Health Final

A healthy person has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

a. Being addicted to drugs and alcohol

b. Being free of illness

c. Being physically fit

d. Being mentally and emotionally stable

Life expectancy in the early 1900s was largely determined by a person's

a. Family history

b. Susceptibility to infectious disease

c. Occupation and location

d. Hygiene habits

Jane is sedentary and obese. What effect, if any, do these have on her dimensions of health?

a. They only affect her dimensions of health if she has health problems as a result of these

b. They affect all her dimensions of health

c. They only affect her physical health

d. They affect her ability to recover from illness

Eve is always upset about something. It seems she is never really happy. Her mental outlook is likely to adversely affect

a. They affect her health only if she has a family history of health problems related to obesity

b. They affect her physical health only

c. They affect her ability to recover from illnesses

d. They affect all her dimensions of health

Emotional health can best be described as

a. Feel and express emotions appropriately

b. Think clearly, without emotional influence

c. Adapt to various social situations

d. Maintain satisfying relationships

Spiritual health could best be described as

a. Holding to religious beliefs learned in childhood

b. Finding fulfilling relationships

c. Not as important as other factors to overall wellness

d. Having a sense of meaning and purpose in one's life

Healthy People 2020 is a plan designed to

a. Update FDA regulations on the manufacture and sale of drugs in the US

b. Extend health insurance coverage to millions more Americans

c. Increase payments to doctors who serve Medicaid and Medicare patients

d. Improve health-related quality of life and years of life of Americans

Health promotion

a. Focuses on curing illness and disease

b. Involves social justice aimed at health care for all Americans

c. Refers to informational campaigns about health

d. Includes policies, programs, and financial support for initiatives that promote health

The contemporary definition of wellness is

a. The absence of ongoing symptoms or chronic disease

b. Living longer than one's parents

c. The ability to move about freely without pain

d. All factors leading to positive health status or overall well-being

All of the following factors play a role in health disparities except

a. Geographic location

b. Economic status

c. Inadequate health insurance

d. Procrastination

Young adults (15-24) are most likely to die from

a. Homicide

b. Cancer

c. Unintentional accidents

d. Heart disease

The 6 dimensions of wellness

a. Seldom influence one another

b. Affect health independently of each other

c. Affect either the mind or the body

d. Interact continuously

Overall, the leading cause of death for Americans is

a. Unintentional accidents

b. Respiratory disease

c. Cancer

d. Heart disease

The science and profession involved in protecting and improving the health of individuals, families, and communities is

a. Immunology

b. Disease prevention

c. Health care

d. Public health

A good example of a healthful enabling factor is

a. Nagging your parents because they smoke

b. Having friends who hate to exercise

c. Living near a walking path when you want to begin a walking program

d. Encouraging your spouse to go to the fitness club with you

To successfully change a behavior, a person must recognize that change is a(n)

a. Isolated event

b. Process that occurs in stages

c. Chance to wipe out past mistakes

d. Stressful situation

Family health back ground and the behaviors of family members are examples of

a. Enabling factors

b. Predisposing factors

c. Reinforcing factors

d. Motivational factors

An adolescent smoker might think lung cancer only happened to old people. This is an example of which factor of the Health Belief Model?

a. Perceived seriousness

b. Cues to action

c. Demographic variables

d. Perceived susceptibility

The ability to think clearly, analyze information, and use one's mental capacity to meet life's challenges is known as

a. Social health

b. Intellectual health

c. Physical health

d. Emotional health

Brenda is going on a ski trip over Spring Break. She has 12 weeks to get in shape, as she envisions herself looking like a ski bunny model on slopes. Brenda got an elliptical trainer and started exercising on it for ten min. every day. Every week she will add 10 min to her daily routine until she can exercise for one hour non-stop. If that is too rigorous, she will only add five minutes each week. Brenda is using ________ to get in shape for a wonderful Spring Break.

a. Self-talk

b. Visualization

c. Modeling

d. Shaping

When applying the strategy of shaping to behavior change, one should

a. Expect this strategy to provide immediate success

b. Only reward oneself when reaching the main goal

c. Use small achievable steps

d. Set very demanding goals for oneself

Observing a friend's successful attempts to quit smoking in order to help yourself quit smoking is an example of

a. Conforming

b. Modeling

c. Shaping

d. Envy

Mrs. J. is trying to get her 3rd grade students to remember to get their homework signed by a parent every night. Students who remember every day for a month receive a gift card from a local bookstore. This is an example of

a. A manipulative reinforcer

b. A possessional reinforcer

c. An activity reinforcer

d. A consumable reinforcer

Lower health insurance rates for non-smokers is an example of a/an ____ type of reinforcer

a. Social

b. Activity

c. Manipulative

d. Possessional

Not allowing yourself to think about getting stage fright and only focusing on the words when preparing to do a speech would be an example of

a. Rational emotive therapy

b. Self-threats

c. Self-instruction

d. Blocking/thought stopping

People with an internal locus of control believe that events turn out as they do based on

a. Fate and luck

b. Previous disappointments

c. Their own actions

d. Environmental factors

The absence of disease or illness is the optimal description of health

a. True

b. False

The development of self-esteem is an important part of intellectual health

a. False

b. True

Spirituality can only be found through organized religion

a. False

b. True

The surgeon General's warning on cigarettes is an example of health promotion

a. True

b. False

A term used to encompass mental, emotional, social, and spiritual dimensions of health is

a. Psychological

b. Socioemotional

c. Holistic

d. Psychiatric

Which of the following is true of psychosocially healthy people?

a. They frequently experience guilt

b. They value human diversity

c. They are uncomfortable when put in new social situations

d. They avoid new experiences

A mentally healthy student who gets a bad grade on an exam would respond by

a. Getting angry at the professor

b. Becoming withdrawn and avoiding friends

c. Learning from the situation and improving study habits

d. Drinking for distraction and to relieve tension

Psychological health is a complex interaction of

a. Opinions and interpretations of past experiences

b. Thoughts of present and future events

c. Thoughts, feelings, and personal experiences

d. Personal experiences and thoughts of future events

Which of the following represents the primary difference between emotional health and mental health?

a. Mental health does not encompass our responses to stimuli

b.Emotional health deals specifically with thought processes rather than feelings

c. Emotional health deals with feelings rather than thought processes

d. Mental health does not assume responsibility for our actions

Keisha puts herself down all the time. She approaches any challenge with a negative attitude and doubts her ability to succeed. Keisha is displaying

a. A dysfunctional response

b. Low self-esteem

c. Poor self-control

d. Clinical depression

Jose's belief that he can successfully pass his biology midterm is an example of

a. Self-reliance

b. Self-esteem

c. Self-efficacy

d. Self-satisfaction

A psychologically healthy person is

a. Loud and outspoken

b. Introverted

c. Resilient

d. Athletic

A person's sense of self respect of self worth is referred to as

a. Conscientiousness

b. Assertiveness

c. Introversion

d. Self-esteem

Psychologically healthy people

a. Never think a negative thought

b. Make time for others but not themselves

c. Feel comfortable interacting with others

d. Engage in vengeful acts

Which of the following is true of Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

a. A self actualized person has met basic needs but has not fully reached his or her potential

b. Social needs are the most basic and essential needs

c. Esteem needs are more basic than survival needs

d. Failure to meet a lower-level need will interfere with fulfilling higher-level needs

