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55 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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John Peabody is a 28% ordinary income taxpayer who has approached you to counsel him on the tax ramifications of a property sale he is considering in the current year. He has a business property in which his total gain (adjusting basis, depreciation, etc.) would be $185,500. He would like to sell it, as he has held the property for 13 months. But first he wants to know what the maximum federal income tax he would likely pay on this gain would be presuming he reinvests within two years. Your answer is:



A. $9,275


B. $27,825


C. $51,940


D. $0; He would pay no tax at all because of the exclusion for sales of property, as long as he reinvests within two years.

The correct answer is "B."



This is a business property. There is no reinvestment rule for sales without a specific code exemption such as Section 1033 (involuntary conversions). His gain from the sale would receive long term capital gains treatment and his tax obligation would be 15% of that gain after accounting for recovery of basic and any depreciation recapture ($185,500 x .15 = $27,825).

Alisha Syrmos, a CFP licensee and fee-only financial planner, has assisted Bob Martin, a self-employed physician in tax and investment planning during the year. Identify the schedule(s) on which Alisha's fee may be deductible by Bob on his federal income tax return.



I. Schedule A - itemized deductions.


II. Schedule C - profit or loss from business.


III. Schedule D - capital gains and losses.




A. I only.


B. II only.


C. I and II only.


D. I, II and III.

The correct answer is "C."



Tax planning fees may be deducted against a taxpayer's itemized deduction, Schedule A. In addition, because the taxpayer is self-employed, the portion of services related to the business and not personal may be taken as a deductible on the taxpayer's Schedule C.

Under the accrual method of accounting, the taxpayer (seller) recognizes income when:



A. The bill is received by the buyer.


B. The goods are accepted by the buyer.


C. The goods are loaded on the truck at the seller's facility.


D. The seller writes and sends the invoice after sending the goods.

The correct answer is "D."



The accrual accounting method recognizes income when the taxpayer has a right to collect. This occurs usually after the completion of a job and in no case later than when the invoice is prepared and sent.

If an individual who may otherwise qualify as a dependent does not spend funds that he or she has received (i.e., social security, wages), what is the IRS position regarding these unexpended amounts in terms of their application to the support test and their inclusion in being applied to the gross income test?



A. Income received but not spent is applicable to the gross income test but not the support test.


B. Income received but not spent is not applicable to the gross income test nor to the support test.


C. Income received but not spent is applicable to the gross income test and to the support test.


D. Income received but not spent is not applicable to the gross income test but is applicable to the support test.

The correct answer is "A."



Income received but not spent is applicable to the gross income test but not the support test.

The classifications of income are:



I. Active Income.


II. Earned Income.


III. Unearned Income.


IV. Portfolio Income.


V. Passive Income.




A. II, III, IV and V only.


B. I, II and III only.


C. I, IV and V only.


D. All of the above.

The correct answer is "C."



The classifications of income are active, passive and portfolio. Earned income is a subset of active income while unearned income may be either a passive or portfolio income.

Under the First in First Out (FIFO) inventory system:



A. The first good purchased is the first good sold.


B. The cost of goods sold is based on the costs of the first goods purchased.


C. FIFO reduces the probability of scrap or obsolescence.


D. All of the above.

The correct answer is "B."



The FIFO method is concerned with movement of costs through inventory, not goods. The cost of the first units purchased are the first costs to be transferred to cost of goods sold when the goods are sold.

Ima Clipper, a well-known artist, donated one of her original bronze creations to a local charity, which auctioned the piece for $3,000. Ima totaled her costs as follows:



Bronze = $425


Other materials = $150


Pro-rata overhead = $125


Furnace/casting fees = $200


Artistic contribution = $2,100




Assuming this is Ima's only charitable contribution and based on an annual income of $150,000, what is the maximum amount of charitable income tax deduction available to her?a




A. $3,000


B. $2,100


C. $775


D. $900

The correct answer is "C."



Only materials and expenses are deductible, not artistic contribution or time. No deduction is allowed for use of property; therefore, the pro-rata overhead would likely not be allowed.

Sources of "substantial authority" available for tax research include:



I. Internal Revenue Code.


II. Congressional Committee Reports (Blue Book).


III. Treasury Regulations.


IV. Private Letter Rulings.




A. I and II only.


B. I, II, and III only.


C. I, II, III and IV.


D. I, III and IV only.

The correct answer is "C."



Substantial authority is official words and rulings which can be relied on to support a tax opinion or position. All of these can be relied on by someone.

The adoption expense credit for 2015 is limited to:



A. $5,800


B. $10,000


C. $13,400


D. $20,000





The correct answer is "C."



