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101 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A Coggin's test is required annually for all horses. What disease is this test testing for?
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Equine Infectious Anemia
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Which of the following organs can be infected in horses with "bastard strangles"?
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All of the above are correct
(spleen, liver, and kidney) |
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Which of the following is true regarding Canker in horses?
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Canker is caused by a bacteria, Fusobacterium necrophorum
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In horses with Strangles, pus can form rock like structures within the guttural pouch. What is the correct terminology for these rock like structures of pus?
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Chondroids
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Which of the following diseases are caused by a bacterial infection?
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All of the above are correct
(thrush, tetanus, and strangles) |
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Which of the following diseases is characterized by a "saw horse" stance?
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Tetanus
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The most common clinical sign reported in horses with rabies infection is?
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Self mutilation
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Which of the following below is true regarding Potomac Horse Fever?
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All of the above are true
(caused by bacteria Neorickettsia risticci, clinical signs include fever, diarrhea, and laminitis, and is transmitted by the caddis fly) |
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Which test is most commonly used to aide in diagnosis of suspected Botulism in horses?
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Grain test
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How many fecal cultures are recommended in horses that are suspected of having Salmonellosis?
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5
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Which strain of Salmonella is the most pathogenic in animals?
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S. typhimurium
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A horse that is lame may point or rest the injured limb.
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True
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When observing at a trot, if a horse is lame on the left front limb, the head will appear to raise when the ....?
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Left front limb strikes the ground
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Which of the following predispose horses to developing navicular disease?
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Upright pasterns
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When evaluating a horse for lameness, which of the following can be utilized to help isolate the lameness to a particular limb?
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All of the above are correct
(hoof testers, observing the horse in motion, and palpating the limb) |
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Which of the following is true regarding sand cracks in horses?
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Can occur in the toe, quarter, or heel regions of the hoof wall
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Which of the following statements is true regarding side bone in horses?
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None of the above are correct
(occur most commonly on the rear limbs, lameness is irreversible, and involves the dorsal and caudal cartilages of the foot) |
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Exposing a horse to Black Walnut shavings can cause this type of lameness in horses?
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Laminitis
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Trotting a horse on a circle can increase the degree of lameness making it more obvious to the viewer.
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True
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Which of the following modalities can be utlized to diagnose lameness in horses?
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Thermography
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What drug is commonly used in nerve blocks on horses?
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Bupivacaine
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Vomiting is a common symptom in horses with gastrointestinal upset.
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False
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Causes of esophageal choke include which of the following?
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All of the above are correct
(poor dentition, feeding pelleted feed, and bolting behavior) |
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Your neighbor knows that you are an experienced veterinary technician and calls you late one evening to ask you about a problem he is having with his horse. He states that the horse was fine at feeding time, but now he is coughing and standing with his head and neck outstretched. There is also a greenish discharge with bits of oats coming out of his mouth and both nostrils. What condition is his horse most likely suffering from?
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Esophageal Choke
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A strangulating lipoma is best treated by surgical removal.
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True
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Which of the following is a common complication following esophageal choke?
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Both A and B
(stricture formation and aspiration pneumonia)
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In horses, sharp enamel points on the upper dental arcade (upper jaw or maxilla)develop where?
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Bucchal surface (cheek surface)
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Which of the following are clinical signs of colic in horses?
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All of the above are correct
(pawing at the ground, kicking at abdomen, and biting at the flank area)
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Equine tapeworms are treated with what medication?
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Praziquantel
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Which of the following are clinical signs that may occur when a horse has sharp enamel points?
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All of the above are correct
(dropping feed, chewing on one side of the horse's mouth, and weight loss) |
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Gastric(Stomach) ulcers occur most commonly in adult horses along what part of the stomach?
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Margo plicatus
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What is the name of the Quarter Horse stallion that genetically transmitted the gene for HYPP to his offspring?
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Impressive
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What is the cause of HYPP in horses?
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Elevated potassium levels in the blood
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What is meant by the term myoglobinuria?
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Excretion of myoglobin in the urine
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What body system is affected in foals with Nutritional Myodegeneration?
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Heart
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Headshaking in horses is characterized by what type of head movement?
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Vertical movement
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Which of the following statements is true regarding "tying up" in horses?
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All of the above are true
(an elevated CK and AST confirm a diagnosis, muscles are typically very firm on palpation, and the horse appears very stiff and is reluctant to walk)
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What is considered the gold standard for diagnosing PSSM in horses?
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Muscle biopsy
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Which of the following statements about PSSM in horses is correct?
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Caused by increased amounts of glycogen in the muscle
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Nutritional Myodegeneration is caused by what dietary deficiency?
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Vitamin E
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The causative agent in Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis is?
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Sarcocystis neurona
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Equine Metabolic Sydrome is characterized by what clinical signs?
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Obesity
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What does the term anhidrosis mean?
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Failure to sweat
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A common detrimental side effect of systemic (oral) steroid use in horses is?
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Laminitis
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Which of the following statements is true regarding Rhodococcus equi in foals?
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R. equi causes a bacterial pneumonia
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Which of the following clinical signs is common in horses with respiratory disease?
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All of the above are correct
(fever, nasal discharge, coughing) |
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A bronchoalveolar lavage is a diagnostic technique commonly utilized in horses with suspected respiratory disease.
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True
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What is the recommended medication for treatment of PPID?
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Pergolide
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Which of the following is recommended in the treatment of Equine Metabolic Syndrome?
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All of the above is correct
(exercise, soaking the hay, and grazing muzzle) |
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Which of the following is correct regarding PPID in horses?
