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225 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

An increased number of immature neutrophils in the blood is termed:

Left Shift

Which of the following wbc's tend to have a kidney bean shaped nucleus:

metamyelocytes

of toxic changes seen in neutrophils include all of the following EXCEPT:

hyposegmentation

A leukogram that shows a decrease of wbc's along with an increase of bands is termed a:

degenerative left shift

A condition that is characterized by a marked leukocytosis that may be confused with leukemia is termed:

leukemoid response

T or F: When performing a differential, the wbc count should always be reported in relative numbers in order to be diagnostically useful.

FALSE

Which of the following are not associated with leukemia?


normal order of maturation of cells

T or F: Immunocytes are the same cell as a reactive lymphocyte

TRUE

T or F: It is easy to differentiate T and B lymphocytes based upon theirmorphology

FALSE

Which of the following is the most immature recognizable cell in the erythroid series?


rubriblast

Which cell in the WBC line is one stage less mature then the band neutrophil?

metamyelocyte

Abone marrow aspiration on a cat may be obtained from the

proximal humerus, femur, and the wing of the ileum

Which cell in the RBC line is the most immature, with a large nucleus and nucleoli still present?

rubriblast

In what species is a bone marrow sample the primary means buy which to judge the animals response to an anemia?

Equine

Abone marrow aspiration in small animals can sometimes be performed with whichof the following

Tranquilizer or General anesthetic

What does the term hyperplastic mean?

increased number of cells

T or F: When performing an M:E ratio you would count all mature nucleated cells with the bone marrow.

FALSE

About how many days does it take a RBC to mature?

5

When following a bone marrow case, besides actually examining the bone marrow what other lab test might the technician be performing?

CBC

T or F: Diagnostic cytology offers significant time savings in thedifferentiation between inflammatory disease and cancer

TRUE

T or F: It is ok to send cytology samples and formalin fixed samples to areference laboratory in the same box as long as they are wrapped and addressedproperly

FALSE

T or F: When performing a fine needle aspirate, the best technique is to directthe needle into the mass one time and then remove the needle from the animal

FALSE

T or F: The term for study of diseased tissues is histopathology

FALSE

When performing a fine needle aspirate, which of the following pieces of equipment is not advised

25 gauge needle

If a diagnosis of cancer is confirmed, cytologic findings can provide information for all of the following except:

overall health of the animal

T or F: When examing cellular detail of a cytology sample, it is wise to use the10X objective

FALSE

T or F: Cytology seldom will provide a definitive diagnosis when used as the sole diagnostic test as other tests may be needed


TRUE

T or F: Exudates are an abnormal collection of normal fluid.

FALSE

T or F: Normal body cavities (pleural, peritoneal and visceral) are lined by mesothelial cells in variable numbers.

TRUE

Transudates are effusions that are relatively unique because of all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

SPECIFIC GRAVITY >1.017

T or F: Congestive heart failure may result in an animal developing a transudateor a modified transudate

TRUE

TRUE or FALSE: Increased turbidity is most commonly associated with increased numbers of cellular elements.

TRUE

TRUE or FALSE: Transudates are a normal collection of abnormal fluid.

FALSE

TRUE or FALSE: Inflammation can be classified based upon its duration by the terms acute, subacute (same as chronic-active) or chronic inflammation.

TRUE

TRUE OR FALSE: Acute neutrophilic inflammation is less than 70% Neutrophils, normalneutrophils

FALSE

TRUE OR FALSE: Complete characterization of an effusion requires evaluation of various features such as the cellular content and specific gravity.

TRUE

Chronic inflammation is characterized by:

greater than 50% macrophages

TRUE OR FALSE: Collection of exfoliative cytology samples always requires at least local anesthesia of the site.

FALSE

TRUE OR FALSE:In general, skin biopsies are not performed as often as they should bein veterinary medicine

TRUE

Which of the following techniques minimizes pharyngeal contamination of the sample obtained?


transtracheal

List 3 unusual complications from a biopsy sample collection might include

minor hemorrhage, infection possible, and dissemination of neoplastic cells

List 4 agents can cause inflammatory lesions in the skin?

bacteria, fungi, foreign bodies, and parasites

Advantages of a punch biopsy include all but what of the following:


less ability

The most common skin biopsy punches areapproximately

4-6 mm

Taking a section of the liver would be:

incisional biopsy

T or F: The removal of a portion of the lesion is known as excisional biopsy


FALSE

True or False: The removal of a portion of the lesion is known as excisional biopsy

FALSE

Taking a section of the liver would be:

incisional biopsy

The most common skin biopsy punches are approximately

4-6mm


Advantages of a punch biopsy include all but what of the following:


lessability of

Which of the following agents can cause inflammatory lesions in the skin?

bacteria,fungi, foreign bodies, parasites

Unusual complications from a biopsy sample collection might include

minor hemorrhage, infection possible, dissemination of neoplastic cells

Which of the following techniques minimizes pharyngeal contamination of the sample obtained?

