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104 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
101.1 Describe the physical characteristics of the EP-3E aircraft
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four-engine, low-wing, electronic warfare and reconnaissance aircraft utilizing state-of-the-art
surveillance equipment for it’s primary mission. Four Allison T56-A-14 turboprop engines power the aircraft.The aircraft is 99ft 8in long, with a wingspan of 105ft 11in. The height at the top of the vertical fin is 34ft 3in and the clearance of the radome under normal conditions is 12 inches. |
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101.2 Describe the all-weather capabilities of the P-3 aircraft
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Ice controls
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101.3 State the purpose of the following aircrew positions:Mission Commander
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Responsible for all phases of the assigned mission except for matters affecting safety of flight
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Patrol Plane Commander (PPC)
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The PPC is responsible for the effectiveness of the aircraft and crew for all matters affecting safety of flight
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Patrol Plane Pilot (PPP)
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read the checklist, as required by the flight mission. He will pilot the aircraft at all times the PPC is away
from his station. |
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Patrol Plane Copilot (PPCP)
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relief for the PPC or PPP during extended flight operations
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Flight Engineer (FE)
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continually monitor engine and system flight station controls and indicators
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Second Flight Engineer
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relief for the FE during extended flight operations.
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Tactical Coordinator (TACCO)
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employ appropriate tactics and procedures to most effectively carry out the mission of the
aircraft and it's crew. responsible for ensuring safe and accurate navigation of the aircraft |
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Navigation Communication Officer (NAV/COMM)
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maintain an accurate record of present and past positions, and to transmit position reports
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Accoustic Operator
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detection, classification, and report contact data
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Electic warefare operator
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detect and analyze targets of operational signifigance
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Safety of Flight Radar operator (SOFRO)
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provides weather, terrain, and aircraft aviodance
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Ordnanceman
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loading and unloading of the three PSLTs, visual observer and systems checks
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Ordnance Qualified crewmember
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loading and unloading of the three PSLTs, visual observer and systems checks
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Assistant Ordnance Qualified crewmember
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assists primary Ordnance qualified crewmember witn inflight duties as required
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In-flight technician
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performs preflight checks, inflight repairs of all equipment and visual observer
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observer
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perform basic safety of flight duties
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radio operator/ p-3a/b only
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inflight is to maintain hf communications
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maximum number of ditching stations
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21 ditching stations
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state the purpose of engine loiter operations
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extend the amount of time the air craft can stay on-station. 1000 foot minimum altitude
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general arrangement of the p-3
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fuselage is pressurized, door on the portside of the fuselage, hatches are located over each wing int he sides of the fuselage, aft of the pilotside windshield panel, and in top of the flightstation. lavatory, galley, and other convenience facilities are located in the aft fuselage.
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define the following acronyms (102.1):
A. RADAR B. IFF |
A. RAdio Detection And Ranging
B. Identification Friend or Foe |
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C. ADF
D. TACAN E. IRDS F. MAD |
C. Automatic Direction Finder
D. TActical Air Navigation E. InfaRed Detector System F. Magnetic Anomaly Detector |
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G. ESM
H. ISAR |
G. Electric Support System
H. Inverse Synthetic Apeture Radar |
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Disscuss the importance of Air Static Dissposition System
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limits potential static buildup
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Purpose of the P-3 electrical power supply system
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provides the neccessary ac and dc power for aircraft requirements
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seven primary mission areas
1.asu 2.asw 3.c2w |
1. Anti-surface warfare
2. Anti-submarine warfare 3. command and control warfare |
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seven primary mission areas (continue)
4. ccc 5. int |
4. command, control and communication
5. intelligence |
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seven primary mission areas (continue)
6. miw 7. mob |
6. mine warfare
7. mobility |
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instrument training (basic purpose)
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profiency in flight instruments
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Dedicated field work (DFW)
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enhance piloting skills to maintain profiency
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Natops instrument evaluation
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NFOs take only a written exam. Pilots take a written and flight evaluation whirch evaluates their ability to fly an instrument approach
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Airways training
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profiency training in flights filed under IFR flight plans and conducted along ATC controlled flight routes
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crew training
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tactical crews, training as an entity over time achieved a higher degree of mission area effectiveness through crew coordination
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NATOPS evaluation flight
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evaluates the knowledge and profiency of a crewmember for a specific position in the aircraft.