Which of the following is true about laughter?

a. It has no effect on everyday experiences

b. It reduces levels of stress hormones

c. It increases anxiety in people under stress

d. It is characteristic of serious or studious people

Sharon has lost two jobs in the past year. She blames her coworkers whom she says didn't like her. She says that they were purposely trying to sabotage her and that she did absolutely nothing wrong. From her behavior, it is likely that Sharon has developed

a. Narcissism

b. Learned helplessness

c. Learned optimism

d. Low self-esteem

Melody has been experiencing severe mood swings, having a lot of manic energy for a period and then experiencing an extremely depressed state. Her symptoms are associated with

a. Generalized anxiety disorder

b. Seasonal affective disorder

c. Bipolar disorder

d. Dysthymic disorder

Which of the following is not a common sign of major depression (clinical depression)?

a. Loss of motivation

b. Memory lapses

c. Feeling highly energetic

d. Sleeping too much

Which of the following statements about schizophrenia is true?

a. Schizophrenia can be cured

b. Symptoms most commonly appear in early childhood

c. Schizophrenia is a biological disease of the brain

d. Schizophrenia is cause by an environmental factor

Mental illnesses characterized by ongoing worry and a sense of threat or agitation are

a. Compulsive disorders

b. Mood disorders

c. Stress-induced disorders

d. Anxiety disorders

Jake is being treated for depression. His counselor is a licensed medical doctor who provides talk therapy and has also prescribed medication for Jake's condition. Which type of mental health professional is Jake seeing?

a. Social worker

b. Psychologist

c. Licensed family therapist

d. Psychiatrist

Celia spends a good deal of her time worrying, is easily fatigued, and often has difficulty concentrating, which is affecting her grades. Her symptoms may characterize

a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

b. Generalized anxiety disorder

c. Panic disorder

d. Bipolar disorder

A treatment for depression that involves correcting pessimistic thought patterns is

a. Learned optimism

b. Antidepressant therapy

c. Cognitive therapy

d. Behavioral therapy

Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is associated with

a. Reduced exposure to sunlight

b. Lack of social interaction

c. Malfunction of the thyroid gland

d. Too much external stimuli

Which of the following is true with respect to attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD?

a. ADHD makes it more difficult to get along with others

b. ADHD doesn't affect highly intelligent people

c. ADHD can be controlled if the individual chooses to

d. ADHD is only diagnosed in children

Which item below do adults with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) often have difficulty with

a. Gaining weight

b. Early onset of cardiovascular disease

c. Concentrating and staying on task

d. Remembering their name

Warning signs of suicide include all of the following except

a. Giving away prized possessions

b. Expressions of self-hatred

c. A change in behavior

d. Planning an important future event

The mental health professional who can prescribe medication to treat mental disorder is a

a. Social worker

b. Clinical psychologist

c. Psychiatrist

d. School counselor

Which of the following situations would be likely to boost your self-esteem?

a. Expecting to get perfect grades every term

b. Doubting your ability to succeed

c. Keeping in contact with old friends and family members

d. Handling all of your own personal problems alone

Research on depression has found that women

a. Can become distracted and less focused on a depressed meed than men

b. Are prone to depression because of the multiple responsibilities in their lives

c. Have less difficulty obtaining restorative sleep than men

d. Experience depression less frequently than men

Which of the following is true about a major depressive disorders?

a. True depressive disorders are the same as feeling down after a bad experience

b. Symptoms include physical exhaustion and an inability to concentrate

c. Symptoms usually do not las for more than a month or two and can be easily managed

d. People can snap out of it if they choose

Which of the following is true about panic attacks?

a. Symptoms can include decreased respiration

b. They can lead to social isolation

c. They are not linked to heredity

d. They typically last for 5-10 minutes

College students are

a. More likely to commit suicide than the general population

b. Less at risk for suicide if they drink alcohol

c. More able to handle pressures that can lead to suicide than their younger peers

d. Only prone to suicide if their grades are declining

Which of the following is true about stress?

a. Stress does not affect a person's general health

b. Stress is a mental and physical response to real or perceived changes, challenges, or threats

c. It is possible to eliminate all stressors in our lives if we try hard enough

d. Stress is only produced by externally imposed factors and is always negative

A pop quiz in class is an example of

a. Eustress

b. A stressor

c. Chronic stress

d. A frustration

An example of an event likely to be associated with distress is

a. Completing an assignment

b. Getting the highest score on a difficult exam

c. The end of final exam week

d. Bouncing several checks

David woke up in the middle of the night because he smelled smoke. This most likely caused him to experience

a. The flight or fight response

b. The resistance response

c. The adaptation syndrome

d. Insomnia

Catrina just missed hitting a deer as she was driving along a dark, curving road. She felt her racing heart finally slow down after she pulled off the road and took a few deep breaths. This is an example of a(n)

a. Adaptive response

b. State of overload

c. Challenge

d. Fight or flight response

All of the following are likely to influence your response to stress except

a. Your friend's level of stress

b. Your personality

c. Your general health status

d. Your past experiences

The primary hormone responsible for physiological stress responses such as increase heart rate and breathing rates is

a. Epinephrine

b. Cortisol

c. Thyroxin

d. Insulin

The stress hormone cortisol has a major role during the stress response in

a. Increasing heart and respiratory rates

b. Mobilizing nutrients to meet energy needs

c. Relieving pain

d. Decreasing appetite and thirst

Emily is experiencing chronic stress in a dysfunctional relationship. Which of the following looks at the allostatic load Emily is carrying?

a. The ability of the immune system to respond to assaults

b. The magnitude of the body's response to a stressor

c. The increased magnitude of a stressor require to cause a response

d. The long term wear and tear of the stress response

Peter recently ended a relationship when he found out his partner was cheating on him. This probably caused

a. Distress

b. Eustress

c. Anger

d. Episodic stress

The ability of the immune system to respond to assaults is known as

a. Immunocompetence

b. Defense

c. Immunity

d. Adaptation

As Joe prepares to spar with a tae kwon do opponent, his heart rate and respiration rate increase. These are indicators that which branch of the nervous system has been activated?

a. Sympathetic

b. Parasympathetic

c. Central

d. Autonomic

Tyler wants to win the trumpet soloist competition this year. His practice time always ends up being the same time his friends are going out to party. Tyler always goes along for the party because he figures he can squeeze inva few minutes of practice somewhere in his schedule. It is competition week and tyler has come down with a terrible stomach bug. Tyler's illness may be related to

a.A consistent pattern of not eating healthy food

b. Behavior is consistent

c. Outward conflict

d. Overload

Of the following choices, the best example of conflict is

a. Experiencing illness due to stress

b. Worrying about a tough test

c. Wanting to go out with friends but needing to study

d. Too many responsibilities

Which of the following best describes a Type C personality?