Transtracheal

True or False: In general, skin biopsies are not performed as often as they should be in veterinary medicine.

TRUE

True or False: Collection of exfoliative cytology samples always requires at least local anesthesia of the site.

FALSE

Which of the following organs can be easily aspirated?

Liver

What is the most common form of treatment for cancer in small animals?

surgery

What are two examples of discrete cells:

histiocytoma and transmissible venereal tumors

When sending biopsy samples in to the lab, all of the following arealways necessary

name of patient


breed of patient


age of patient


location of lesion

True or False: Nuclear criteria of malignancy are more reliable than cytoplasmic criteria for estimating malignant potential.

TRUE

Tumors can be classified into what 3 categories?

epithelial


mesenchymal (spindle-cell)


discrete round cell tumors



Variable size and shape in cells of the same type is termed:

pleomorphism

True or False: A Mast Cell Tumor is an example of around or discreet cell tumor?

TRUE

True or False: Biopsy and aspiration are inter-changeable terms.

FALSE

The study of cells is known as

CYTOLOGY

A vaginal smear during this time would appear"clearer" showing a predominance of cornified cells, with no WBCs and decreasing RBC's


estrus

The first heat cycle experienced by the femaledog can occur anywhere from 6-24 months of age depending on the breed

TRUE

Ovulation usually occurs during the end of:

estrus

Female cats are seasonally polyestrus

TRUE

The mean duration of estrus in a cat is


8

True or False: Progesterone is the predominant hormone during proestrus.

FALSE

Vaginal epithelial cells can be classified into which of the following type:

basal cells


parabasal cells


intermeidate cells


superficial cells

The stage of the estrus cycle that is markedwith predominantly red blood cells is

proestrus

Estrogen is the predominant hormone during metestrus

FALSE

Through cytological examination of the vaginal smear, optimum breeding times can be managed.

FALSE

Which are included in the components of the immune system?

B-lymphocytes


T-lymphocytes


Macrophages

The ELISA test for FeLV tests for exposure to the disease.

TRUE

Lymphocyte counts are a very crude estimate in evaluating a cell mediated response of the immune system.

TRUE

There is not presently a good test for FIP.

TRUE

Renal failure may depress red blood cell formation.

TRUE

Hemolytic anemia is the type of anemia that shows the most regenerative response.

TRUE

TRUE OR FALSE: The Monocyte is the body's first line of defense in infection.

FALSE

TRUE OR FALSE: Lymphocytes are the primary cellular components of the antibody producing system.

TRUE

True or False: When using serological test kits, it is important that the directions be followed carefully.


TRUE

Which of the following is an example of a coronavirus?

FIP

Which of the following diseases in cats is similar to parvo virus in dogs:


Feline Distemper

Are vaccine-associated sarcomas a concern when vaccinating cats?

TRUE

True or False: Animals in the recovery phase of an infectious disease is resistant to reinfection.

TRUE

True or False: No test is 100% accurate at all times andunder all conditions

TRUE

The maternal immunity in young kittens does interfere with FeLV diagnostic tests.

FALSE

True or False: There is presntly no good test for FIP in cats

TRUE

FeLV is considered to be a CORE vaccine for cats.

FALSE

Neoplastic cells in the blood or bone marrow.

Leukemia

Condition that can be mistaken for leukemia. It is characterized by marked leukocytosis (>50,000 /µl) and is usually the result of inflammatory disease.

Leukemoid

A group of bone marrow disorders, usually neoplastic, characterized by proliferation of one, several, or all of the bone marrow cell lines.

Myeloproliferative disorders

List 4 normal neutrophil morphologys

Segmented neutrophils


Band neutrophils


Metamyelocytes


Myelocytes

__________ are 0.5 to 2.0 µm angular blue grey particles, usually at the periphery of the cell.They represent aggregations of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Doehle bodies