The adoption expense credit limit for 2015 is $13,400.

Freda purchased a stereo system for her son Wes, age 16. The stereo was placed in Wes' room and is used exclusively by him. Freda also purchased a new sports car in her own name, that was used 90% of the time by Wes. Which of the cost of these items may be considered as support in determining whether Freda may claim Wes as a dependent?



A. Both the stereo and the car qualify as support because of the use test.


B. Neither the stereo nor the car qualify as support because the car is Freda's and the stereo is diminimus.


C. The stereo does not qualify for support but the car does because he uses it 90% of the time.


D. The stereo qualifies for support, but the car does not even though it is de minimus.

The correct answer is "D."



The stereo system purchased and GIVEN to Wes qualifies as support. Because the car was not GIVEN to Wes (although he is allowed to use it) it will not be considered support. However, maintenance costs, such as gas and insurance that the taxpayer provides for his use of the car will qualify as support.

hat is the major advantage of the cash method of accounting?

I. Income is counted at the time it is earned.


II. Income may be deferred.


III. Deductible expenses may be accelerated.


IV. Deductible expenses may be used as carry-backs.




A. I and II only.


B. II and III only.


C. I and IV only.


D. III and IV only.


E. None of the above.

The correct answer is "B."



Income may be deferred until cash is received and deductible expenses accelerated if paid.

During the current year, Susan Smith accepted and received a $10,000 award for outstanding scientific achievement. Susan was selected without any action on her part and no future services are expected of her as a condition of receiving the award. What amount if any will Susan have to include in her gross income in connection with the receipt of this award?



A. $0


B. $2,500


C. $5,000


D. $10,000

The correct answer is "D."



Prizes and awards are fully taxable when received.

Which of the following is deemed passive income?



A. Investment income.


B. Rental income.


C. Self-employment income.


D. Alimony.

The correct answer is "B."



Alimony is considered earned income as is self-employment income. Investment income is portfolio income. Rental income is deemed passive income subject to "active participant" rules.

How would the realization requirement influence an investor's decision to purchase stocks expected to appreciate in value but not paying dividends versus stocks paying dividends but not expected to appreciate in value?

I. Dividends are recognized income in the year they are received.


II. Appreciation in value is taxed in the year in which it occurs.


III. Stock dividends are not recognized until the stock is sold.


IV. Realization is an economic concept and recognition is a tax concept.




A. I and IV only.


B. II and III only.


C. I, III, and IV only.


D. I, II, and III only.

The correct answer is "C."



Dividends are recognized as income in the year the dividends were paid. The appreciation on the value of stock is not taxable until the stock is sold. A cash based taxpayer recognizes income when received either actually or constructively. Realization is an economic concept, recognition is a tax concept.

James received an academic scholarship to State University. He is a candidate for a degree. Under the scholarship agreement he received:

1) Tuition ($1,500)


2) Books ($400)


3) Room and board ($5,000)What is James' gross income, if any, from the scholarship?




a. None


b. $5,000


c. $5,400


d. $6,900

The correct answer is "B."



James' gross income is $5,000. Tuition and books are not included in income, but living expenses such as room and board are included in taxable income.

Your client is the sole shareholder of a closely-held corporation. In the current year, the IRS has deemed the operation to be a Personal Holding Company (PHC) because of involvement in a number of investments other than the stated business purpose. It has cited the business as having undistributed holding company income. What are the possible implications of this decision for your client?



A. A penalty of 35% can be imposed on the value of the assets of the PHC because of potential fraud.


B. A penalty tax of 15% can be imposed on the undistributed PHC income.


C. A penalty tax of 35% can be imposed on the undistributed PHC income.


D. Because the corporation is a PHC, there is no penalty tax, but the PHC will be required to pay tax at the 15% corporate level.

The correct answer is "B."



If the business is deemed to be a PHC by the IRS, then a penalty tax of 15% can be imposed on the undistributed personal holding company income.

Sara was the victim of sexual harassment and collected the following monies from her employer: $15,000 for lost wages and $50,000 in punitive damages. How much of the damage award must Sara include in her gross income?



A. None


B. $15,000


C. $50,000


D. $65,000

The correct answer is "D."



Sara must include all $65,000. Lost wages are nothing more than recovery of wages which would have been taxable. Punitive damages are always included as taxable income. Other than damages awarded for personal injury, other damages, including punitive damages and recovery of lost wages, are taxable.

What classifications of property are subject to cost recovery?

