Exam 3 Fluids

Which of the following substances is not a component of normal feces?

A. BacteriaB. Blood C. Electrolytes D. Water

All of the following actions can result in watery or diarrheal stools except:

A. decreased intestinal motility.

B. inhibition of water reabsorption.

C. inadequate time allowed for water reabsorption.

D. an excessive volume of fluid presented for reabsorption.

Lactose intolerance caused by the lack of sufficient lactase primarily presents with

A. steatorrhea.

B. osmotic diarrhea.

C. secretory diarrhea.

D. intestinal hypermotility.

Which of the following tests assists most in the differentiation of secretory and osmotic diarrhea?

A. Fecal fat

B. Fecal carbohydrates

C. Fecal occult blood

D. Fecal osmolality

The inability to convert dietary foodstuffs into readily absorbable substances is called intestinalA. inadequacy.

B. hypermotility.

C. malabsorption

D. maldigestion.

Intestinal motility is stimulated by each of the fol- lowing except

A. castor oil.

B. dietary fiber.

C. intestinal distention.

D. sympathetic nerve activity.

Which of the following conditions is characterizedby the excretion of greasy, pale, foul-smelling feces?

A. Steatorrhea

B. Osmotic diarrhea

C. Secretory diarrhea

D. Intestinal hypermotility

The daily amount of fat excreted in the feces is normally less than

A. 0.7 g.

B. 7.0 g.

C.70g.

D. 700 g.

Which of the following tests is used to diagnose steatorrhea?

TRUE or FALSE

The amount of feces produced in 24 hours cor-relates poorly with food intake.

Fecal fat excretion that exceeds 7 g per day is called?

what a common feature of patients withmalabsorption syndromes?

Fecal characteristics

Fecal specimens may be tested for each of the following except:

A. fat.B. blood.C. bilirubin.D. carbohydrates.

What is the substance is responsible forthe characteristic color of normal feces?

Which of the following statements about fecal tests is true?

A. A fecal fat determination identifies the cause of steatorrhea.

B. A fecal leukocyte determination aids in differentiating the cause of diarrhea.

C. A fecal Clinitest identifies the enzyme deficiency that prevents sugar digestion.

D. A fecal blood screen aids in differentiating bacte- rial from parasitic infestations.

Which of the following types of fat readily stain withSudan III or Oil Red O stain?

1. Fatty acids

2. Cholesterol

3. Soaps (fatty acid salts)

4. Neutral fats (triglycerides)

A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

C. 4 is correct.

D. All are correct.

Which of the following types of fat require acidifica-tion and heat before they stain with Sudan III or OilRed O stain?

1. Fatty acids

2. Cholesterol

3. Soaps (fatty acid salts)

4. Neutral fats (triglycerides)

A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

C. 4 is correct.

D. All are correct.

With the two-slide qualitative fecal fat determina-tion, the first slide produces a normal amount ofstaining fat present, whereas the second slide, following acid addition and heat, produces an abnormallyincreased amount of fat. These results indicate

A. malabsorption.

B. maldigestion.

C. parasitic infestation.

D. disaccharidase deficiency.

Mass screening in adults for fecal occult blood isperformed primarily to detect?

Which of the following dietary substances can cause a false-negative guaiac-based fecal occult blood slidetest?

A. Fish

B. Red meat

C. Ascorbic acid

D. Fruits and vegetables

Which of the following conditions can result in theexcretion of small amounts of occult blood in thefeces?

1. Hemorrhoids

2. Bleeding gums

3. Peptic ulcers

4. Intake of iron supplements

A.1,2and 3 are correct.

B.1, and 3 are correct

C.4 is correct.

D. All are correct.

Which of the following are clinical manifestations of a disaccharidase deficiency?

1. A positive fecal Clinitest

2. Constipation and gas

3.Afecal pH of 5.0

4. A positive fecal occult blood test

A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

C. 4 is correct.

D. All are correct.

Which of the following tests can differentiate inad-equate carbohydrate metabolism from inadequatecarbohydrate absorption?

A. Fecal Clinitest

B. Xylose absorption test

C. Oral carbohydrate tolerance tests

D. Carbohydrate thin-layer chromatography

Which of the following statements regarding the testfor fetal hemoglobin in feces (the Apt test) is TRUE?