a. Hosstile

b. Relaxed

c. Distressed

d. Stoic

Which of the following forms a stress management is also a type of Chinese martial art.

a. Yoga

b. Tae bo

c. Tai chi

d. tae kwon

The physiological state in which all body systems are in balance and functioning normally is

a. Homeostasis

b. Recovery

c. Adaptation

d. Eustress

Research on stress and body function have found that prolonged stress

a. Affects only a limited number of body systems

b. Increase adaptive energy stores

c. Increaces B cell function

d. Reduces the effectiveness of the immune system

To manage stress, the fist step is to

a. Control your emotional responses

b. Determine which stressors can be reduced or eliminated

c. Choose to ignore the stressors in your life

d. Identify and assess the stressors in your life

Which of the following statements regarding stress and hair loss is not true?

a. Stress induced hair loss is irreversible

b. Stress may cause hair to fall out as a result of destroyed hair follicles

c. Solutions include improving diet and sleep quality and better managing stress

d. Stress may cause hair to fall out in clumps

Cortisol contributes to weight gain by

a. Lowering metabolic rate and elevating glucose levels

b. Increasing testosterone productions

c. Stimulating cravings for healthy foods such as vegetables

d. Increasing thirst for sweet beverages

Downshifting refers to the process of

a. Deliberately completing tasks at a slower pace

b. Taking steps to simplify one's life

c. Allowing depression to take over as a result of stress

d. Using meditation to combat the stress response

The process of replacing negative thoughts with positive ones is referred to as

a. Affirmations

b. Stress inoculation

c. Meditation

d. Cognitive restructuring

Which of the following forms of stress management also improves flexibility?

a. Deep breathing

b. Progressive muscle relaxation

c. Biofeedback

d. Yoga

Meditation has been proven effective in managing stress. Which of the following is not true about meditation?

a. It usually takes some effort and patience to learn to meditate

b. There is only one meditation style that is considered effective

c. Meditation allows the body to relax while the mind is focused

d. Meditation involves some method of calming and focusing the mind

Chronic stress has a strong connection to all of the following medical conditions except

a. Heart disease

b. Tooth decay

c. Diabetes

d. Impaired immune function

Exercise reduces stress by

a. Increasing endorphines and reducing levels of stress hormones

b. Expanding aerobic capacity

c. Providing a therapeutic way to reduce or eliminate pain

d. Suppressing endocrine function

Eating healthy foods helps in managing stress because

a. Food is comforting and can distract one from problems

b. They nourish the body and provide stamina for stressful times

c. A calming effect is usually produced

d. They are easier on the digestive system

Jeff knows the midterm chemistry exam is going to be tough. He is trying to prepare for it by taking a practice test every night before he goes out with his buddies. Jeff is

a. Restructuring his thinking patterns

b. Increasing his level of stress before the test

c. Using the technique of stress inoculation

d. Using alcohol as a coping mechanism to relax

Which of the following statements best describes self-esteem?

a. Self-esteem is inherited and can rarely change

b. Self-esteem has to do with the ability to follow the lead of others

c. Self-esteem is established during childhood

d. Self-esteem has to do with one's confidence and self-satisfaction

Violence can be defined as

a. A premiditated crime against another person, usually involving a weapon

b. Injuries caused accidentally without intent to harm, such as a car accident

c. A repeated implied or verbal threat against another person

d. The intentional use of physical force or power against oneself or another person or group

Social and cultural factors that increase the likelihood of violence include all of the following except

a. Poverty

b. Political differences

c. Unemployment

d. Social support

Breakdowns in the criminal justice system contribute to violence because

a. Sentences in various jurisdictions range from lenient to excessive

b. There are too many prisons

c. Prisons are overcrowded and prisoners may be released early

d. Prisoners serve their full sentences and may complete training programs while incarcerated.

Which of the following is true about reactive aggression?

a. It is often related to substance abuse

b. It is defined as occasional or rare behavior

c. It is goal-directed, hostile self-assertion

d. It is often an emotional reaction to frustrating life experiences

Research examining the relationship between substance abuse and violence indicates

a.Users of illegal drugs commit robberies and assaults more frequently than nonusers

b. Substance abuse markedly decreases the risk of both homicide and suicide

c. Substance abuse sometimes has a reverse effect on criminals, elevating their moods and thereby preventing potential crime

d. Chronic drinkers are less likely than others to have histories of violent behavior

Which of the following is true regarding homicides?

a. Homicide rates are about the same among white and nonwhite ethnic groups

b. Homicides are the second leading cause of death for persons aged 15-24

c. Homicide rates increase each year in the United States

d. Homicide rates in the United States have only been tracked since the 1980's

Of the following, the least likely risk factor for gang involvement is

a. Having high academic achievement

b. Low socioeconomic status

c. Alienation from family and society

d. Low self-esteem

Which of the following would not be considered a hate crime?

a. Criminals using illegal drugs commit robberies and assaults more frequently than non-using criminals

b. Running a red light and hitting a pedestrian

c. Burning a church

d. Beating up a teenager because she is Hispanic

International terrorism occurs when

a. Students picket to protest global warning

b. Workers lobby for unionization

c. Terrorist activities transcend national boundaries

d. Groups or individuals direct hostile activities towards their own government

A woman often remains a victim of domestic violence because

a. She is not financially dependent on her partner

b. She believes the situation will not change over time

c. Her cultural or religious beliefs forbid divorce

d. She does not fear retaliation against her or her children

A tendency towards anger may be

a. A learned response that increases with age

b. A trait of emotionally mature people

c. Both physiological and related to family back ground

d. Simply a mood that will pass

Which of the following is true about the cycle of violence?

a. In the remorse/reconciliation phase, the batterer tried to teach his spouse a lesson by inflicting severe pain

b. This cycle explains why people stay in unhealthy or dangerous relationships

c. This cycle involves a tension-building phase during which of the worst battering occurs

d. Most women can break the cycle without outside intervention

A situation that would be a predictor of domestic violence is

a. Economic instability

b. Moving to an unfamiliar area

c. Marital dissatisfaction

d. Tobacco use

If a child is not provided with enough to eat and doesn't have proper clothes to wear, this is an example of

a. Neglect

b. Physical abuse

c. Family of discipline

d. Domestic violence

Which of the following is true about acquaintance rape?

a. It is a crime of opportunity, not necessarily a prearranged date

b. It usually doesn't involve drugs or alcohol

c. It never occurs as incidental contact at a party

d. It only occurs when the victim has known the perpetrator for a length of time

Which of the following is true about marital rape?

a. Women over the age of 25 are most at risk

b. It is usually an isolated occurance that happens once

c. It is not considered a crime

d. Many states may treat marital rape as a lesser crime

All of the following are common characteristics of child abusers except

a. They have experienced violence in their life

b. Their socioeconomic status is low

c. They are socially isolated

d. They have a healthy self-image

Your friend confides in you that her coworker is always making sexually explicit comments to her and telling lewd jokes about sex. You explain to her that this is

a. Sexual harassment

b. Sexual coercion

c. Sexual assault

d. Sexual invasion

Which of the following is true about stalking?