I. Personalty.


II. Personal use property.


III. Natural resources.


IV. Intangible property.


V. Real estate including land.




A. II and IV only.


B. I, III and IV only.


C. V only.


D. All of the above.

The correct answer is "B."



Personal use property is not subject to cost recovery since it is not used for income generating business purposes. Natural resources are subject to depletion and intangibles are subject to amortization. Personalty assets are used in business and are subject to depreciation. Real estate, as in permanent structures on land, are subject to cost recovery, but the land is not.

A client sold an apartment building last year for $100,000, paying a sales commission of $5,000 plus $2,500 closing costs. The building originally cost $80,000 20 years ago. Total straight line depreciation of $40,000 had been taken. The building had a mortgage of $60,000 which was assumed by the buyer. What is the purchaser's cost basis?



A. $70,000


B. $92,500


C. $100,000


D. $107,500


E. $160,000

The correct answer is "C."



The cost basis to a purchaser is the acquisition cost plus any other costs associated with purchasing the property or making it useful for service. The buyer paid $100,000. The question indicates that it was the seller and not the buyer who paid the sales commission and the closing costs. Therefore, the buyer's basis is only the acquisition costs of $100,000. Cash $40,000 plus mortgage $60,000.

Contributions to charity are limited to a certain percentage of income. How long is the carry-over period for individuals to use any excess current charitable deduction?



A. One year.


B. Five years.


C. Seven years.


D. Fifteen years.

The correct answer is "B."



There is a five-year carry-over provision for charitable deductions. The total years are 6: The initial year plus five carry-over years.

Albacore, Inc., an accrual method taxpayer, was incorporated on January 2 this year but did not begin business operations until July 1. Albacore adopted a calendar year tax year and incurred the following expenses during its first tax year:Incorporation fees paid to State: $150Expenses in connection with issuing and selling stock: $1,800Legal fees incident to incorporation: $1,650If Albacore, Inc. makes an appropriate and timely election, the maximum organizational expenditures that it can properly deduct for the current year would be:



A. None


B. $1,800


C. $3,450


D. $3,600

The correct answer is "B."



Expenses incurred in connection with issuing and selling stock are not deductible. The rule is the lesser of expenditures or $5,000. Therefore, $1,650 + 150 = $1,800.

Carl Borden is a contractor who has just purchased a tractor for use in his business. Carl paid $25,000 plus $1,250 in sales tax for the tractor. The local municipality also imposes an annual personal property tax of $500. The tractor has an expected useful life of 5 years. What is Carl's basis in the tractor for depreciation purposes?



A. $25,000


B. $25,500


C. $26,250


D. $26,750

The correct answer is "C."



The basis of depreciable property begins with the acquisition costs plus any additional expense necessary to acquire or making such property ready for use. Here, sales tax is a required expense by law and is therefore added to the acquisition cost resulting in the depreciable basis. $25,000 (cost) + $1,250 (sales tax) = $26,250.

David is a wealthy attorney in the highest marginal income tax bracket. He is interested in purchasing a franchise in a fast-growing food chain with some of his associates. After reviewing the proposal, you have determined that apart from a substantial up-front investment, the business will NOT need to retain income and any income generated in subsequent years will be paid out to the investors.David wants to be assured the business would NOT be disrupted if one of his associates lost interest or encountered personal financial reversals. What form of business structure would make the most sense?



A. A Limited Partnership.


B. A General Partnership.


C. A C Corporation.


D. A S Corporation.

The correct answer is "D."



Options "A" and "B" are incorrect in that they would dissolve in the event of a 50% turnover in ownership in a 12-month period. Option "C" is incorrect because a C corporation generally retains income. Option "D" is correct as an S corporation holds no retained earnings since all profits or losses are passed through to its owners.

Tony Scarponi has come to you asking about the basis of property that his brother Calvin gave to him. The property had a market value of $75,000 and Calvin’s adjusted basis in the property was $18,000 at the time of the gift. Calvin paid gift tax of $3,500 on the gift. Tony wants to know what his adjusted basis in the property is. Assume Calvin had utilized his annual gift tax exclusion for gifts previously given to Tony that year. What will you tell him?



A. Tony’s new basis is $18,000, the same as Calvin’s basis was at the time the gift was made.


B. Tony’s new basis is the fair market value of the gift at the time of the gift.


C. The adjusted basis for Tony is $20,660.


D. The adjusted basis for Tony is $21,500.

The correct answer is "C."