A. Any adult hemoglobin present should resist alkali treatment.

B. The Apt test is used to differentiate various hemoglobinopathies in the newborn.

C. Hemoglobin degraded to hematin usually pro- duces a positive test result.

D. A pink color following alkali treatment indicates the presence of fetal hemoglobin.

Define secretory diarrhea?

Ingestion of which of the following substances can cause a false-positive guaiac-based fecal occult blood test?

1. Fish

2. Bananas

3. Cauliflower

4. Vitamin

A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

C. 4 is correct.

D. All are correct.

What conditions could account for the occultblood results obtained?

If fecal fat is abnormal, perform xylose absorption test. If normal, patient has ____, if abnormal patient has _____

1. Which of the following structures contribute(s)secretions to semen?

1. Epididymis

2. Prostate gland

3. Seminal vesicles

4. Seminiferous tubules

A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

C. 4 is correct

D. All are correct.

What chemical test can be done to evaluate the functional integrity of the seminal vesicles and ejaculatory ducts?

The vitality (live-dead) test indicates 50% live sperm. The motility is 70%. What does this indicate?

A specimen is a questionable semen sample. What chemical test could be performed to help confirm that it is semen?

in the sperm vitality test using eosin-nigrosin stain. Alive sperm will appear ____, dead sperm will appear ______

Seminal fluid analysis is routinely performed to eval-uate which of the following?

A. Prostate cancer

B. Postvasectomy status

C. Penile implant status

D. Premature ejaculation

Sperm is acidic by nature? True or False

Semen specimens should be maintained at what range of temperatures?

a. 20-40 C

b. 30-50 C

c. 25-35 C

d. 15-30 C

Which of the following parameters directly relates to and provides a check of the sperm motility evaluation?

A. Agglutination evaluation

B. Concentration determination

C. Morphology assessment

D. Vitality assessment

What stain is used to detect sperm motility?

A. A. Eosin- nigrosin

B.Methylyne blue

C.Wright stai

D. b and c

Which of the following is not an area of sperm observed for morphologic defects?

a. head

b. midpiece

c. foot

d. tail

What in the seminal vesicle fluid causes semen to appear gray- opalescent in color?

a. Flavinb. Uric acidc. Acid phosphatased. Zinc

Sperm production is regulated by ___________ in the seminiferous tubules, whereas production and secretion of the male sex hormone, testosterone, is the responsibility of the _____________, which is/are located in the interstitium of the testes, between the seminiferous tubules.

A. follicular cells, adluminar cells

B. Sertoli cells, Leydig cells

C. semiferous cells, Leydig cells

D. Sertoli cells, prostate

Which of the following statements regarding sperm concentration is true?

A. Sperm concentration within a single individual is usually constant.

B. Sperm concentration depends solely on the period of abstinence.

C. In a normal ejaculate, sperm concentration ranges from 20 to 250 million per milliliter.

D. For fertility purposes, sperm concentration is more important than sperm motility.

Microscopically, immature spermatogenic cells areoften difficult to distinguish from

A. bacteria.

B. erythrocytes.

C. leukocytes.

D. epithelial cells.

Fructose in semen assists in the evaluation of whichof the following?

1. The secretory function of the seminal vesicles

2. The functional integrity of the epididymis

3. The functional integrity of the vas deferens

4. The secretory function of the prostate gland

A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

C. 4 is correct.

D. All are correct.

Which of the following substances can be used toevaluate the secretory function of the prostate gland?

A. CarnitineB. Fructose C. pH or D. Zinc

What is the traumatic tap appearance,

supernatant, presence of clots?

CSF glucose levels are ____ in bacterial meningitis

CSF normal range for WBC

CSF normal range for protein

CSF normal range for lactate

CSF normal range plasma glucose

csf glucose should be ____% of plasma glucose

In what way does the CSF lactate value assist indeciding on a diagnosis for a patient?

List 3 microorganisms that are frequently found in cases ofbacterial meningitis.

Between what 2 membranes is CSF located?

A. Dura mater and Arachnoid mater

B. Arachnoid mater and Pia mater

C. Dura mater and Arachnoid mater

D. both A and B

What the appropriate lab (from 1st, 2nd, to 3rd) in order of CSF tube # draw?