a. It is not common on college campuses

b. It can occur over the internet

c. It does not include threats

d. It typically occurs at random

Sexual penetration without the victim's consent constitutes

a. Rape

b. Sexual assault

c. Aggravated rape

d. Sexual harassment

Which of the following explains why an individual may engage in stalking behavior?

a. They are older and more experienced in life

b. They lack social skills

c. They are held accountable to authority figures for their actions

d. They have a limited amount of free time

A common ploy used by rapists to

a. Pose as a friend or employee

b. Pose as a person of authority such as a police officer

c. Engage in an initial e-mail exchange

d. Offer to purchase an expensive item for the victim

Successful community strategies for preventing violence include all of the following except

a. Promote tolerance and acceptance

b. Discouraging family planning programs

c. Helping community members develop self-esteem

d. Improving community-based support and treatment for victims

Children who have experienced sexual abuse are at increased risk for

a. Academic problems or failure

b. Anxiety disorders, depression, and suicide

c. Irrational fears

d. Enhanced self-esteem

James lost his job and was not able to make his rent. His frustration built up to the point that he initiated a physical fight with a friend. James is displaying

a. Reactive aggression

b. Primary aggression

c. Spontaneous rage

d. Negativity

The US Public Health Service defines violence as a chronic disease.

a. False

b. True

The media are to blame for the perpetuation of violence in our society.

a. True

b. False

Domestic violence is very prevalent in the United States.

a. False

b. True

Sexual harassment is carried out only by people who are in positions of power.

a. False

b. True

The most frequent abusers are a child's parents or family member.

a. True

b. False

The permanent cessation of menstrual periods is

a. Menarche

b. Fertility

c. Menstruation

d. Menopause

Emily and Rosa are close friends who are able to share their feelings freely, providing support and reassurance. This example demonstrates their

a. Ability to provide objective feedback

b. Codependence

c. Low self-esteem

d. Emotional availability

All of the following are true about intimate relationships except

a. They may share emotional intimacy without being sexual

b. They may be spiritually intimate

c. They can include sexual relationships

d. They lack emotional availability

Through our relationships with others, we fulfill our needs for

a. Independence, social integration, and self-actualization

b. Intimacy, social integration, and nurturance

c. Communication, nurturance, and achievement

d. Autonomy, intimacy, and connection

Which of the following is true about communication patterns between men and women?

a. Women tend to be more task oriented

b. Men are more likely to share their innermost thoughts

c. Men often believe that is is acceptable to show emotion

d. Women tend to be more expressive

Which of the following is true about self-disclosure?

a. It mostly involves story telling

b. It is a key element in unhealthy communication

c. It involves sharing feelings and information as a means of getting to know a person

d. It involves sharing secrets and gossip about friends and acquaintances

Julio wants to strengthen his relationship with LaVonne by sharing personal information with her. To get over his fear of disclosing his feelings, Julio can do all of the following except

a. Select a safe, comfortable place for the conversation

b. Blame his parents for his imperfections

c. Learn to accept his imperfections

d. Be open to discussing his sexual past

You are most likely to listen best when

a. You haven't slept for several days

b. You are distracted by a project that is due the next day

c. You believe the speaker is saying something you can relate to

d. You are relaxed and under the influence of drugs

Which factor would reduce the likelihood of your choosing a particular persona as a partner?

a. You live in close proximity to each other

b. You are physically attracted to each other

c. Your beliefs, attitudes, and values are significantly different

d. You have similar values, interests, and socioeconomic status

According to Robert Sternberg's Triangular Theory of Love, love involves

a. Intimacy, passion, and commitment

b. Friendship, reliability, and commitment

c. Intimacy and similar interests and social status

d. Passion and sexual desire

Attraction has been described by some social scientists as

a. A peaceful feeling due to the release of oxytocin

b. Emotional reactions triggered by past experiences

c. Feelings of elation and euphoria produced by neuro -chemicals

d. The degree of commitment in a relationship

According to researcher Helen Fisher, the feeling that the excitement and passion is gone from a relationship is due to

a. Familiarity and daily stresses

b. Developmental incompatibility

c. A decrease in PEA levels

d. A drop in level in adrenaline levels

Daniel has been involved in four sexually exclusive relationships over the past 6 years. This is an example of

a. Serial monogamy

b. Open relationships

c. Infidelity

d. Cohabitation

Jeff and Dana have been married for 2 years. Their relationship involves exclusive sexual involvement with each other. This demonstrates

a. A serial monogamy

b. A monogamous relationship

c. An open relationship

d. A formalize partnership

All of the following are true about cohabitation except

a. It is more common among people who are religious

b. After a number of years it can constitute a common-law marriage

c. It may become legally binding

d. It can offer love, companionship, and sex

Which of the following is true about being single in the United States?

a. The number of adults electing to remain single is decreasing

b. Singles are unable to achieve intimacy through interactions with loved ones

c. All singles view their life as being unfulfilled

d. The number of adults electing to remain single is increasing

Which of the following is true about intersexuality?

a. It may occur as often as 10 in 100 live births

b. The person is exclusively female with minor male attributes

c. The person is exclusively male with minor female attributes

d. The person does not exhibit exclusive male or female sexual anatomy

Which of the following best describes gender identity?

a. The manner in which we express masculinity or femininity on a daily basis

b. The practice of behaving in a masculine or feminine way

c. Interactions with others that teach us certain behaviors

d. Our personal sense of awareness of being masculine of feminine

Which of the following is true about androgyny?

a. A person has masculine traits but tries to be a female

b. Androgynous people follow traditional sexual roles

c. A person has feminine traits but tries to be a male

d. A person has a combination of both traditional masculine and feminine traits

Sexual orientation is based on which of the following factors?

a. Biological, psychological, and socioenvironmental

b. Biological, social, and religious

c. Psychological, familial, and environmental

d. Biological and socioenvironmental

All of the following are true about celibacy except

a. It can be an opportunity for personal growth

b. It can be lonely for some people

c. It can be a result of religious beliefs

d. It has nothing to do with personal growth

All of the following are considered variant sexual behaviors except

a. Voyeurism

b. Masturbation

c. Group sex

d. Autoerotic asphyxiation

The duct system atop the testes where sperm reach maturity is the

a. Vulva

b. Epididymis

c. Scrotum

d. Endometrium

Sexual dysfunction only affects men

a. False

b. True

Trying to understand the gender differences in communication patterns is a good first step to better communication between the sexes

a. False

b. True

Sexual identity begins at birth.

a. True

b. False

Sexual intimacy is the major reason for the existence of all relationships.

a. True

b. False

Testosterone is the hormone responsible for the development of male secondary sex characteristics

a. True

b. False

Serial monogamy means that partners can have sexual involvement outside their primary relationship.

a. True

b. False

The first sign of puberty in females is the beginning of breast development.

a. False

b. True

Fertility is a person's ability to

a. Reproduce

b. Have a normal delivery

c. Resist sexually transmitted infections

d. Produce viable sperm

The typical use failure rate for a contraception method takes into account which of the following?

