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93 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Which of the following would be considered a speculative risk?

• Which of the following would be considered a speculative risk?

An insurance contract is an aleatory contract. This means:

• Equal value is not given by both parties to the contract

Each of the following would be an element in the definition of fraud, except:

• An individual warrants a fact stated on the application

In order to be valid, a contract must be between individuals considered legally able to enter into an agreement. This principle is known as:

• Competent parties

All of the following are elements of a contract.

• Legal purpose, Consideration, and Offer and acceptance

A producer who is acting as an agent is representing:

• Always the insurer

Which is the proper term for a company owned by its policyowners?

• A mutual insurance company

A company that is licensed to sell insurance in a particular state is:

• An authorized company

To make insurance more affordable and protect the insurance company from paying out too much in claims, insurers will:

• Reinsure the risk

All of the following are producer responsibilities to the applicant.

• Reviewing and evaluating the applicant's current insurance coverage, limits, and risks, Seeking and gaining knowledge of the applicant's insurance needs, and Forwarding premium on to the insurer on a timely basis

The field underwriter is the _________ and is not a determiner of insurability.

• Producer

Which of the following best describes a Conditional Contract?

• A contract in which both parties must perform specified duties in order for the contract to remain enforceable

. When the owner of the policy and insurer must meet certain conditions in order for the health insurance policy to be enforceable, it is referred to as a(n):

• Conditional contract

Legally speaking, a producer has a __________ duty when handling life insurance premiums and applications for an insurer.

• Fiduciary

A document that provides information to the home office of an insurer for underwriting purposes is called a(n):

• Application

The most effective way to ensure that the applicant will accept the policy when it is issued is:

• To have the applicant pay the initial premium at the time of application

Which statement best describes the term reserve?

• That amount that, when increased by future premiums on outstanding policies, and interest on those premiums will enable the company to meet future death claims

With regard to life insurance policies, loading refers to:

• Assignment of the appropriate share of the company's operating expenses to each policy

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of life insurance as property?

• It requires a fund portfolio manager

Insurers generally calculate premiums on:

• An annual basic

Should an insured become totally and permanently disabled two months before the cut-off date for the waiver of premium rider:

• The insured remains eligible for all provisions

A variable life policy:

• Death benefit varies to reflect the investment results of the underlying separate account, but never falls below a guaranteed minimum

In a universal life policy, the two adjustments usually made to the cash value account are:

• Cost of insurance protection is charged and current interest is credited

Which of the following provides the basis for the benefit amount paid to an insured under a disability income rider?

• The face amount of the policy

Any extra premium charged for the waiver of premium rider:

• Does not apply to the policy's cash value

A whole life policy:

• Requires the insured to pay premiums for life and endows at age 100

An indeterminate premium policy offers:

• A low initial premium with succeeding premiums based on the company's investment return, mortality and expenses

The waiver of premium rider normally expires at age:

60



The main purpose of the spendthrift clause contained in a settlement option is to prevent the beneficiary from doing all of the following, except:

• Purchasing a new car once the claim has been settled and proceeds have been paid out according to the beneficiary designations

The factors that determine the amount of each payment under the fixed period settlement option are:

• Length of the fixed period, face amount of the policy and interest

Each of the following is a source of life insurance policy dividends

• Guaranteed cash value accumulations, Reductions in operating expenses, Additional interest earnings

What is a postmortem dividend?

• A dividend earned, but not yet paid, in the year of the insured's death and paid with the death claim

The nonforfeiture option that provides the most life insurance protection is the:

• Extended term option

The money paid by the insured to the insurance company for insurance protection is called the:

• Consideration

The type of annuity that guarantees to pay total income at least equal to the purchase price of the contract is a:

• Refund life annuity

'Annuity Period' refers to which of the following?

• The time during which payments are made to the annuitant

Which of the following annuities requires the producer to hold a securities registration (license) in order to sell it?

• Variable

Which of the following Annuities can it be said that it has 'upside potential, but no downside risk' when it comes to the stock market overall?

• Indexed

In group insurance, the evidence of a contract between the insurer and the employer or association is:

• The policy

A Taft-Hartley Trust is established by one or more:

• Labor unions or associations

George, who has a group policy, may upon leaving his place of employment:

• Convert it to permanent insurance without proof of insurability, within a specified period

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the tax treatment of Social Security?

• Employee paid payroll deductions for Social Security are tax deductible to the employee

The Lucrative Lozenge Company provides a $5,000 monthly income to retirees who served as senior executives. This benefit is not available to other retirees of the company. This is an example of a:

• Nonqualified plan

Incidental limitations refer to which of the following?

• The amount of life insurance that may be included in a qualified retirement plan

Which of the following would NOT be permitted as a Section 1035 policy exchange?

• An annuity contract exchanged for a life contract

A group deferred annuity or an individual deferred annuity would be most likely used:

• To fund a defined benefit plan

Distributions from a qualified retirement plan:

• Are received tax-free only if they result from previously taxed contributions

TSAs are tax-sheltered retirement programs for employees of all the following kinds of organizations, except:

• Corporations

A stay at home father wants to open up an IRA. What is required in order for him to do so?