A. Chemistry, Hematology, Microbiology

B. Microbiology, Chemistry, Hematology

C. Chemistry, Microbiology, Hematology

D. Doesn't matter because its all equal fluid components

The presence of REACTIVE lymphocytes in CSF indicates what type of infection?

a. Bacterial b.Viral c. Fungal or d. Parasitic

It is often common and insignificant to see ependymal or choroid cells in a CSF sample from a patient that?

a. has septicemia

b. has low CSF pressure

c. is on antibiotic treatment

d. has a ventricular or cisternal shunt

2. All of the following proteins are normally present in the CSF except

A. albumin

B. fibrinogen

C. transthyretin

D. transferrin

An immunoglobulin G index greater than 0.70 indicates

A. intrathecal synthesis of immunoglobulin G

B. a compromised blood brain barrier

C. active demyelination of neutral proteins

D. increased transport of immunoglobulin G from plasma into the CSF

This layer of the vertebrae is penetrated to collect CSF?

A.Pia matter

B.Gray matter

C.Dura matter

D.Plexi matter

Choose the CSF glucose concentration that is outside normal range

A. 67 mg/dL

B. 110 mg/dL

C. 60 mg/dL

D. 55 mg/dL

Which protein in the CSF is used to monitor the integrity of the blood-brain barrier?

Which cell type predominates in CSF during a classic case of bacterial meningitis?

An unknown fluid can be positively identified as CSF by determining the


A. lactate concentration.

B. albumin concentration.

C. presence of oligoclonal banding on electro-phoresis.


D. presence of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin on electrophoresis.


Which of the following procedures frequently provides a rapid presumptive diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?


A. A blood culture

B. A CSF culture


C. A CSF Gram stain

D. Immunologic tests on CSF for microbial antigens


1. Patients that have experienced a hemorrhage will have _______ in their CSF.

a. Xanthochromia

b. clotting

c. siderophages

d. A and C

csf oligoclonal banding in nambla region indicates

multiple sclerosis patients exhibit ____ csf glucose, and ____ csf protein

To enhance the visualization of WBC nuclei in CSF ____ must be added to the hematocytometer, before WBCs can be counted.

a. glacial acetic acid

b. NaOH

c. 5% Hydrogen Peroxide

d. Periodic Acid

When performing a cell count of a CSF sample, what types of cells are considered to be a part of the normal count( in very small numbers (0-5))? a. Lymphocytes and Neutrophils

b. RBCs and Mast Cells

c. Monocytes and Lymphocytes

d. Lymphocytes and Eosinophils

True or False

Increased turbidity may be caused by pleocytosis or microorganisms.

How many leukocytes are normally present in the CSF obtained from an adult (cells/mL)?

A. 0-5

B. 0-10

C. 10-15

D. 20-30

Which of the following substances are not typically found in CSF?

a. Glucose b. Lactate c. Bacteria or d. Protein

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced primarily from

A. secretions by the choroid plexus.

B. diffusion from plasma into the central nervous system.

C. ultrafiltration of plasma in the ventricles of the brain.

D. excretions from ependymal cells lining the brain and spinal cord.

Which of the following statements regarding CSF istrue?

A. Cerebrospinal fluid is constantly produced.

B. Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed into the blood at the choroid plexus.

C. Cerebrospinal fluid is essentially composed of diluted plasma.

D. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the brain and spinal cord because of active and passive diffusion processes.

Which of the following is not an analytical concernwhen the processing and testing of CSF are delayed?

A. The viability of microorganisms

B. The lability of the immunoglobulins

C. The lysis of leukocytes and erythrocytes

D. Alterations in the chemical composition

All of the following can cause xanthochromia in CSF except

A. high concentrations of protein.

B. high concentrations of bilirubin.

C. increased numbers of leukocytes.

D. erythrocytes from a traumatic tap.

Which of the following proteins in the CSF is usedto monitor the integrity of the blood-brain barrier?

A. Albumin

B. Transthyretin

C. Transferrin

D. Immunoglobulin G

India ink preparations and microbial antigen tests on CSF can aid in the diagnosis of

A. bacterial meningitis.

B. fungal meningitis.

C. tuberculous meningitis.

D. viral meningitis.

Which of the following tasks is a function of synovial fluid?