Name the RBC Maturation

Rubriblast


Prorubricyte


Rubricyte


Metarubricyte


polychromatophillic rubricyte


mature erythrocyte

Name 3 specific cell type tumors

(squamous cell, fibroblast, lymphoblast)

composed of the same cell type

Monomorphism

variation in cellmorphology within thesame population

Pleomorphism

Variation in size and shape of cells

anisokaryosis

Name 3 Routes of Metastasis

Hematagenous


Lymphatic


Implantation

malignant tumors involving epithelial origin

Carcinomas

malignant tumors involving connective tissue origin

Sarcomas

Chemo for Transmissable Venereal Tumors

vincristine

Treatment of Lymphosarcoma -

steroids, cyclophosphamide, vincristine

Treatment for mast cell tumors

steroids

3 Main Categories of tumors

Round (Discrete) Cell Tumors


Epithelial Tumors


Mesenchymal (Connective

Name the 4 Epithelial Tumors

Squamous Cell


Basal Cell


Adenomas


Adenocarcinomas

Name all 6 Spindle Cell Tumors (mesenchymal/connective)

Fibrosarcoma - cartilage


Osteoma - bone (young animals, fast growing)


Osteosarcomas


Lipoma - fatty tumor dx with x-ray


Hemangiosarcoma - blood


Sarcoma - trailing cytoplasm, single

T or F: Mast cells contain dark granules

TRUE

Name the sites for bone marrow collection

Dorsal iliac crest (wing of the ilium)


Trochanteric fossa of proximal femur


Proximal humerus


Rib

RBC Mature in approximately ____ days and then circulate for _______ days depending on the species.

4-5


100-120



Granulocytes take approximately _____ days to mature and then only have a half life of @ ___ hours, before they Sequester into the tissues

5-7


12

____ Lymphocytes are associated with the Thymus and are involved with cellular immunity.

T

____ Lymphocytes are associated with the Bursa of Fabricious and are involved with humoral immunity, specifically the production of immunoglobulins.

B

Megakaryocyte maturation takes hours and then the platelets circulate ______ days.

6-10

Term that means no bone marrow development

Aplastic

Term that means ineffective (common cats) - an alteration in size, shape and organization in adult cells, this indicates ineffective bone marrow development

Dysplastic

Term that means Abnormal development of cells, any new, abnormal growth, one where cell multiplication is uncontrolled.

Neoplastic

> 75% cellularity, abnormal increase of a tissue or organ caused by formation of normal new cells. Indicates greater then 75% cellularity in the bone marrow

hyperpastic

< 25% cellularityaplastic- Having no tendency to develop into new tissue, no bone marrow development, incomplete or underdevlopment of a organ or tissue. Indicates less then 25% in the bone marrow

hypoplastic

____________ conditions- abnormal proliferation of bone marrow constituates.

Myeloproliferative

________ leukemia is a leukemia associated with hyperplasia and over development of lympoid tissue.

Lymphocytic

___________ disease- transfer of cells/ disease/ cancer from one organ to another.

Metastatic neoplastic

____________- abnormal increase of erythroid cells.

Erythroid hyperplasia

_______________ : The study of diseased tissue

Histopathology

____________ : The study of diseased cells

Cytopathology

Divide malignant tumors into three categories

Epithelial


Connective Tissue


Round Cell

__________________ They entire lesion is removed. Usually sent off for analysis, this is up to the owner.

Excisional

____________ Cut into the lesion and remove a portion of the lesion.usually done when the lesion is large and removal may compromise.

Incisional

____________ Cytology includes Skin Scrapings, Impression Smears. KOH Preps, Vaginal Cytology, and Body Fluids

Exfoliative

______________ - an abnormal collection of normal fluid. Have low total cell counts(> 500/ul) Watery fluid

Transudates

___________- an abnormal collection of abnormalfluidnHave high total cell counts(<500/ul) usualy Thick fluid

Exudates

__________ Greater than 70% nutrophils

Acute

______ ________ 50-70% are nutrophils and 30-50% are macrophages, a few eosinophils may be present.

Chronic Active

________ Greater than 50% of the cells are macrophages

Chronic

___________ When giant or epitheliod cells are present

Granulatomous

__________ are foreign substances, usually proteins,that can be viral, bacterial, or fungal.

Antigens

____________ they are responsible for the recognition and elimination or antigens. (Ab) In-responsive to antigens.

Antibody

_________ lymphocytes (humoral immunity)

B

___ lymphocytes (cell mediated immunity)

T

__________ cells - macrophages, neutrophils

Accessory

__________________ the separation of plasma proteins by molecular weight in an electric field.

Electrophoresisois

___________, a retrovirus, is the most important infectious disease agent producing fatal illness in domestic cats today.