a. Familiarity with the method

b. Human error

c. Perfect use

d. Daily use

Which of the following is not true about male condoms?

a. They are reliable against pregnancy when used consistently

b. They can be purchased with spermicide

c. They help prevent the spread of some sexually transmitted infections

d. They can be used with baby oil and body lotion as lubricants

Which of the following lubricants is safe to use with a condom?

a. Water-based lubricant

b. Petroleum jelly

c. Hand lotion

d. Baby oil

The first widely used form of birth control used by women was

a. The diaphragm

b. Spermicidal foams and jellies

c. The pill

d. The IUD

Diaphragms

a. Create a physical and chemical barrier to sperm

b. Can be purchased without a prescription

c. Must be removed within 2 hours following intercourse

d. Have a low effectiveness rate

A primary advantage of the contraceptive sponge is that

a. It protects well against all STIs

b. Protection lasts for up to 12 hours

c. It does not require a fitting from a doctor

d. Only one type of spermicide can be used with it

Oral contraceptive pills are

a. Effective protection against STIs

b. An effective barrier contraceptive method

c. Most commonly used by women who have had at least one child

d. Up to 99 percent effective at preventing pregnancy if used correctly

Many men are reluctant to have a vasectomy because

a. General anesthetic is used

b. Fear of decreased sexual performance

c. Long recovery period

d. Major surgery involved

An IUD

a. Always contains hormones

b. Causes a long delay in the return of fertility

c. Is unlikely to cause complications

d. Offers long-term protection from pregnancy

Which of the following is true about emergency contraceptive pills?

a. They are 95 percent effective if taken 2 to 5 days after unprotected intercourse

b. Most college health centers do not provide emergency contraception

c. They are 100% effective if taken 2 to 5 days after unprotected intercourse

d.Four brands are now available over the counter subject to certain age limits

Fertility awareness methods of birth control include all of the following except

a. Abstinence

b. The calendar method

c. The body temperature method

d. The cervical mucous method

A rise in woman's basal body temperature signals

a. The beginning of the menstrual cycle

b. The fertilization has occurred

c. The end of the current menstrual period

d. That ovulation has occurred

Preconception health involves all of the following except

a. Avoiding food containing folic acid

b. Avoiding x-rays and hazardous environmental chemicals

c. Stopping tobacco and alcohol use

d. Reducing or eliminating caffeine intake

Which of the following is true about teratogenic effects?

a. The fetus cannot develop an addiction to the drugs the mother is using

b. The fetus is most susceptible to birth defects during the last three months of pregnancy

c. These effects can be caused by environmental chemical exposure

d. A rubella infection in the mother is not associated with teratogenic effects

Jade is pregnant. During a regular medical check-up, her physician discusses alcohol consumption.The physician will likely advise that she

a. Limit her intake to two glasses per day

b. Abstain from alcohol during pregnancy

c. Have only an occasional glass of wine with dinner

d. Limit her intake to one glass per day

A false negative pregnancy test may result from

a. Taking the pregnancy test too early in the pregnancy

b. High sodium in the diet

c. A staph infection

d. A sexually transmitted disease

A birth defect that occurs more frequently in babies born to mothers over the age of 35 is

a. Blindness

b. Deafness

c. Spina bifida

d. Down's syndrome

A fetus is the term used to describe an embryo as of

a. 10 weeks of pregnancy

b. the third month of pregnancy

c. 6 weeks of pregnancy

d. The first month of pregnancy

Cesarean sections are performed for all of the following reasons except

a. If a baby is in physiological distress

b. It labor lasts too long

c. If the baby is about to exit the uterus any way but head first

d. If the baby is about to exit the uterus head first

Which of the following circumstances can cause a miscarriage?

a. Too much caffeine

b. Robust maternal health

c. Genetic normality

d. Maternal infections or hormone imbalance

The most common cause of female infertility is

a. Pelvic inflammatory disease

b. Polycystic ovary syndrome

c. Gonorrhea

d. Endometriosis

Fertility drugs

a. Reduce the risk of ovarian cysts

b. Guarantee a successful pregnancy

c. Can cause hypertension

d. Increase the chances of the multiple births

To reduce the risk of her child having spina-bifida, a pregnant woman should consume an adequate amount of which nutrient

a. Vitamin D

b. Biotin

c. Vitamin B12

d. Folic acid

The relatively ineffective method of birth control, known as coitus interruptus, in the

a. Outercourse method

b. Body temperature method

c. Calendar method

d. Withdrawal method

Diaphragms can typically be purchased over the counter wherever condoms are sold.

a. False

b. True

All spermicides are effective in preventing sexually transmitted infection.

a. False

b. True

Sterilization has become the leading method of contraception for women of all ages.

a. False

b. True

One advantage of the female condom is that it can be used multiple times.

a. False

b. True

Male infertility problems account for around 35 percent of infertility cases.

a. True

b. False

Using a drug for a purpose other than that which is intended is

a. Drug misuse

b. Drug abuse

c. Drug tolerance

d. Drug use

An aspirin taken to relieve minor muscle aches would be considered a

a. Recreational drug

b. Prescription medication

c. Herbal preparation

d. Over-the-counter drug

People with a physiological dependence on a substance, such as an addictive drug, will experience

a. Neither tolerance nor withdrawal

b. Tolerance but not withdrawal

c. Both tolerance and withdrawal

d. Withdrawal but not tolerance

James is no longer able to feel the same effects from his drug of choice with his regular dose; he needs to increase the amount of the drug to feel the desired effects. This demonstrates

a. Tolerance

b. Withdrawal

c. Intolerance

d. Adjustment

David spends four hours a day lifting weights and is at the point of obsession about his fitness routine to the extent that he will miss classes and outings with friends so he can go to the gym. He most likely suffers from which of the following disorders?

a. Exercise addiction

b. Anorexia nervosa

c. Bulimia

d. Bipolar disorder

All types of addiction

a. Have the potential to produce a positive mood change

b. Involve some type of substance abuse

c. Eventually lose their hold on a person over time

d.Do not necessarily have negative consequences

Jason doesn't see that his addiction to heroin is self-destructive. He is experiencing

a. Denial

b. Obsession

c. Compulsion

d. Displacement

Which of the following is true about gambling addiction?

a. Compulsive gamblers seek a high from the excitement rather than from money

b. Compulsive gamblers and drug addicts have entirely different cravings and highs

c. Gambling problems are greater among individuals with high socioeconomic status

d. Gambling problems do not become increasingly worse over time

Lisa is aware that her best friend, Kim, has a drinking problem. Lisa continually makes excuses for her and often completes Kim's homework to protect her from flunking out of school. Lisa's behavior is an example of

a. Intervening

b. Reinforcing

c. Enabling

d. Compulsion

Which of the following is true about over the counter drugs?

a. Some require a prescription

b. They can be abused

c. They cannot be abused

d. They are monitored under the care of a physician

Mikail is attempting to reduce his caffeine consumption. Which of the following drinks that he consumes daily has the highest amount of caffeine per serving?

a. Black tea

b. Regular cola

c. Gourmet coffee from a coffee shop

d. Energy drink

What is the most common reason offered by college students to explain their drug use?