1. Providing lubrication for a joint

2. Assisting in the structural support of a joint

3. Transporting nutrients to articular cartilage

4. Synthesizing hyaluronate and degradative enzymes

A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

C. 4 is correct.

D. All are correct.

what are the 4 categories for Joint disorder classification?

Which of the following statements is a characteristicof normal synovial fluid?

A. Synovial fluid is viscous.

B. Synovial fluid is slightly turbid.

C. Synovial fluid is dark yellow.

D. Synovial fluid forms small clots on standing.

Which of the following components is not normally present in synovial fluid?

A. Fibrinogen

B. Neutrophils

C. Protein

D. Uric acid

Which of the following substances will not increase the turbidity of synovial fluid?

A. FatB. CrystalsC. Hyaluronate or D. WBCs

A synovial fluid specimen is received in the laboratory 2 hours after collection. Which of the followingchanges to the fluid will most likely have taken place?

A. The specimen will have clotted.

B. The uric acid concentration will have decreased.

C. Crystals may have precipitated or dissolved.

D. The lactate concentration will have decreasedbecause of anaerobic glycolysis.

A synovial fluid specimen has a high cell count andrequires dilution to be counted. Which of the fol-lowing diluents should be used?

A. Normal saline

B. Dilute acetic acid (2%)

C. Dilute methanol (1%)

D. Phosphate buffer solution (0.050 mol/L)

Which of the following results from synovial fluidanalysis indicates a joint disease process?

A. A few synoviocytes present in the fluid

B. A WBC count lower than 200 cells/mL

C. An RBC count lower than 2000 cells/mL

D. A differential count showing greater than 25% neutrophils

Which of the following synovial fluid group should result is a positive culture?

A. Inflammatory

B. Septic

C. Hemorrhagic

D. A and C

True or False

Thoracentesis is the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four principal Join Disorder classifications?

a. Inflammatory

b. Septic

c. Bacteremic

d. Hemorrhagic

What is the typical volume of synovial fluid?

a. 0.01-3.50mL

b. 0.5-5.0mL

c. 0.1-3.5mL

d. 0.1-5.0mL

Which of the following tasks is a function of synovial fluid?

1. Providing lubrication for a joint

2. Assisting in the structural support of a joint

3. Transporting nutrients to articular cartilage

4. Synthesizing hyaluronate and degradative enzymes

A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

C. 4 is correct.

D. All are correct.

Assuming that a patient is fasting, which of the following analytes is normally present in the synovial fluid in essentially the same concentration as in the blood plasma?

1. Glucose

2. Lactate

3. Uric acid

4. Protein

A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

C. 4 is correct.

D. All are correct.

What type of WBC predominates most exudates of pleural and peritoneal fluid?

a. Lymphocytes

b. Monocytes

c. Neutrophils

d. Eosinophils

The pathologic accumulation of fluid in a body cavity is called

A. An abscess

B. An effusion

C. Pleocytosis

D. Paracentesis

The microscopic examination of synovial fluid for crystals can be difficult because

1. numerous artifacts are also birefringent.

2. few crystals may be present.

3. free-floating crystals can become enmeshed or hidden in fibrin.

4. different crystals can closely resemble each other morphologically.

A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

C. 4 is correct.

D. All are correct.

Analysis of a synovial fluid specimen reveals the following:

• Cloudy, yellow-green fluid of low viscosity

• Total leukocyte count of 98,000 cells/μL

• Plasma–synovial fluid glucose difference of 47 mg/dL

this specimen most likely would be classified as

A. noninflammatory.

B. inflammatory.

C. septic.

D. hemorrhagic.

Which of the following conditions cause effusions that are classified as transudate?

1. Congestive heart failure

2. Trauma or surgery

3. Hepatic cirrhosis

4. Infections

A. 1 and 3 are correct

B. 4 is correct.

C. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

D. All are correct.

An analysis of a synovial fluid specimen reveals the following:

-Yellow fluid of high viscosity

-Total leukocyte count of 300 cells/μL

-Plasma–synovial fluid glucose difference of 17 mg/dL: this specimen would most likely be classified as?

