid drug?
a) cystalline form
b) amorphous form
c) pseudomorphous form
d) a & b only
e) all of the above
d) a & b only
__________ form has repeating/periodic arrangement of the individual molecules that creates a crystal lattice.
a) Amorphous
b) Pseudomorphous
c) Crystalline
d) Semi-polymorphous
c) Crystalline
The internal structure and habits of the cystalline form of a polymorphic solid drug include
a) different molecular arrangement are possible with a solid.
b) a particular arrangement defines the internal structure
c) the external structure determines the crystal habit
d) a & b only
e) all of the above
d) a & b only

c is false because it should say "the INTERNAL structure determines the crystal habit"
Regarding the crystalline form, what is the chemistry term that describes the outer appearance of a crystal?
a) habit
b) suit
c) prism
d) container
a) habit
T/F? Different habits can result from only major changes in synthetic conditions.
false

from MINOR changes
Examples of crystalline habits include
a) needle
b) bladed
c) tabular
d) prismatic
e) platy
f) all of the above
f) all of the above
A drug example of a crystalline form includes
a) ampicillin
b) pralidoxime
c) carbamazepine
d) alprazolam
c) carbamazepine
_________ form means without distinct structure & has no repeating/periodic arrangement.
a) Pseudomorphous
b) Polymorphous
c) Crystalline
d) Amorphous
d) Amorphous
Regarding the importance of the solid state, the form of a solid may affect all of the following except
a) flow properties
b) efflorescence properties
c) mechanical properties (compaction)
d) bioavailability
e) melting point
f) solid state stability
b) efflorescence properties
What's important for dosage uniformity?
a) flow properties
b) mechanical properties
c) bioavailability
d) melting point
e) solid state stability
a) flow properties
What's a function of drug dissolution, changes with different drug forms, and is a fraction of an administered dose that reaches the systemic circulation?
a) flow properties
b) mechanical properties
c) bioavailability
d) melting point
e) solid state stability
c) bioavailability
What is a function of strength of molecular interactions?
a) flow properties
b) mechanical properties
c) bioavailability
d) melting point
e) solid state stability
d) melting point
Examples of this is hyperscopicity (uptake of H2O onto a solid dose form) and polymorphism (changes in form).
a) flow properties
b) mechanical properties
c) bioavailability
d) melting point
e) solid state stability
e) solid state stability
T/F? Depending on crystallization conditions, some drug solids may have at least three different molecular arrangments, each giving distinct crystalline species, or polymorphs.
false

...at least two different molecular arrangements...
Important features of polymorphs include all of the following except
a) polymorph solubility
b) polymorph stability
c) polymorph conduction
d) polymorph interconversion
c) polymorph conduction
T/F? Regarding polymorph solubility, metastable polymorphs are generally less soluble than their more stable counterparts.
false

...MORE soluble...
__________ polymorphs means they're approaching stability b/c of weak interactions, and an example of this (drug) is __________.
a) pseudostable, chlorpromazine
b) metastable, chlorpromazine
c) metastable, chloromycetin
d) metastable, chloramphenicol
d) metastable, chloramphenicol
Chloramphenicol palmitate has ___ polymorphs, ___ is more soluble in a mixture, and it has to be in molecular form in order to cross membranes.
a) 2, B
b) 3, B
c) 3, A
d) 2, A
b) 3, B

B was more soluble in a mixture of A & B in suspension.
T/F? If a drug stays in suspension, it wont pass thru a membrane.
true
T/F? The molecules within different polymorphs interact the same.
false

they interact differently
All of the following is true regarding polymorph stability except
a) when molecules with weaker molecular interactions are metastable
b)they're in an unstable and transient but relatively long-lived state of chemical or physical system
c) they may change over time to a less stable form
d) amorphous solids are metastable, are great for solubility, but aren't stable b/c they change to crystalline form
c)