Increase in Donee's Basis = (Appreciation of the Property/ Taxable Gift) x Gift Tax Paid FMV of Property at Date of Gift




[($57,000 ÷ $75,000 = .76) x $3,500] + $18,000 = $20,660

When do the recapture rules for Section 179 apply:

I. When the asset is sold before it would have been fully depreciated.


II. When the business use drops below 50%.


III. When the Section 179 deduction taken in one year exceeds the allowable maximum.


IV. When there is sufficient income in one tax year to support the deduction taken.


V. When the deduction causes the tax liability to become negative.




A. III and IV only.


B. I and II only.


C. V only.


D. All of the above.

The correct answer is "B."



Section 179 recapture rules apply when the business use of an asset drops below 50% for a given year or when the asset is disposed of before it would have been fully depreciated.

Terry and Jim are both involved in operating separate illegal businesses. Terry operates a gambling business and Jim operates a drug running business. Both businesses have gross revenues of $500,000. The businesses incur the following expenses:Terry's employee salaries = $200,000Terry's bribes to police = $25,000Terry's rent and utilities = $50,000Terry's cost of goods sold = $-0-Jim's employee salaries = $200,000Jim's bribes to police = $25,000Jim's rent and utilities = $50,000Jim's cost of goods sold = $125,000Which of the following statements is correct?



A. Terry should report a profit of $225,000.


B. Jim should report a profit from his business of $100,000.


C. Jim should report a profit from his business of $500,000.


D. Jim should report a profit from his business of $375,000.

The correct answer is "D."



Jim's profit would be as follows: $500,000 (income) - $125,000 (cost of goods sold) = $375,000 of profit. Terry's profit would be as follows: $500,000 (income) - $200,000 (wages) - $50,000 (rental expenses) = $250,000 of profit. Please note that illegal expenses such as bribes to police are neither allowable nor deductible. If the illegal business is drug running then you are limited to only deducting the cost of goods sold.

Which of the following best describes depreciation cost recovery?



A. It is periodic expensing of tangible property, including real and personal property used in business.


B. It is periodic expensing of the cost of intangible and tangible assets.


C. It is the periodic expensing of natural resources, tangible and intangible assets, as they are being used up.


D. It is an expense that fluctuates with the actual taking of the resource from the land.

The correct answer is "A."



Cost recovery is a periodic expensing of tangible property, including real and personal property used in business. Amortization is a periodic expensing of the cost of intangible assets. Depletion is the expensing of natural resources as they are being used up. This expense will fluctuate with the actual taking of the resource from the land.

What is the maximum capital loss that an individual taxpayer can deduct in any one year?



A. None.


B. No more than $3,000.


C. No more than $3,000 in addition to the total capital gain recognized in that year.


D. No more than $3,000 for that year plus any other losses carried forward from prior years.

The correct answer is "C."



The maximum capital loss that a taxpayer can apply is up to the extent of any capital gains for that year plus an additional $3,000. Any excess losses are carried forward and applied as discussed above until used.

Can money paid for child support be structured in a divorce as to be deductible to the payor spouse?



A. Yes, if the decree stipulates such.


B. No, unless the taxpayer gets a letter ruling from the IRS.


C. No, child support payments can never be made deductible.


D. Yes, if the money to be considered as child support is included as alimony which is deductible.

The correct answer is "D."



If an agreement is reached between former spouses where the decreed amount of alimony is increased to include child support, then the additional alimony would be taxable to the recipient and deductible to the payor. The additional money cannot be based on any contingency such as with the child reaching the age of majority or death.

Cindy owned her home six months prior to moving into it. She had lived in her home for 18 months when her employer required that she move to another state to manage its sales office. Her realized gain from the sale of her home is $149,000. Does Cindy have to report income, and if so, how much?



A. Cindy does not have to report income because she has owned and used her home for 18 months and her gain is less than the pro rata exemption.


B. Cindy reports a gain of $149,000 because she did not meet the owned and used rule.


C. Cindy may exclude up to 75% of her actual gain under the allowable exclusion because the move was job related.


D. Cindy may exclude up to 75% of the allowable exclusion but must purchase a replacement home within two years at a cost equal to or exceeding the selling price.

The correct answer is "A."



Section 121 requires that to qualify for the exemption she must have 1) owned and 2) used as principal residence for two years out of the past 5 years. An exception to the rules exists where a taxpayer moved because of employment transfer. In this case, Cindy owned and lived in the home for 18 of the 24 months. Cindy is entitled to 75% of the allowable $250,000 gain exemption or $187,500.

With regard to Sections 1245 and 1250, Section 1231 will be applied only when:



A. Any depreciable tangible personal property is sold at a profit.


B. Any depreciable tangible personal property is sold at a profit above its adjusted (depreciated) basis.


C. Any depreciable property is sold at a profit above its original cost.


D. Any depreciable property subject to MACRS rules is sold at a profit.

The correct answer is "C."