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Hirsutism is a common clinical sign
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Hemosiderophages may be present in BAL fluid obtained from horses suspected of having EIPH for up to ___ days?
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21 |
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Cullicoides Hypersensitivity in horses is caused by what insect vector?
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Flies
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Which of the following statements are true regarding "moon blindness" in horses?
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None of the above are true
(most commonly affects paint horse breeds, usually is caused by viral infection, and rarely causes blindness) |
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What are common symptoms that may be seen in horses suffering from ocular disease?
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All of the above
(swelling of the eye and adjacent tissues, change in color of the eye, and discharge) |
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You are measuring a horse's intraocular pressure with a tonopen. The tonopen reads 18 mm Hg. How would characterize this result?
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This horse does not have glaucoma |
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Which of the following neoplastic conditions does NOT commonly involve the ocular structures in horses?
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Mast cell tumor
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The diagnostic test used to detect the presence of a corneal ulcer in a horse is?
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Fluoroscein stain
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Which of the following medications below would NOT be appropriate for treatment of a horse with a corneal ulcer?
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Steroid
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The bacteria frequently implicated in cases of Recurrent Uveitis in horses is?
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Leptospirosis
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Proud flesh most commonly occurs secondary to wound healing in what anatomical locations in horses?
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Below the hocks and carpus
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What is the most common skin tumor in horses?
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Sarcoid
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Which of the following clinical signs are commonly observed in cattle with acute abdominal pain?
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Decreased appetite
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The cause of Lumpy Jaw in cattle is?
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Actinomyces
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Which of the following statements are true regarding a displaced abomasum in cattle?
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Abomasum displaces to the right or left abdomen
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Which part of the cow's stomach has a honeycomb texture on gross dissection?
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Reticulum
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Contagious ecthyma or ORF is caused by?
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Virus
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What is the correct flow of feed material through the cow rumen?
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Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum
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In cattle with suspected Hardware Disease, pesence of cranial abdominal pain can be best assessed by what method?
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Only answeres 1 and 2 are correct
(pinch test and grunt test) |
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A displaced abomasum can be detected on physical exam by?
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Presence of a gas ping
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What is a preventative measure and or treatment for cattle with Hardware Disease?
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Administration of a magnet
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What is the name of the disease or condition in cattle when the rumen becomes overly distended with gas?
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Bloat
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Which of the following devices are commonly utilized in down cattle?
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All of the above are correct
(sling, float tank and hip lifters) |
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Which of the following clinical signs below can be observed in cases of Listeriosis in ruminants?
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All of the above are correct
(head pressing, circling, and nystagmus) |
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What is the veterinary medical term used to describe difficulty in giving birth?
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Dystocia
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Which of the following are common clinical signs seen in cattle with polioencephalomalacia?
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Star-gazing
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Polioencephalomalacia is defined as softening of the white matter in the brain.
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False
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In regards to Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis, the virus can be spread through what pathways?
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Milk
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The nervous form of coccidia in ruminants occurs when the parasite leaves the gastrointestinal system and enters into the brain and spinal cord causing neurologic signs.
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False
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Compartment syndrome occurs in cattle as early as within 6 hours of being down and unable to rise.
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True
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In regards to Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis, which are possible manifestations of infection that can occur in goats?
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All of the above are correct
(arthritis, mastitis, encephalitis)
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Neurologic disease in ruminants can show variable clinical signs depending on which part of the neurologic system is affected. Neurological disease can be divided into what broad categories?
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All of the above are correct
(peripheral nerves, central nervous system, and cranial nerves) |
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In cattle, milk fever commonly occurs when?
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Post calving
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Staphylococcous aureus is a common bacterial cause of environmental mastitis in dairy cattle.
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True
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Ketones can be detected in which type of sample?
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All of the above are correct
(blood, milk, and urine) |
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Bovine ketosis occurs due to a positive energy balance.
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False
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What is the cause of milk fever in cattle?
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Low blood calcium
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The most common form of mastitis in dairy cows is the subclinical form.
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True
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Common additional problems that may be seen in cattle suffering from milk fever include which of the following?
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All of the above are correct
(displaced abdomen, retained placenta, and bloat) |
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Which of the following statements are true regarding bovine ketosis?
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None of the above are correct
(ketosis is defined as low ketone bodies in the blood, most common in non-pregnant and non-lactating beef cattle, and always occurs as a primary disease) |
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A common diagnostic tests frequently utilized in screening and/or diagnosis of mastitis in cattle include which of the following?
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All of the above are correct
(California Mastitis Test, Somatic Call Count, and Milk Culture) |
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Which of the following are common clinical signs in cows with bovine ketosis?
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All of the above are correct
(tremors, decreased appetite, and weight loss)
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The recommended treatment for ocular and skin cancers in cattle is chemotherapy
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False |
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Another name for cancer eye in cattle is?
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Squamous cell carcinoma
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In regards to pink eye in cattle, which of the following have been identified as predisposing factors to development of disease?
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All of the above
(flies, UV irradiation, and plant awns) |
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The cause of hairy foot warts in cattle is?
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Treponema
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Which of the following clinical signs is NOT associated with pink eye?
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Exophthalmos
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Bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by which organsism?
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Moraxella bovis
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Cancer eye can spread internally to the abdominal and thoracic organs.
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True
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Which of the following statements are true regarding lymphosarcoma in cattle?
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All of the above are true
(holsteins are most commonly affected, Lymphosarcoma is caused by a virus in cattle, the most common clinical sign is exophthalmos) |
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Which breed of cattle is squamous cell carcinoma most prevalent in?
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Hereford
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What antibiotic is recommended for treatment of pink eye in cattle?
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Oxytetracycline
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