correct: they may change over time to a MORE stable form
When can polymorph interconversion occur?
a) during processing
b) during grinding
c) during drying
d) during exposure to high humidity
e) sitting on the shelf
f) all of the above
f) all of the above
Some drug examples of polymorph interconversion include ________ (grinding crystals of this drug can lead to an amorphous form & increase conc. in blood) and _________ (which has 8 potential polymorphs that can interconvert in suspension).
a) cortisone acetate crystals in susp., digoxin
b) chloramphenicol palmitate, cortisone acetate cystals in susp.
c) digoxin, cortisone acetate crystals in susp.
d) digoxin, chloramphenicol palmitate
c) digoxin, cortisone acetate crystals in susp.
Regarding polymorph interconversion, which of the following is FALSE for cortisone acetate crystals in suspension?
a) has 9 potential polymorphs
b) may cause some suspended drug to dissolve
c) increases degradation rate
d) crystals can become bigger and cause settling
a)

correct: has 8 potential polymorphs
What's the term used when you have drug crystallize as a combination of pure drug & the solvent of crystallization?
a) solvent
b) solvate
c) amorphic
d) none of the above
b) solvate

aka "hydrate" b/c water is part of the crystal lattice

note: this is an example of of "pseudopolymorphism" of solvates
Regarding "pseudopolymorphism" of solvates, Theophylline has ____ H20 molecules for every ____ theophylline molecules.
a) 5, 5
b) 5, 6
c) 6, 6
d) 6, 5
c) 6, 6
All of the following are true regarding solvate stability EXCEPT
a) solvates can be physically unstable under certain conditions
b) efflorescence can occur when there's a release of H2O of hydration from a crystal hydrate
c) some hydrates can lose H2O-of-hydration during handling, like grinding
d) solvates can interconvert to different forms during processing, such as grinding
d)
(this refers to POLYMORPH interconversion)
All of the following involves solvate solubility except:
a) changes in hydrate form can affect solubility
b) because of the energetics of dissolution, hydrates are generally more soluble than their anhydrous counterparts
c) a good example, ampicillin, can be given in anhydrous or trihydrate form showing anhydrous dissolves better
d) all of the above are true
b)

corrected: because of the energetics of dissolution, hydrates are generally LESS soluble than their anhydrous counterparts
The tendency of a substance to take up atmospheric moisture is called
a) vaporization
b) adsorption
c) polymorphism
d) hygroscopicity
d) hygroscopicity

(aka water sorption)
In the manufacturing and handling of drugs, increased cohesiveness can lead to
a) poor flow and mixing of powders
b) caking of powders
c) deliquescence
d) a & b
e) a, b, & c
e) a, b, & c
The dissolution of a solid upon uptake of atmospheric moisture is called
a) deliquescence
b) efflorescence
c) elegance
d) hydroscopicity
a) deliquescence

remember: hydroscopicity is just the tendency of a substance to take up atmospheric moisture
Regarding hygroscopicity, preformulation studies include ________ the solid by storing at _____ humidity.
a) stressing, low
b) disrupting, low
c) stressing, high
d) disrupting, high
c) stressing, high
Drugs are generally more stable in the solid state, however the uptake of water by the solid drug can accelerate the drug's _________ degradation, and an example (drug) includes
a) chemical, aspirin
b) chemical, penicillin
c) physical, aspirin
d) physical penicillin
a) chemical, aspirin
T/F? Drugs and excipients with low vapor pressure may volatilize through or within the container.
false

...with HIGH vapor P...
Some examples of drugs and excipients with high vapor P's tha may volatilize through a container include all of the following EXCEPT
a) flavorants
b) cosolvents
c) kelators
d) nitroglycerin
c) kelators
A ________ is a solvent used in combination with another solvent to increase solute's stability.
a) cofactor
b) cosolvent
c) kelator
d) buffer
b) cosolvent
Certain drugs, especially within solution, can _______ to their container or other devices they come in contact with
a) permeate
b) absorb
c) kelate
d) adsorb
d) adsorb
Drug-container interax such as drug-plastic interax in IV admixtures usually involve lipid soluble drugs such as
a) diazepam
b) insulin
c) isosorbide dinitrate
d) a & b
a) all of the above
a) all of the above
Preformulation/formulation has to do with
a) stability
b) incompatibility
c) absorption
d) dissolution
e) a, b & d only
f) all of the above
e) a, b & d only