Section 1231 gain is capital gain. Section 1231 gain occurs when the sale price exceeds the original purchase price.

Bill and Renee are married and in community property but living apart and filing separate federal income tax returns. Each earned a salary of $25,000 and Renee received $5,000 in interest on money she inherited from her deceased mother after her marriage to Bill. Which of the following is correct?



A. In some states, Bill's gross income is $55,000.


B. In some states, Renee's gross income is $27,500.


C. In all community property states, Bill's gross income is $25,000.


D. In all community property states, Renee's gross income is $30,000.

The correct answer is "B."



Option "A" is incorrect because Bill reports all of the income even though part of it was Renee's. Option "B" is correct. The inherited property may be considered separate property, and therefore, in some community property states the income earned from it is separate. In others, it is community.

Kara owns two assets that she is considering selling. One has appreciated in value by $3,000 and the other has declined in value by $3,000. Both assets are held for personal use. Kara believes that she should sell both assets in the same taxable years so that the loss of $3,000 can offset the gain of $3,000. Advise Kara regarding the tax consequences.



I. In this case, the appreciated property will cause capital gain to be recognized.


II. In this case, the personal use property from which the loss is realized is not deductible.


III. In this case, the personal use property from which the loss is realized is deducted from capital gains.


IV. In this case, Kara has no immediate net tax consequences.




A. I and II only.


B. II and IV only.


C. I, III and IV only.


D. I only.

The correct answer is "A."



The appreciated property will cause a capital gain to be recognized. Because the property realizing a loss was for personal use, it will not be deductible. Capital gain on personal use property is taxable, but losses on personal use property (property not used in business) are not deductible. Therefore, the $3,000 in gains will be taxed at the appropriate capital gains rates but the $3,000 loss can neither be used as a deduction to income or to capital gains.

One of the five tests which must be met to qualify for dependency exemption is:



A. The age of the dependent.


B. The dependent is either a member of the taxpayers household or meets the criteria for family relationship.


C. The taxpayer is a U.S. citizen.


D. All of the above.

The correct answer is "B."



The five dependency tests are: 1) Gross Income Test, 2) Support Test, 3) Member of Household or Family Member Test, 4) Citizenship Test (U.S., Canada or Mexico), and 5) Joint Filing Test.

Explain the reason for the inclusion amount with respect to leased passenger automobiles.



A. The inclusion amount estimates the difference between business and personal use.


B. The inclusion amount is the result of the formula that determines whether it is best to lease or to buy an automobile.


C. The inclusion amount is designed to help to level out the lease expense vs. the depreciation expense.


D. The inclusion amount is the commuting miles that are included as part of the standard deduction on a leased auto, which cannot be deducted on an owned auto.

The correct answer is "C."



The inclusion amount is designed to help to smooth the lease expense vs. the depreciation expense. The lease is front loaded.

Assuming an asset is sold for a gain, when would Section 1250 ordinary income occur?



A. Depreciable property is sold at a gain.


B. Depreciable property is sold regardless of whether there is a gain or loss.


C. Straight line depreciation is used on real property subject to ACRS.


D. Real property subject to ACRS and accelerated depreciation was used.

The correct answer is "D."



Section 1250 gain applies to the realized gain on real property where the accelerated method was used. The gain is the excess of accelerated over straight line (ACRS). Section 1250 gain is taxed as ordinary income. Under current law (MACRS), only straight line depreciation of real property is used.

Petra Walenski purchased a personal residence for $166,000, and insured it for full replacement value. It had a fair market value of $180,000 when it was damaged by fire. The fair market value after the fire was $140,000, and Petra received insurance proceeds of $15,000. What is the net amount of casualty loss that Petra can deduct if her adjusted gross income is $78,000?



A. $11,000


B. $17,100


C. $23,000


D. $25,000

The correct answer is "B."



The loss is the $40,000 decline in value, reduced by the $15,000 of insurance proceeds, $100 non-included amount and 10% of adjusted gross income for a total reduction of $17,100.$180,000 - 140,000 = 40,000 - 15,000 (insurance) = 25,000$25,000 - 7,800 (10%) - 100 = 17,100 deduction

James, a cash basis taxpayer received the following compensation and fringe benefits from his employer in the current year:Salary = $60,000Bonus for services = $8,000Premium for disability income protection = $2,000Premium for group hospitalization insurance = $2,500The bonus is being paid in January of next year. The wage continuation insurance would pay James three-fourths of his regular salary if he became disabled. The insurance benefits are provided by the employer to all full-time employees. What is James' gross income in the current year?