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describe the purpose of the Magnetic Anomaly Detection compensation (MADCOMP)
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provide in-flight checks to validate the repair of previous MAD discrepancies and to determine the need for mad compensation.
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Conditions of flight:
CONDITION 1 |
Battle
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CONDITION 2
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Surveillance
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CONDITION 3
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Operational Checks
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CONDITION 4
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Aircraft inspection
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CONDITION 5
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take off/ landing
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search stores
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searching for and localizing a submarine target
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kill stores
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torpedoes, mines, bombs, rockets, and guided missles. attacking enemy submarines and ships
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A. AGM
B. ATM C. CATM |
A. air-launched, surface-attack, guided missle
B. Air-launched, training guided missle C.Captive Air-launched training missle (harpoon, maverick, and slam |
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A. MK 20
B. BDU-45 C. MK 80 series |
A. cluster bomb unit (CBU)
B. bomb for training C. depth bombs |
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What types of air-laid mines are utilized by the p-3
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1.MK-55
2.MK-60 3. MK 62,63,64 4. MK-25 5. MK-36 6. MK-65 |
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state the purpose of the following missles:
1. AGM-84 Harpoon 2. AGM-65 Maverick 3. AGM-84E slam |
1. all-weather anti ship
2. air to ground missle 3.standoff land attack missle |
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what two types of torpedos are utilized by the p-3 aircraft
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MK-46 and MK-50
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Three types of sonobouys
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1. special-measure ocean temp
2. passive-underwater microphones 3. active-ping and transmit that infor up to the aircraft |
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purpose of MK 84 signal underwater sound (SUS)
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signal underwater targets during ASW exercises
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three types of deployable countermeasures
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1. chaff
2. flares 3. electic jamming |
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what is a pyrotechnic device
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produces bright light or smoke for signaling
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what are the two types of marine location markers
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mk-25 (lasts for 13.5-18.5 mins
mk-58 (lasts for 40-60 mins |
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state the purpose of the following:
a. bombracks b. pylon c. LAU-117 missle launcher |
a. carry, arm, and release stores
b.suspend launchers or bombs . c. maverick rack |
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d. sonobuoy launch tubes ( SLTS
e. pressurized sonobuoy launch tubes (PSLTS) |
d. store and launch sonobuoys
e. loading and launching internal stores ( 3 tubes) |
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inter-deployment training cycle (IDTC)
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squadron should attain a personnel readiness of C2, as a minimum, 90 days prior to deployment.
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operational readiness evaluation (ORE)
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the purpose of ore is to evaluate the capability of a squadron to perform.. assigned operational missions
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tactical profiency course (tpc)
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enhance combat read aircrew performance. emphasizes crew coordination
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maintenance training improvement program (mtip)
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purpose is to recognize training defiencies and focus training efforts for maintence personnel
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aw training improvement program (awtip)
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aw training program. identify training defiences and focus training efforts
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aircrew coordination training
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decision making
assertiveness mission analysis communication leadership adaptability/flexibility situational awarness |
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weapon systems training (wst)
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couple mode allowing a cockpit crew to participate in the tactical exercise while engaged in simulated flight
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crewqual
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demostrating the ability
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crewcurr
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ensure profiency
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purpose of the squadron planning board for training (PBFT)
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coordinate planning among all departments. based on aircraft availiabilty and known operationall and training commitments
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levels of readiness
t-4 |
not combat ready
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level of readiness
t-3 |
not combat ready but can be send on detachments
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level of readiness
t-2 |
combat ready. ready for deployment
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level of readiness
t-1 |
fully trained in all war fighting cabailities
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discuss the corrosion prone aread of the p-3
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seamsof the 7075-t6 aluminum alloy,around the cadmium plated steel fasteners. unpainted surfaces, chipped or peeled, skin seams and areas where dirt and grime can collect.