(absorption has to do with biocharmaceutics)
Biopharmaceutics has to do with all of the following except
a) absorption
b) stability
c) distribution
d) elimination
e) pharmacokinetics
b) stability
When looking at chemical kinetics, the instantaneous rate (velocity/speed) of a reaction is given by the change in ____________ of the species over _____________.
a) time, concentration
b) velocity, time
c) concentration, time
d) speed, concentration
c) concentration, time

rate=C/t
In the reaction rate equation rate=k[A^a][B^b] (k has a sub (a+b)), k is called the ______ ________ of the reaction at a particular ___________.
rate constant

temperature

(a & b are the # of mole equivalents of each reactant A & B)
The overall order of the reaction (n) may be defined as ________.
n=a+b
(sum of the exponents)

note: the order of a rxn may also be denoted with respect to each reactant
For pharmaceutics, ____, ____, & ____ order reactions are of greatest interest.
zero, first, & second
In first-order degradation, the degradation rate varies as the first power of the concentration of the _________ and is __________ of the concentration of any other substance that may be present.
substrate

independent

-dC/dT=kC^1
note: units of k are reciprical time
For first-order rxns, ________ is proportional to _________ & there's exponential decay.
rate

concentration
When looking at a plot of ln C vs t, what's the intercept and what's the slope?
lnCo=intercept

K1=slope
The actual order for most hydrolytic reactions is...
pseudo first-order degradation

where the degradation rate is apparently independent of the concentration of one of the ractants, even though it's consumed in the rxn.
What is an example of a pseudo first-order degradation rxn?
ester hydrolysis in dilute aqueous soln.

note: since water is in such great excess, its loss is considered negligible (and concentration is considered constant)
When the concentration change is described by the equation -dC/dT=kC^o=ko, it's what order
zero-order

ko is the zero-order rate constant. units for k are concentration per unit time
As for first-order degradation, the __________ rate equation for a zero-order rxn enables a calculation of the remaining concentration at any point in time: C = Co - kot
integrated
What's the intercept for a zero-order rxn?

What's the slope for a zero-order?
Co=intercept

ko=slope
Zero-order drug degradation can occur where there is a __________ of drug to replace drug that's lost to decomposition.
reservoir

note: e.g. some suspensions
--conc. as drug is degrading stays CONSTANT b/c there's replacement going on.
With knowledge of ___a___ _____ ______ and ___b_____ ______, one can readily estimate the shelf-life of a product using equations derived from the ____c____ ____ _________.
a) rate constant values

b) reaction order

c) integrated rate equations
Most often, the shelf-life is defined as the time for ____ degradation (denoted as ___).
a) 5%, t95
b) 10%, t90
c) 20%, t80
d) 50%, t50
b) 10%, t90
Regarding pH, ______ and ______ can catalyze rxns.
proton, hydroxyl ions
In ____ ______, protonation of the carbonyl oxygen makes the carbon more electrophilic.
acid catalysis
In ____ _______, the hydroxyl ion is very nucleophilic.
base catalysis
During preformulation, ______ ______ are routinely generated for the drug candidate in solution. The profiles have a variety of shapes which indicates different types of _________.
pH-rate profiles

catalysis
The ___________________ can often be estimated from the pH-rate profiles.
pH of maximum stability

(this is the point where k is lowest)
Regarding temperature, typically a ____ rise in temp produces a ____ fold decay rate INCREASE.
a) 5 C, 2-4 fold
b) 10 C, 2-4 fold
c) 10 C, 2-5 fold
d) 20 C, 2-5 fold
c) 10 C, 2-5 fold
The ________ ______ can be used to model the effect of temperature on degradation and make useful predictions of the effects of different temperatures on the product's shelf-life.
Arrhenius equation
In the Arrhenius equation k=Ae^(Ea/RT), A is the __________,
Ea is the ________,
R is the _________,
and T is the ___________.
k=Ae^(Ea/RT)

k=rxn rate constant
A=constant called the FREQUENCY FACTOR
Ea=energy of activation for the rxn
R=gas constant
T=absolute temperature
In the Arrhenius equation, A is called the ______ _____, which indicates how many ______ have the right orientation to lead to the products.
frequency factor

collisions
When converted to its logarithmic form, the Arrhenius equation is useful for _________ __________ studies.