A. $60,000


B. $62,000


C. $62,500


D. $68,000

The correct answer is "A."



The premiums for disability insurance and group hospitalization insurance are not included in the taxpayers income. Because James is a cash basis taxpayer, income is recognized when received. So the salary is $60,000 in the current year and though he earned his bonus in the current year, he will not recognize it until next year when it is paid.

Edward told his nephew that if the nephew would care for Edward in his old age, the nephew could have all of Edward's securities when he died. At the time of the promise, the securities had a fair market value of $50,000. The nephew took good care of Edward, whose will left the securities to the nephew. The fair market value of the securities at the time of Edward's death was $80,000. Edward could have gone to a nursing home and obtained the same services as provided by the nephew for $40,000. The nephew's gross income from the above is:



A. $0; this is an inheritance.


B. $40,000; this is earned income at the fair market value.


C. $50,000; this is earned income as of the time of the promise.


D. $80,000; this is earned income equal to the date of death value.

The correct answer is "D."
Because the agreement was to compensate Edward for his services, even though the transfer occurred following death, it is not a gift or bequest. It is compensation for services performed. Compensation of property has a value equal to its fair market value on the date of transfer. The fact that Edward died and a step up in basis would ordinarily occur is immaterial.
John owns a rental home in Arizona. He decided that he would like to acquire a rental home in Washington. Ted who lives in Washington has a rental home. For health purposes, Ted must relocate to Arizona. John and Ted decide to exchange properties under section 1031 of the code. The other facts pertaining to the exchange are: Ted's Basis = $100,000 John's Basis = $75,000 Ted and John exchange the two properties, but Ted has to give John an additional $25,000 in cash. The fair market value of Ted's property is $100,000, and the fair market value of John's property is $125,000. What is John's basis in the property received in the exchange?



A. $75,000


B. $50,000


C. $25,000


D. $100,000

The correct answer is "A."



Since John received boot and "traded down" his recognized gain equals the lesser of the realized gain or boot received, which is $25,000. John's basis will be his original basis ($75,000) less the boot received ($25,000) plus the gain recognized ($25,000) or $75,000. Ted's basis will increase by $25,000 because he is paying $25,000 in boot.

Steven and Julie's children have the following for this year: - Brian, age 12, earns $2,500 in salary mowing lawns. - Courtney, age 19, earns $2,300 in dividends and capital gains. - Derek, age 16, earns $2,200 in dividends and interest. - Danny, age 10, earns $900 in dividends and interest. Whose income is subject to the tax at their parents' marginal rate?



A. Brian.


B. Courtney and Derek.


C. Derek.


D. Brian, Courtney and Derek.

The correct answer is "C."



In 2015, a person under the age of 19 or under the age of 24 and a full-time student at the end of the tax year, would pay tax at their parents' rate if they had more than $2,100 in unearned income. Thus, $100 of Derek's income is taxed at the parent's highest marginal rate. Danny avoids this as $900 is under the standard deduction. Brian's income is earned and the kiddie tax applies only to unearned income and Courtney is 19. If the question stated that Courtney was a full-time college student then "B" would be the correct answer but you can't assume those facts.

What characteristics of an automobile lease might cause the lease to be treated as a purchase for tax purposes?

I. Intent of the parties to the transaction.


II. Whether any equity results from the arrangement.


III. Whether any interest is paid.


IV. Whether the fair market value of the car is less than the "lease payment" or option when the option to buy is exercised.




A. I and IV only.


B. I, III and IV only.


C. I and III only.


D. Any of the above.

The correct answer is "D."



Any sign of ownership, including that of an installment sale will cause a leased vehicle to be treated for tax purposes as a purchased vehicle. Rather than deducting the lease payments, the taxpayer will be required to elect either standard mileage or to take depreciation plus actual expenses.

Two years ago, Bill purchased stock in Pinkley Corporation (the stock is not small business stock) for $1,000. In the current year, the stock became worthless. During the current year, Bill also had an $8,000 loss on small business stock (Section 1244) purchased two years ago, a $9,000 loss on a non-business bad debt, and a $5,000 long-term capital gain. What should Bill report this year?



A. $4,000 long-term capital loss and $9,000 short-term capital loss.


B. $3,000 long-term capital loss and $10,000 long term loss carry forward.


C. $8,000 ordinary loss; $3,000 short-term capital loss and a $2,000 short-term capital loss carryover.


D. $8,000 ordinary loss and $5,000 short-term capital loss.

The correct answer is "C."