a. To be more popular with peers

b. To reduce stress

c. To escape an abusive home life

d. To enhance self-esteem

If you have questions about drug interactions, you should talk to a

a. Fitness trainer

b. Psychologist

c. Pharmacist of physician

d. Naturopath

A large does of cocaine can cause

a. Increased heart rate and blood pressure

b. Irregular heart rate and low blood pressure

c. Increased appetite

d. Excessive fatigue

Amphetamines such a Ritalin or Adderall are commonly prescribed to treat

a. ADHD

b. Anxiety

c. Insomnia

d. Hypertension

Which of the following is not true of methamphetamine?

a. It can produce a high lasting over 8 hours when smoked

b. It is highly addictive from the very first use

c. It can be made with over the counter ingredients

d. It can be snorted or smoked, but not injected or orally ingested

Opioids are also called

a. Depressants

b. Narcotics

c. Stimulants

d. Hallucinogens

Marijuana today is

a. Less of a health risk than it used to be

b. Not subject to state or federal drug laws

c. Not able to be orally ingested

d. Much more potent than it was in the 60's

The most noticeable effect of the THC is marijuana is

a. Bloodshot eyes

b. Decreased thirst and appetite

c. Quick reactions

d. A slouched posture

Long-term effects of marijuana include all of the following except

a. Increased risk of lung cancer

b. Increased risk of developing serious mental health problems

c. Increased production of testosterone in males

d. Increased risk of testicular cancer in males

Marijuana use presents clear dangers to those driving motor vehicles (as well as others on the road) because it

a. Slows reaction time and impedes decision making

b. Alters the color and depth perception

c. Negatively affects night vision

d. May cause seizures

Morphine, codeine, and heroin are all

a. Opioids

b. Amphetamines

c. Available over the counter

d. Available by prescription

Which of the following is not true about the treatment for opioid addiction?

a. The most difficult time in the withdrawal process occurs 24-72 hours after the last use

b. The most difficult time in the withdrawal process occurs 3 to 7 days after the last use

c. Treatment can include taking a synthetic narcotic such as methadone to control the withdrawal symptoms

d. Symptoms of withdrawal can include sleep disturbances, and muscle tremors

Which of the following is true about psilocybin?

a. It is the active chemical in a type of grass

b. It is similar to marijuana in its physical effects

c. Its physical effects wear off in 1-2 hours

d. It can cause hallucinations

Ecstasy is a

a. Hallucinogen only

b. Depressant only

c. Stimulant and mild hallucinogen

d. Stimulant only

Which type of drug has the potential to alter a person's mood or behavior?

a. Psychoactive drug

b. Illicit drug

c. Over-the-counter drug

d. Recreational drug

Endorphins are hormones that act as the body's own opioids in their ability to reduce pain and produce feelings of well-being.

a. True

b. False

A synergistic drug interaction can be dangerous or even deadly.

a. True

b. False

Prescription drug abuse has increased dramatically among college students over the past 10 years.

a. False

b. True

Methadone maintenance does not have the same potential for addiction that heroin does.

a. True

b. False

What percentage of Americans abstain from drinking alcohol?

a. 75%

b. 25%

c. 10%

d. 50%

Which of the following statements about college drinking is true?

a. The majority of college students drink alcohol on a daily basis

b. Three-quarters of college students are classified as heavy episodic drinkers

c. Female college students' alcohol consumption is now close to that of male college students

d. Few students experience negative consequences as a result of alcohol consumption

Approximately what percentage of Americans consume alcoholic beverages regularly?

a. 10%

b. 25%

c. 50%

d. 75%

What is the percentage of alcohol in 100 proof whiskey?

a. 80%

b. 40%

c. 20%

d. 50%

Which of the following is not true about alcohol absorption?

a. Alcohol can be absorbed throughout the entire gastrointestinal system

b. Alcohol can be diffused from the stomach lining into the bloodstream

c. Carbonated alcoholic beverages are absorbed less rapidly than those containing no sparkling additives

d. Almost 80% of alcohol is absorbed in the small intestine

One standard drink equals

a. 12 oz of beer or 1. oz of 80 proof liquor

b. 6 oz of malt liquor or 8 oz of beer

c. 10 oz of wine or 1 oz of 80 proof liquor

d. 16 oz of beer or wine

The depressant effects of alcohol become apparent at a blood alcohol concentration of

a. 0.10%

b. 0.06%

c. 0.15%

d. 0.02%

After a night of heavy drinking, John still appears sober while his friends are obviously intoxicated. It is likely that John has developed

a. Learned behavioral tolerance

b. Alcohol poisoning tolerance

c. Non-alcoholic personality

d. Alcoholic acceptance

The toxic chemical by-product of alcohol metabolism that causes nausea and vomiting is called

a. Acetate

b. Transacetate

c. Alcohol dehydrogenase

d. Acetaldehyde

When women drink alcohol during pregnancy, they can cause significant brain damage and other impairments in the fetus; this condition is known as

a. Fetal alcohol syndrome

b.Alcoholic hepatitis

c. Teratogenic paralysis

d. Fetal cirrhosis

The reduction in alcohol-related driving fatalities since the 1980s is due to

a. An increased number of rehabilitation facilities

b. A decreased drinking age in many states

c. Less restrictive enforcement of laws in some states

d. 0 tolerance laws and increased drinking age

Which is true about women and alcoholism?

a. Women get addicted faster with less alcohol use than men

b. The number of women alcoholics exceeds that of men

c. Alcoholic death rates are lower for women than for men

d. Married women are at the highest risk for alcoholism among females

Jeff has been drinking a lot over the past few months, including frequent binges. His friends are concerned that this behavior puts him at risk for a condition that involves a potentially lethal blood alcohol concentration. Which condition is this?

a. Alcohol poisoning

b. Cirrhosis

c. Coronary artery disease

d. Alcoholic hepatitis

Most new smokers in the US are

a. Children and teenagers

b. Men in their 20s

c. College students

d. Blue-collar workers

Marketing of tobacco products currently targets all of the following except

a. Children through ads on TV

b. Men through ads implying masculinity and ruggedness

c. Women through ads implying social acceptance

d. Ethnic and minority groups through sponsorship or community events

Which of the following statements about nicotine is true?

a. It causes a drop in blood pressure

b. It is powerful central nervous system stimulant

c. It decreases production of adrenaline

d. It is mildly addictive

Which effect does carbon monoxide have on the body?

a. It irritates nasal passages and lung tissue

b. It diminishes the oxygen carrying capacity of the red blood cells

c. It impairs the cilia's cleansing function

d. It diminishes hormone production

Risk for developing lung cancer varies among smokers due to all of the following except

a. Frequency of smoking

b. Tolerance to nicotine

c. Age of onset of smoking

d. Amount of inhalation of cigarette smoke

The following is not true about smokeless tobacco

a. It does not contain cancer causing substances

b. Dental problems are common among smokeless tobacco users

c. It contains more nicotine than cigarettes

d. It is just as addictive as smoking

Which of the following is true about environmental tobacco smoke?