What's this equation?
accelerated stability studies

lnk= lnA - Ea/RT
(a plot of lnk vs. 1/T yields
As long as a plot is linear, the pharmaceutical scientist can determine degradation rates at ____ temperatures and extrapolate to ______ temperatures.
high

lower

(used mainly to predict shelf-life under storage conditions)
One approach to accelerated stability testing would be to (1) plot a function of _____a______ vs. ___a___ for a drug solution at elevated temperatures (usually btwn 35 C and 70 C).

(2)Then calculate the rate constant at each temp, from the ___b____.

(3)And plot the log of the calculated __c___ ___c___ vs. ___c_____ of the __d___ temperatures.
(4)extrapolate to find rate constant at __e__.
(5) Using k250, determine __f___.
a) concentration vs. time

b) from slope

c) rate constants vs. reciprocal
d) absolute temp
e) 25 C (k250)
f) shelf-life
Examples of non-Arrhenius behavior includes include
a) where temperature changes lead to solvent evaporation
b) where temp changes lead to multiple rxn pathways
c) where temp changes lead to change in physical form of the preparation
d) where freezing the product concentrates the solutes, with untoward consequences.
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
Frozen ampicillin solution would lead to pockets of high concentration, thus _______ degradation rate.
increasing
Frozen buffers in solution would make the buffer crystallization alter ____.
pH

(degradation is dependent of pH)
_______ _____ studies must be performed in the final formulation in the final storage container.
Accelerated stability studies

(both the formulation and container can affect stability)
Though tentative expiration dates can be assigned using accelerated stability studies, there must be long term studies under ___ ____ and _____ ______.
normal transport & storage conditions

(used to verify & maybe extend the expiration date)
If the expiration date includes only the month & year, the product must meet specifications until _____________.
the last day of the month
For solid dosage forms, samples are generally stressed by storing at __a__, at high ___b_____ for _c__ to _c__ months.
a) 40 C

b) high humidities

c) 6 to 12 months
(to rapidly determine the effect of water sorption--hydroscopicity)
To maintain stability, dosage formulation & production approaches include
a) stored at reduced temperatures
b) buffer the product appropriately
c) dry the product
d) a & b only
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
When storing meds at reduced temps, you must consider what?
-consider potential problems with freezing

-consider the potential for water condensation
When you buffer a product appropriately, you want to do it at the ___ of _____ stability.
pH of maximum stability

note: must also consider solubility
Dry dosage forms include tablets, capsules, and powders, but also includes _______ which are the silica gel packets commonly used to absorb water.
desiccants
To make "solvent loving" as in freeze-drying is called ____________.
lyophilization
Lyophilization starts with a frozen product. What are the 3 steps to do this?
1) starts with liquid that includes drug plus excipients

2) the samples are frozen then sublimed under vacuum

3) a porous matrix usually results (pores remain where water crystals were)
What are some additional measures used to maintain stability?
1) remove/replace O2 (distill, then purge the water with an inert gas or fill headspace with an inert gas)

2) Use antioxidants (oil-soluble or water-soluble)

3) use chelators to minimize metal content

4) protect from light
An example of an oil-soluble antioxidant would be __________ or ___________.
alpha-tocopherol (Vit E)
or
buylated hydroxytoluene (BHT)
An example of water-soluble antioxidant would be _______ or _________.
ascorbic acid (Vit C)
or
sodium sulfite (which is a common allergenic in 0.2% of the population)
The two principle mechanisms of antioxidant action are (choose 2 answers):
a) stop propagation
b) start propagation
c) preferentially oxidized
d) preferentially hydrolyzed
a & c
To minimize metal content, you would use...

which includes...
chelators

citric acid, EDTA (ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid)
For oral and topical products, no more than __% of the light at any wavelength btwn ____ and ____ may be transmitted.
10%

290nm and 450nm
The lower the wavelength of light, the ________ the energy.
higher
What kind of light has high energy and is absorbed by most drugs?
UV light
_________ light includes some UV light.
fluorescent
To protect medications from light, you can use...
opaque or amber containers
What are the responsibilities of a pharmacist (from the USP) in regard to stability?
1) rotation of stock & observation of expiration dates
2) storage under recommended environmental conditions
3) Observing products for evidence of instability
4) proper treatment of products subject to additional manipulation
5) informing and educating the patient
A manufacture guarantees product quality up to the expiration date only if the product...
has been stored in the original container under recommended storage conditions