The non-business bad debt is treated as a short-term capital loss. The loss on worthless stock held for more than one year is a long-term capital loss. The loss on small business stock Section 1244 is recognized as an ordinary loss not subject to the capital loss rules. Note the following calculation: $5,000 (long-term capital gain) - $1,000 (long-term capital loss worthless stock) = $4,000. From this amount, subtract $9,000 (non-business bad debt expense - short-term capital loss) to obtain a net short-term loss of ($5,000.) However, the maximum annual capital loss deduction is net $3,000.

Two years ago, Green Corporation, a cash basis taxpayer, sold services to Albert for $25,000. During the prior year, Green collected $10,000 from Albert. In the current year, Green collected $5,000 from Albert in final settlement of the debt. The proper treatment for the bad debt deduction is:



A. $0 for the prior year and $0 for the current year.


B. $0 for the prior year and $10,000 for the current year.


C. $15,000 for the prior year and $0 for the current year.


D. $15,000 for the prior year and $5,000 income for the current year.

The correct answer is "A."



A cash basis taxpayer does not recognize income not received. Since the bad debt was never recognized as income, it cannot be recognized as a loss or a bad debt expense.

Janice had a car accident in which the other car's driver was cited for reckless driving. An appraisal established that the fair market value of Janice's car declined by $4,000 as a result of the accident. To have the car repaired, Janice paid $5,000. Her insurance company reimbursed her $500. If Janice's AGI for the year was $20,000, determine her deductible casualty loss on the car.



A. $2,500


B. $1,400


C. $1,500


D. $2,400

The correct answer is "B."



Casualty loss expense for non-business losses are the excess of 10% of the taxpayers AGI less $100. The loss is calculated as follows: $4,000 (decline in fair market value) - $500 (insurance reimbursement) - $100 (decrease for non-business losses) - $2,000 (10% of $20,000 AGI) = $1,400 in deductible loss.

Frank's automobile, which he uses exclusively in his trade or business, was damaged in an accident. The adjusted basis of the automobile prior to the accident was $8,000. The fair market value of the automobile before the accident was $10,000 and the fair market value of the automobile after the accident is $500. Insurance proceeds of $9,500 were received. What are Frank's income tax consequences of this transaction?



A. $0


B. $1,500 loss


C. $500 loss


D. $1,500 gain

The correct answer is "D."



His gain is $9,500 - $8,000 because he has already taken depreciation down to $8,000, and he received compensation in excess of his depreciable basis.

Alexander Dumas has a salary of $80,000, dividends of $20,000 and limited partnership income of $15,000. This year, he also invested in an equipment-leasing partnership where he is not a material participant. His initial investment included $50,000 cash and a non-recourse note for $60,000. What is the maximum tax deduction Alexander may take on the equipment leasing investment this year?



A. $0


B. $15,000


C. $35,000


D. $50,000

The correct answer is "B."



This is a passive activity. His deduction is equal to his limited partnership income from other sources to the extent he is at risk. The maximum investment deduction may not exceed the cumulative investment income. The $60,000 non-recourse note is irrelevant to answering this question. This question also assumes that the investment occurred in the current tax year.

Which of the following is true of the substitute basis of a qualifying asset in a like-kind exchange?



A. The substitute basis is the asset's fair market value increased by the gain realized but not recognized.


B. The substitute basis is the asset’s basis reduced by the gain realized but not recognized.


C. The substitute basis is the asset’s basis increased by the gain realized but not recognized.


D. The substitute basis is the asset’s fair market value reduced by the gain realized but not recognized.

The correct answer is "D."



Substitute basis is the fair market value of an asset, reduced by gain realized, but not recognized.

Last year Dan Walker had a rough year in his taxable brokerage account. He sold when he should have bought, he held when he should have sold and he bought just before prices plunged in most instances. Still he managed to eke out $27,000 in short term capital gains, with only $25,000 of short term capital losses. He also had another $2,000 of investment expenses (research reports). All other considerations aside, he had an AGI of $50,000, so what are the implications of Dan's activities?



A. Dan may realize a $2,000 short term gain and deduct $2,000 as a miscellaneous itemized deduction.


B. Dan may deduct $25,000 as short term losses and deduct $2,000 as expenses.


C. Dan may realize a $25,000 passive activity loss and deduct $2,000 as itemized deduction.


D. Dan must recognize a $2,000 short term capital gain, with no other deductions.



The correct answer is "A."