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purpose of the aircraft automatic flight control system
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ease the pilot's workload
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state the type and model of the p-3c engine
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four t56-a-14 turboprop engines. 4600shp
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discuss the purpose of the constant speed propeller
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maintain a preselected rpm automatically
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discuss the p-3 aircraft fueling methods
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1. center point fueling -fueled at a rate of approximately 300 gpm
2.overwing gravity feed-center section and fuselage tank do not incorporate a gravity filler well |
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type of construction used by the p-3 aircraft
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primary construction of the wing consists of a box beam comrpising two main spars with upper and lower surfaces of intergrally stiffened skins. semimonocoque.
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type of landing gear utilized on the p-3
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retractable tricycle type gear
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purpose of the aircraft cabin pressurization and air conditioning
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crew enivironment control and electic equipment cooling . pressurization allows the crew to move about freely in the plane at altitudes above 10,000
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purpose of the aircraft oxygen systems
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approximately 3.5 hours at an altitude of 25000. seven portable bottles approximately 22 minutes of oxygen
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FUSELAGE:
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a. forward section-includes flight station
b. midbody section-midsection of the aircraft c. aft fuselage section- incluses tail cone |
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WINGS
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a. center section- integral part of the fuselage.
b. left wing outer panel- wingflaps, leading and trailing edges, wingtips, ailerons and engine nacelles c. right wing outer panel - wing flaps, leading and trailing edges, wingtips, ailerons and engine nacelles |
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TAIL
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a. horizontal stablizers- stability of the aircraft about the lateral axis
b. vertical stablizers-stability of the aircraft about its vertical axis |
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FLIGHT CONTROLS/SURFACES:
flaps |
fowler type
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ailerons
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operated by a lateral (side to side) movement of the control stick or a turning motion of the wheel on the yoke
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rudder
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used to move the aircraft about the vertical axis
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elevators
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cause the aircraft to climb, lowering causes the aircraft to dive of descend
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trim tab
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neutralize any unbalanced condition
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LANDING GEAR:
struts |
absorb the schock
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brakes
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four multiple-disc brake assemblies. one for each main gear wheel
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wheels
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aluminum or magnesium alloys
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HYDRALICS:
pumps |
three electrically driven , hydralic pumps. max 8 gpm
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reservoirs
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two hydralic systems with individual reservoirs. no. 1 max 5.6 gal. no. 2 full at 1 gallon
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booster assemblies
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normal feel of control forces
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actuators
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transforms hydraulic fluid into mechanic al forces
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forward radome
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conical-shaped fiberglass structure. houses the forward radar antenna, esm components, iff components and two sensors for the missile warning system
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aft radome
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fiberglass structure. housing for the aft radar antenna, the mad equipment and two sensors for the missile warning system
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bombay
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under the belly. transport of weapon and cargo
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CABIN PRESSURIZATION SYSTEM:
engine driven compressor (edc) |
engine #2 and #3.employed by normal mode of the airconditioning and pressurization system
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cabin exhaust fan
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air is drawn through the aircraft by the cabin exhaust fan
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outflow valve
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ducted overboard through the outflow valve
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AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM:
refrigeration turbine |
cooled by rapid expansion
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heat exchanger
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absorbs heat from the bleed air
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HIGH RATE OF DISCHARGE (HRD) BOTTLES;
engine |
two extinguishing agent container bottles located forward of the wall in inboard engine nacelles. nitrogen is used as the expelling agent
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auxilliary power unit
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automatically discharges
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