A. noninflammatory.

B. inflammatory.

C. septic.

D. hemorrhagic.

What is the most likely identity of the crystalsobserved in the synovial fluid?

What the difference between, Mesothelial & Malignant cells in pleural fluid ?

Based on the protein data, is the pleural fluid a transudateor an exudate?

Which of the following statements about serousfluid–filled body cavities is true?

1. A parietal membrane is attached firmly to thebody cavity wall.

2.Serous fluid acts as a lubricant betweenopposing membranes.

3. A serous membrane is composed of a singlelayer of flat mesothelial cells.

4. The visceral and parietal membranes ofan organ are actually a single continuousmembrane.

A.1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B.1 and 3 are correct.

C.4 is correct.

D.All are correct.

Which of the following conditions enhances the formation of serous fluid in a body cavity?

A. Increased lymphatic absorption

B. Increased capillary permeability

C. Increased plasma oncotic pressure

D. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure

Paracentesis and serous fluid testing are performed to

1. remove serous fluids that may be compress- ing a vital organ.

2. determine the pathologic cause of an effusion.3. identify an effusion as a transudate or an exudate.

4. prevent volume depletion caused by the accu- mulation of fluid in body cavities.

A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

C. 4 is correct.

D. All are correct.

Which of the following parameters best identifies a fluid as a transudate or an exudate?

A. Color and clarity

B. Leukocyte and differential counts

C. Total protein and specific gravity measurements

D. Total protein ratio and lactate dehydrogenase ratio

Chylous and pseudochylous effusions are differentiated by their

A. physical examinations.

B. cholesterol concentrations.

C. triglyceride concentrations.

D. leukocyte and differential counts.

Which of the following conditions is most oftenassociated with the formation of a transudate?

A. Pancreatitis

B. Surgical procedures

C. Congestive heart failure

D. Metastatic neoplasm

A pleural or peritoneal fluid amylase level two timeshigher than the serum amylase level can be found ineffusions resulting from

A. pancreatitis.

B. hepatic cirrhosis.

C. rheumatoid arthritis.

D. lymphatic obstruction.

A glucose concentration difference greater than30 mg/dL between the serum and an effusion isassociated with

A. pancreatitis.

B. hepatic cirrhosis.

C. rheumatoid arthritis.

D. lymphatic obstruction.

in terms of color, what is suspected if an exudate is yellow-white, red-brown, yellow-brown, or milky-green?

in terms of turbitidy, transudates are ____, while exudates are _____

transudates have a specific gravity ____ than 1.015, while exudates have a specific gravity ____ than 1.015

If the lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio (L/S) is ____ than 2.0, fetal lungs are mature

Lamellar body counts can be used to determine

A lamellar body count less than ____/mcL denotes immature fetal lungs

Lamellar bodies are secreted into alveolar lumen after ____ weeks of gestation

How do you differentiate between urine and amniotic fluid?

All are considered normal in a vaginal specimen EXCEPT:

A. Clue cells

B. Lactobacilli

C. Epithial cells

D. Few WBC

What important amniotic fluid component does not show up until 35 weeks of gestation?

a. Phosphatidyl Glycerol

b. Bilirubin

c. Lecithin

d. Meconium

What group of bacteria makes up 50% to 90% of the bacterial flora of the healthy vagina?

a. Gardnerella spp.

b. Lactobacilli spp.

c. Bacteroides spp.

d. Corynebacterium spp.

Which of the following substances is responsible for the foul, fishy odor obtained when the “whiff” test is performed on vaginal secretions?

A. Lactic acid

B. Polyamine

C. Trimethylamine

D. Hydrogen peroxide

Which of the following conditions can cause erythroblastosis fetalis?

A. Immaturity of the fetal liver

B. Decreased amounts of amniotic fluid

C. Inadequate fetal pulmonary surfactants

D. Maternal immunization by fetal antigens

1 Which of the following substances, when present in amniotic fluid, is affected adversely by refrigeration?

a) bilirubin

b) fetal cells

c) protein

d) phospholipids

Analysis for which of the following substances can aid in the differentiation of amniotic fluid from urine?