a. ETS has fewer carcinogens, tar, and nicotine than mainstream smoke

b. ETS accelerates the buildup of plaque in the heart and blood vessels

c. Adults are more heavily exposed to ETS than children

d. ETS is responsible for more lung cancer deaths than heart disease deaths annually

All of the following are smoking cessation medications except

a. Nicvax

b. Chantix

c. Zyban

d. Xenadrine

Which of the following occurs within 24 hours of quitting smoking?

a. Coughing deceases

b. Cilia regrow in the lungs

c. Circulation improves

d. Chance of heart attack decreases

Which of the following is true with respect to women and smoking?

a. Poor women are less likely to smoke than wealthy women

b. Smoking rates for women are approximately 25% less than the smoking rates for men

c. Smoking rates among women are similar across all races and ethnicities

d. Women who smoke are more likely to have fertility problems than women who do not smoke

Smoking contributes to heart disease by doing all of the following except

a. Increasing platelet adhesiveness

b. Accelerating the buildup of plaque

c. Weakening tissues

d. Thinning the plaque in the major blood vessels

The effects of alcohol are different for women and men because

a. Men are not affected by congeners

b. Women are not affected by congeners

c. Women have lower levels of body fat than men

d. Women have lower levels of alcohol dehydrogenase than men

College students think other students drink more than they actually do.

a. False

b. True

Alcohol and tobacco result in more deaths each year than al illicit drugs combined.

a. False

b. True

Smoking is second only to mold as the primary cause of indoor air pollution.

a. True

b. False

Smokers have 70% higher death rate from heart disease than nonsmokers.

a. True

b. False

Worrying about an upcoming test would increase the alcohol absorption rate in the body.

a. True

b. False

Which of the following best describes appetite?

a. It has the social meaning attached to food

b. It is not triggered by smells or taste

c. It is more psychological and physiological

d. It is the same as hunger

Which of the following is true about calories?

a. Calories are one of the basic nutrient groups

b. Caloric needs stay about the same during various life stages

c. Restricted-calorie diets are always safe

d. Calories are a unit of measure of the energy obtained from food

Which type of proteins contain all nine essential amino acids?

a. Complementary

b. Complete

c. Incomplete

d. Plant-source

What is the difference between a portion and a serving?

a. A serving is the recommended amount to be consumed, and a portion is the amount you choose to eat

b. A serving amount varies more than a portion

c. Serving sizes and portions are equal for adults

d. A serving is the amount you choose to eat, and a portion is the recommended amount to be consumed

Nutrients are

a. Best obtained from foods containing protein

b. Best absorbed when drinking a lot of water

c. Units of measure that indicate the amount of energy in a particular food

d. The compounds in food that the body requires to sustain proper functioning

Which of the following foods is the most nutrient-dense?

a. A bowl of ice cream

b. A glass of low-fat milk

c. A glass of whole milk

d. A stick of butter

Which of the following is not true about fiber?

a. It is the digestible portion of plant foods

b. It helps move foods through the digestive systems

c. It is the indigestible portion of plant foods

d. It adds bulk to the diet

Which of the following foods is an example of a complete protein?

a. Chicken breast

b. Tofu

c. Peanuts

d. Pinto beans

The complex carbohydrate form of a sugar that is stored in the liver and muscles is

a. Galactose

b. Glucagon

c. Glycogen

d. Glucose

Which type of fiber dissolves in water and can be digested by bacteria in the colon?

a. Composite

b. Complex

c. Soluble

d. Insoluble

All of the following are good sources of complex carbs except

a. Milk

b. Spinach

c. Oatmeal

d. Carrots

The ideal cholesterol ratio for an individual would include

a. High HDL and low LDL

b. Low HDL and high LDL

c. High HDL and high LDL

d. Low HDL and low LDL

When liquid oils are hydrogenated,

a. Trans fatty acids are produced

b. HDL's are produced

c. LDL's are produced

d. Amino acids are produced

Minerals that the body needs in very small amounts are

a. Organic minerals

b. Macrominerals

c. Trace minerals

d. Major minerals

The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is

a. Sodium deficiency

b. Potassium deficiency

c. Iron deficiency

d. Calcium deficiency

The chief function of this mineral in the body is to make teeth resistant to decay and bones resistant to mineral loss.

a. Calcium

b. Fluoride

c. Phosphorus

d. Magnesium

Which of the following could be included in a vegan diet?

a. Raw milk

b. Fish

c. Apples

d. Eggs

To ensure safety, leftovers that have been properly wrapped and refrigerated should be eaten within

a. 3 days

b. 2 days

c. 24 hours

d. 4 days

An increase in the spread of food-borne illness could be attributed to all of the following except

a. Insufficient education about food safety

b. The globalization of the food supply

c. The inadvertent introduction of pathogens into new geographic regions

d. Increased consumption of locally grown or raised food

According to the criteria set by the USDA, which of the following would be the most appropriate label for an apple grown without insecticides, chemical fertilizers, or hormones?

a. Some organic ingredients

b. 100% organic

c. Made with organic ingredients

d. Grown organically

The science that studies food and nourishment, including food composition and the physiological effects of food on the body is

a. Hunger

b. Appetite

c. Nutrition

d. Craving

What proportion of people avoid something in their diet because they think they're allergic to it?

a. About 10%

b. About 1/3

c. More than half

d. About half

Common food allergens include all of the following except

a. Milk

b. Peanuts

c. Green beans

d. Eggs

Individuals need more protein if they are pregnant, fighting off a serious infection, or recovering from surgery or burns.

a. True

b. False

Many processed foods contain high amounts of sugar.

a. True

b. False

Fats should make up less than 10% of daily calories.

a. False

b. True

Simple sugars provide short-term energy.

a. True

b. False

Eating yogurt is a scientifically proven method to benefit from probiotics' ability to optimize the bacterial environment in the intestines.

a. Ture

b. False

Antioxidants have been scientifically proven to slow the aging process.

a. False

b. True

Food allergy and food intolerance are the same thing.

a. True

b. False

What percentage of adult Americans are overweight or obese?