He gets to net his portfolio losses against his portfolio gains. He will deduct his expenses, above the 2% limitation of AGI, and commission is deductible. The question tells you to ignore "other considerations" meaning ignore the 2% AGI limitation. "A" is the only choice that you could select. Nothing else makes sense; it is the BEST answer. Some questions on the exam are "not so great" questions, so don't fight it and go with the best answer.

Marsha has the following income and losses for the current year:

I. ($1,000) loss from a 30% interest in Laminate Partnership in which she does NOT materially participate.


II. ($1,500) loss from a 2% limited partnership interest in Venture, a limited partnership.


III. ($3,000) loss from a 12% interest in an S corporation in which she manages one of the departments.


IV. $40,000 salary as manager with an S corporation.


V. $1,200 of dividend income from Higher Mutual Fund.


Assuming Marsha has sufficient at risk basis in each of the entities, what is Marsha's adjusted gross income?




A. $35,700


B. $41,200


C. $38,200


D. $36,700

The correct answer is "C."



Option "I" - A loss from a limited partnership in which there is no material participation is governed under the passive activity loss rules. Since there is no other passive activity income to offset the loss, the loss is not currently deductible. Option "II" - The same passive activity loss rules apply, and therefore, the loss is not currently deductible. Option "III" - Because she is a material participant in managing the S corporation, the losses are deductible. Option "IV" - Wages are always included in AGI. Option "V" - Dividend income unless excluded is included in AGI. $40,000 (wages) minus $3,000 (S corp loss) plus $1,200 (dividends) = $38,200.

Diane purchased a hotel on November 15, five and 1/4 years ago for $5,000,000. Determine the cost recovery deduction for one month.



A. $10,683


B. $15,152


C. $21,368


D. $128,200

The correct answer is "A."



To depreciate real property, the mid-month convention is used. In addition, a hotel is not considered residential real property and is therefore depreciated using straight line depreciation over 39 years1 ÷ 39 = .02564$5,000,000 x 2.564% = $128,200 of annual depreciation expense$128,200 ÷ 12 = $10,683 for one month's depreciation in the current year

David has won the Illinois state lottery. He must decide whether to receive annual payments of $250,000 at the beginning of each year for the next 20 years, or a lump sum payout. What lump sum amount does David need to receive to equal the $250,000 payments for the next 20 years, if he can earn an 8% return on his investments, assuming inflation is 3%?



A. $2,454,537


B. $2,650,900


C. $2,875,900


D. $3,307,511

The correct answer is "B."



This is a present value of an annuity due problem. So, N = 20, I = 8, PV = ?, PMT = 250,000, FV = 0. Put your calculator in BEGIN mode and solve for PV. Inflation is not necessary in this calculation.

Donna Bella, whose AGI is $250,000, also has passive income of $125,000 and passive losses of $150,000. She uses $125,000 of her passive losses to offset the passive income and the rest is subject to suspension. She has come to you today to find out which of the following ideas is the best possibility for reducing her current tax liability.



A. An investment in an oil by-product and natural gas limited partnership generating losses.


B. An investment in an activity producing credits.


C. An investment in rental real estate as an active participant designed to generate losses.


D. An investment in limited partnership historic district rehab project producing both credits and passive losses.

The correct answer is "B."



In this case, more losses are not required at all. Rather, credits only are needed to improve the client’s tax position.

Tommy Vasquez has taxable income of $200,000. He is concerned about being subject to the alternative minimum tax (AMT). The following income and deductions were included in computing his taxable income. Select one item which may be added to (or subtracted from) regular taxable income in calculating the AMT.



A. A long-term capital gain of $100,000.


B. A state income tax deduction of $25,000.


C. Dividend income of $100,000.


D. Personal Residence interest deduction of $25,000.

The correct answer is "B."



Options "A", "C" and "D" are incorrect as they are neither added nor subtracted from the regular income to calculate AMT. State income taxes deducted as an itemized deduction will be added back into regular income to calculate Alternative Minimum Taxable Income.

A shareholder in an S corporation:

I. Must be a US citizen.


II. Votes for the Board of Directors at the annual shareholders' meeting.


III. Receives a K-1 annually in order to prepare a personal income tax return.


IV. Reports on a personal income tax return a pro-rata share of corporate profit or loss.




A. I, II and III only.


B. I and III only.


C. II and IV only.


D. II, III, and IV only.

The correct answer is "D."
Ownership of S corporation stock is restricted to individuals who are US citizens or residents, estates, certain trusts, and charitable organizations. A shareholder in an S corporation may vote to retain or revoke S corporate status, votes, receives an annual K-1 and reports their pro rata share of profit or loss on their personal income tax return.