1) Urea

2) Glucose

3) Creatinine

4) Protein

A. 1,2, and 3 are correct

B. 1 and 3 are correct

C. 4 is correct

D. All are correct

Lectin/sphingomyelin ratio (L/S) ratio

Foam Stability Index (FSI) – “shake test”

When does the L/S ration being to increase?

a. 34-36 weeks

b. 30-32 weeks

c. 36-40 weeks

d. 32-40 weeks

What is the healthy range for vaginal secretions?

a. 3.0-4.5

b. 5.0-7.0

c. 5.0-6.0

d. 3.8-4.5

Which of the following are pulmonary surfactants?

1. Lecithin

2. Sphinogmeyelin

3. Albumin

4. Phosphatidylglycerol

A. 2, and 3 are correct.

B. 1 and 2 are correct.

C. 4 is correct. or D, All are correct.

When semi-automated urine chemistry analyzers are used, the color that develops on the reaction pads is measured by

A. spectrophotometry.

B. reflectance photometry.

C. fluorescence photometry.

D. comparing reaction pads with a color chart.

Which of the following elements is consideredabnormal when present in vaginal secretions?

A. Bacteria

B. Pseudohyphae

C. Yeast

D. White blood cells

Which of the following vaginal secretion results cor- relate with health?

A. pH 3.9; white blood cells, 3+

B. pH 4.2; white blood cells, 1+

C. pH 4.8; white blood cells, rare

D. pH 5.5; white blood cells, 2+

Which of the following tests is most helpful in dif-ferentiating red blood cells from yeast in vaginal secretions?

A. pH

B. Amine test

C. Wet mount examination

D. KOH preparation and examination

Select the condition that correlates best with thefollowing vaginal secretion results: pH: 5.9Amine test: positive KOH examination: negativeWet mount examination: bacteria: mixed bacterial floraWBC: 4+

A. Normal, indicating a healthy vagina

B. Bacterial vaginosis

C. Candidiasis

D. Trichomoniasis

Select the condition that correlates best with thefollowing vaginal secretion results: pH: 4.6Amine test: negativeKOH examination: negative Wet mount examination: bacteria: large rodspredominate WBC: 1+

A. Normal, indicating a healthy vagina

B. Bacterial vaginosis

C. Candidiasis

D. Trichomoniasis

What is the purpose of the color compensation padon reagent strips?

A. To compensate for the effect of specific gravity on urine color

B. To calibrate the instrument for color assessment of reaction pads

C. To account for the contribution of urine color to the colors on the reaction pads

D. To detect substances (e.g., phenazopyridine) that mask color development on the reaction pads

Which of the following statements is NOT an issue for the instruments used to perform body fluidanalysis?

A. Unable to perform five-part WBC differentials B.Have difficulty detecting and enumerating RBCs

C. Unable to detect and specifically identify malignant cells

D. Unable to perform accurate and precise counting of low WBC numbers (<20 cells/μL).

In the pretreatment of a synovial fluid with hyal-uronidase, a 1:10 dilution is made, after which aWBC count is performed using a 1:20 dilution ofthis fluid. The WBCs in the four large corner squares(“W”) and the center square are counted in eachchamber (i.e., 5 mm2). Both sides of the hemacytom-eter were evaluated with 37 cells and 43 cells countedin chamber 1 and chamber 2, respectively. What isthe average cell count that should be reported?

Distortions observed on cytocentrifuge slide prepa-rations have been associated with

A. viscous fluids.

B. high cell counts.

C.use of fresh body fluid specimens.

D. fluids that have a high protein concentration.

An air displacement pipette cannot accurately dispense

A. CSF.

B. pleural fluid.

C. peritoneal fluid.

D. synovial fluid.

Which of the following diluents should be usedwhen an RBC count is requested?

A. Dilute acetic acid

B. Hypotonic saline

C. Isotonic saline

D. Turk’s solution

Which of the following diluents will cause synovial fluid to form a mucin clot?

A. Hyaluronidase buffer solution

B. Hypotonic saline

C. Isotonic saline

D. Turk’s solution

Which of the following statements is NOT associated with the performance of cell counts using amanual hemacytometer?

A. Procedure is time-consuming.

B. Quantitative pipetting is required.

C. Body fluids with low cell counts cannot be analyzed.

D. High variability in results is obtained between laboratorians.