a. More than 60%

b. More than 20% but less than 30%

c. More than 30% but less than 40%

d. More than 50% but less than 60%

Obesity is a risk factor for

a. Heart disease, cancer, stroke, diabetes

b. Certain forms of cancer

c. Type 1 and 2 diabetes

d. Cardiovascular disease and cancer

When trying to determine her ideal, healthy weight, a woman should be less concerned about comparing herself to her friends and more concerned about

a. How her clothes fit

b. How often her weight fluctuates up and down and in what increments

c. The body structure of close family members

d. Her percentage of body fat and how her weight is distributed

Problems with the BMI measurement include that

a. It requires the use of special laboratory equipment

b. It takes too long to calculate

c. It cannot be used for children

d. It is an indirect estimate of body fat

John underwent a body composition test that involved being submerged to compare his underwater weight with land weight to determine the amount body fat. This method of assessment is known as a

a. Hydrostatic weighing

b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis

c. Skinfold measure

d. Bod Pod test

A good way to control portion sizes when you eat at home is to

a. Serve meals on smaller plates

b. Serve the food buffet style to reduce trips to the kitchen

c. Eat restaurant leftovers several times a week

d. Eat more frozen and convenience foods

The method of body composition measurement that sends a small current through the body to measure the resistance based on percentage of body water is

a. Soft tissue roentgenogram

b. bioelectrical impedance analysis

c. Dual-energy x-ray absorpiometry

d. Electrical conductivity test

The US population has become increasingly sedentary because

a. People are under more stress at work

b. Physical education is required in schools

c. People have less access to health clubs than in the past

d. People spend more time sitting at home and at work

The amount of energy the body uses at complete rest is known as

a. Caloric restriction

b. Basal metabolic rate

c. Metabolic balance

d. Resting metabolic rate

Data from the National Health Interview Survey show that 4 in 10 adults

a. Participate in athletic activities on a regular basis

b. Participate in vigorous physical exercise at least 3 times a week

c. Participate in daily physical activity

d. Never engage in any exercise, sports, or physically active hobbies

In addition to the US, which of the following nations or regions are also experiencing an obesity epidemic?

a. Mexico and the UK

b. Mexico and Central America

c. Japan and Korea

d. The UK and Scandinavia

Individuals who go on and off starvation diets multiple times to lose weight will likely end up with

a. A higher basal metabolic rate

b. A lower basal metabolic rate

c. An increased ability to lose weight each time

d. A decreased ability to lose weight without drugs

Which of the following people would be most likely to notice the effect of an age-related decline in metabolic rate?

a. 30 year old computer program

b. 25 year old student

c. 30 year old pregnant woman

d. 25 year old truck driver

The concept of adaptive thermogenesis attempts to explain

a. How metabolic rate slows down as we age

b. How thin people can consume large amounts of calories without gaining weight

c. How genetics influences childhood obesity

d. How obese people conserve calories which makes it harder to lose weight

Some scientists believe that the hypothalamus does all of the following except

a. Monitors the level of certain nutrients in the blood

b. Disrupts adaptive thermogenesis

c. Regulates appetite

d. Aids in adaptive thermogenesis

Which of the following is not true about weight management?

a. Low calorie diets increase the risk of disordered eating

b. Short-term diets are not as effective as long-term behavior modification

c. Long-term behavior modification is not as effective as short-term diets

d. Depression and stress can influence a person's ability to lose weight

A person's exercise metabolic rate (EMR) will increase if he or she

a. Performs light daily activities instead of structured exercise routines

b. Decreases the activity level from moderate to light

c. Increases the activity level from light to moderate

d. Decreases the time spent exercising

In planning a weight management program that has the best chance of success you must

a. Set realistic short and long term goals

b. Follow a formal plan such as Weight Watchers

c. Decide to eliminate all fat from the diet

d. Think of weight management as a temporary phase

The body adapts to prolonged fasting or carbohydrate deprivation by converting body fat to ketones to be used as fuel for brain cells, a process called

a. Stenosis

b. Hyperplasia

c. Ketosis

d. Ketogenesis

When fasting or eating a very-low-calorie diet for prolonged periods, the body will obtain fuel from its energy stores. One of the last reserves the body will use is

a. Protein in muscle and organ tissue

b. Fat stored in the liver

c. Glycogen stores in the brain

d. Subcutaneous fat

Problems associated with severe caloric restriction include all of the following except

a. Increased tolerance to cold

b. Blood sugar imbalance

c. Fatigue

d. Dehydration

The weight loss drugs Redux and Pondimin (also known asfen-phen) were recalled after FDA approval and widespread use because they were found to

a. Damage heart values

b. Produce drastic ketosis

c. Cause cancer

d. Damage the gastrointestinal tract

Currently there is no prescription weight loss drug available that can be used over time without increasing the chances of

a. Adverse effects

b. Excess fluid loss

c. Adverse effects and abuse

d. Relapse and weight gain

Over the counter weight loss supplements typically contain

a. Antidepressants

b. Diuretics

c. Minerals

d. Vitamins

Liposuction is used to

a. Decrease levels of leptin

b. Reroute the passage of food through the body

c. Spot reduce or contour body shape

d. Restrict the calories absorbed by the body

Some forms of cancer are associated with obesity.

a. False

b. True

Extremely low body fat can contribute to amenorrhea in females.

a. True

b. False

A mother's decision to bottle feed her baby, as opposed to breast feeding would increase the child's chances of becoming obese.

a. False

b. True

Basal metabolic rate is relatively stable throughout life.

a. True

b. False

2 males of equal size and leanness but different ages will bur the same amount of calories at rest.

a. False

b. True

Which of the following is NOT a major health-related component of physical fitness?

a. Body composition.

b. Body image

c. Muscular strength and endurance.

d.Cardiorespiratory fitness.

Walking to class or up a flight of stairs would be examples of

a. Physical fitness

b. Exercise

c. Endurance

d. Physical activity

Which statement best summarizes the association between exercise and improved immunity?

a. Moderate-intensity exercise temporarily increases the number of white blood cells, thereby boosting immunity.

b. Regular exercise does not have any correlation to a healthy immune system.

c. The most significant improvements in immunity are seen when a moderate exerciser begins a more intense exercise program.

d. Long-term, heavy exercisers get the most gain in immunity versus those who exercise only moderately.

Exercise can reduce the risk of heart disease by all of the following except

a. Improving blood flow

b. Increasing the number of capillaries

c. Increasing LDL levels

d. Increasing heart efficiency

All of the following are ways to measure the intensity of cardiovascular exercise EXCEPT

a. target heart rate.

b.rating of perceived exertion.

c. talk test.

d. blood gas analysis.

Tasha is 20 years old and wants to find her 60 percent target heart rate. This calculation would equal

a. 120 beats per minute

b. 60 beats per minute

c. 160 beats per minute

d. 200 beats per minute

Which of the following statements is true about tai chi?

a. Tai chi combines stretching and movement against resistance, which is aided by devices such as tension springs or heavy rubber bands.

b. Tai chi increases flexibility through the use of asanas(poses).

c. Tai chi originated in India about 5,000 years ago.

d.Tai chi is an ancient Chinese form of exercise widely practiced in the West that promotes balance, coordination and meditation.

The amount of force that a muscle is capable of exerting is referred to as

a. the overload principle.

b. aerobic capacity.

c. muscular endurance.

d. muscular strength.

The principle of fitness training that holds that the body should be gradually required to do more than it is used to doing is

a. specificity.

b. overload.

c. duration.

d. tension.

If you can perform regular moderate to vigorous levels of physical activity without excessive fatigue you are considered to be

a. agile.

b. flexible.

c. athletic

d. physically fit.

Exercise can improve mental health by

a. burning off chemical byproducts of the stress response and increasing endorphins.

b. increasing strength and aerobic capacity.

c. burning off the byproducts of metabolism and improving cognitive ability.

d. decreasing endorphin production after exercise.

All of the following are overuse injury EXCEPT

a. ligament sprain.

b. shin splints.

c. plantar fasciitis.

d. runner's knee.