• Be married to a spouse that has earned income

The tendency for poor risks to seek and be covered for insurance more than average risks is known as:

• Adverse selection

Health insurance is purchased to deal with all of the following risks, except:

• Third party liability claims

A producer gathers information about the applicant for the insurer in order to avoid adverse selection. This is considered to be:

• Field underwriting

If the insurer issues a policy after receiving an application for health insurance in which preexisting conditions were inadvertently omitted, what would be the consequence to the insured's coverage if a preexisting condition caused a claim shortly after being issued?

• Coverage would be as stipulated in the policy because the company issued the policy even though the question was left blank

Under what circumstances do major medical policies usually provide for restoration of benefits?

• Restoration usually occurs after a specified dollar amount of benefits has been exhausted and after the insured has proven insurability

Comprehensive dental plans usually provide:

• Routine dental care services without deductibles or coinsurance

Managed care plans include all the following, except:

• Indemnity Plans

HMOs that wish to exclude or limit coverage:


• May do so, but not as readily as commercial insurers

A dread disease policy covers:

• Only the disease or diseases specified on the policy, usually those that occur relatively infrequently

A certain major medical policy states a maximum number of days for which convalescent care will be paid as well as a maximum number of X-rays that will be paid for under any one claim. These are examples of:

• Inside limits

What term describes the concept that the insurer and the insured share in the cost of medical expenses, with the insurer bearing the greater share?

• Coinsurance

Dental policies that limit benefits to specified maximums per procedure, with first dollar coverage are:

• Scheduled

What type of disability income policies are most likely used to cover only nonoccupational disability as opposed to both occupational and nonoccupational?

What type of disability income policies are most likely used to cover only nonoccupational disability as opposed to both occupational and nonoccupational?

Social Security disability benefits become available to eligible workers after a waiting period of:

• 5 months

Which of the following is NOT one of the categories of benefits incorporated by State Workers' Compensation Laws?

• Long-term care coverage

To reduce its exposure to claims from a substandard disability risk, an insurer may take all of the following actions, except:

• Remove all of the exclusion riders

• Remove all of the exclusion riders

• Nonoccupational basis

Which rider would eliminate coverage for a preexisting condition?

• Impairment Rider

Primary support for Medicare Part A comes from:

• Social Security payroll taxes

The first year commission for the sale of a Medicare supplement policy may be no more than ________ of the commission paid for selling or servicing the policy in the second year.

• 200%

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Medigap policies?

• A Medigap policy provides the same coverage as a Medicare policy

All Medicare supplement (or Medigap) policies must:

• Have the same core benefits

A Medicare SELECT policy differs from a regular Medicare Supplement (Medigap) policy in that it:

• Is a managed care version of the traditional Medicare Supplement policy

The Medicare home health care benefit will provide for which of the following services?

Medical supplies

A Medicare supplement policy may not limit benefits for losses incurred more than ________ from the effective date of coverage because they involve a preexisting condition.

• 6 months

With _______, the patient must pay 20% of covered charges plus the deductible.

• Medicare Part B

Which of the following pertaining to most LTC policies is true?

• They are issued guaranteed renewable

All of the following statements about noncancellable policies are true, except:

• The insurer may choose not to renew the policy, but only on the policy renewal or anniversary date

Each of the following would be found in the insuring clause of an insurance policy, except:

• General information about the named insured

Required/Mandatory Provision 'Proof of Loss' indicates that except in the absence of the insured's legal capacity, if it was not reasonably possible for the insured to provide proof of loss as required in a policy, the latest time the proof of loss may be furnished is:

• 1 year from the time proof is otherwise required

Required Provision 'Reinstatement' addresses reinstatement of a lapsed policy. According to this provision, when an insured applies for reinstatement and receives a conditional receipt, how long does the insurer have to approve or deny reinstatement before the policy will be automatically reinstated?

• 45 days from the date of the conditional receipt

One of your clients just reinstated his health insurance plan. When is coverage effective for sickness and accident?

• 10 days for sickness, and immediately for accidental injuries

All of the following are Optional Uniform Provisions:

• Misstatement of Age, Illegal Occupation, and Change of Occupation

Which statement concerning individual A&H policy renewal provisions is most correct from the perspective of the insured?

• The more favorable the renewal provision to the insured, the higher the cost

Which provision states that the insurance company must pay claims immediately?

• Time of Payment of Claims

All states have adopted the Uniform Individual Accident and Sickness Policy Provision Law. If an insurer changes any of these provisions, they must make sure it does not:

• Alter the minimum requirements of any provision

Under the Legal Actions Mandatory Uniform Provision, an insured must wait at least _____ days after providing proof of loss before he or she can take legal action against the insurer.

• 60 days

The Coordination of Benefits Provision is designed to:


• Give insureds as much coverage as possible while eliminating overinsurance

The main benefit of 501(c)9 trusts is:

• Contributions to these trusts may be deducted immediately, instead of when benefits are distributed

Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning a coordination of benefits situation?

• Where children are involved, the primary group insurer is the insurer for the parent who is oldest by age at the time of claim

Which of the following would NOT be a likely consideration in determining premium rates for group health insurance?

• Whether the company produced a profit or a loss in the previous year

Which of the following policies would allow the business to deduct premiums paid?

• Business overhead expense insurance

On which of the following policies would any proceeds be taxable?

• Business overhead expense insurance

Which of the following might be eligible to participate in an MSA?

• Charles, who works for a small bakery with only 15 employees