Feline Leukemia Virus

Where does bone marrow exist in the young animal

flat bones (sternum, ribs, pelvic bones, vertebrae)

Where does bone marrow exist in the older animal

long bones (humerus, femur) flat bones (primitive cells are still in long bones)

What are the three methods of biopsy that are used for bone marrow collection?

aspiration


core


incisional biopsy

What are the two sites of choice for collection in both the dog and cat?

iliac crest


trochanteric fossa

___________ will frequently have a specific gravity less than 1.017

Transudates

_______have specific gravity more than 1.017

Exudates

Transudates are frequently:

Clear

___________ are frequently cloudy

Exudates

Causes of ________ include congestive heart failure, protein losing nephropathy and hepatic insufficiency.


transudates

Causes of ________ include ruptured pyometra, peritonitis and penetrating bite wound into the abdomen or thoracic cavities.


exudates

____________________ an example of a modified transudate which shares some of the characteristics of both transudates and exudates.

F I P (Feline Infectious Peritonitis) is

The preferred site for obtaining a CSF tap in a dog is the __________________

cerebellomedullary cistern

How long should animals be observed following a spinal tap for signs of infection?

5 - 7 days

When performing a transtracheal wash, one should direct the catheter needle through the _______________________

cricothyroid_membrane.

How much fluid should normally be collected when performing a spinal tap?

2cc

____________- an increase in the size of an organ caused by an increase in the size of the cells rather than the number of cells.

hypertrophy

____________- an increase in the number of cells of a body part.

hyperplasia

Purulent or suppurative inflammatory responses are characterized by _____ neutrophils.

> 85%

The most common tumors in the cat are associated with which system?

hemolymphatic system

What is a commonly used drug that can be used in cancer therapy?

prednisolone body

____________ and __________ are examples of chemotherapeutic drugs that are used in veterinary medicine to treat cancer.

Cyclophosphamide


Chorambucil



Myelosuppressive drugs should not be used if the WBC count drops below ______ cells/mm3.

4,000

Toxicities to chemotherapy are seen most commonly in rapidly dividing tissues, such as ______, _________, and ________

bone marrow


hair follicles and


intestines.

_________ tumors are commonly referred to as sarcoma tumorsc

Spindle cell

Tumors metastasize mainly through what three routes?

hematagenous, lymphatic and implantation

__________ may last 4 to 13 days, with an average of 9 days.

Proestrus

____________ usually lasts 4 to 13 days, with an average of 9 days. No neutrophils will be present.


Estrus

_______________ may last 2-3 months. Erythrocytes are generally absent.


Metestrus

How often should a bitch be bred during estrus?

Every fourth day throughout the period when >90% of vaginal epithelial cells are superficial

Which neoplastic cells may be seen on a vaginal cytology?

Transitional-cell carcinoma


squamous-cell carcinoma


vaginal lymphosarcomas

What are some disorders which may result from the malfunctioning of the immune system?

allergies, immunodeficiency, neoplasia, or autoimmune diseases



What are the two immune systems at work in vertebrate species?

innate immune system and adaptive immune system

What are the 2 components of the adaptive immune system?

humoral immune system and cell-mediated immune system

__________ abnormalitiesin serum immunoglobulins characterized by increased levels

Gammopathies

In AIHA affected cats, what are the common underlying systemic diseases seen?


FeLV, myeloproliferative disease, Hemobartonella felis

What does the Coombs Test detect the presence of, and what disease does it confirm diagnosis?

presence of auto antibody on surface of RBCs or in serum; AIHA

List the 3 types of enzyme immuno assays.

sandwich assay for antigens


indirect assay for antibodies


competitive assay for drugs and hormones

What are the most common species of dermatophytes?

Microsporum


Trichophyton


Epidermophyton (primarily human pathogen)

__________ in a common skin disease of cats caused by fungal infections with Microsporum canis, M. gypseum or Trichophyton mentagrophytes.

Ringworm

The five primary classes of immunoglobulins are ________________________ These are distinguished by the type of heavy chain found in the molecule.

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD and IgE.

____________ tests are used to demonstrate the presence of antibodies against a specific antigen in serum.

Indirect fluorescent-antibody

An increase of what electrolyte is associated with renaldisease?

K

What enzyme is responsible for breaking down starches?

Amylase

Which of the following is a test of the liver that is not anenzyme?

Bile Acids

What is a normal blood glucose?

100 mg/dl

What hormone decreases blood sugar?

Insulin

The term for too much sodium is

Hypernatremia

Which of the following tests is for the liver?

ALT

What enzyme is responsible for breaking down protein?

Trypsin

What is the old term for ALT?

SGPT

What enzyme is responsible for breaking down fats?

Lipase

When the pH of the blood drops below the normal 7.3 range,then the animal is thought to be in

acidosis.

Increases of what electrolyte may be associated withkidney disease?

K

Carbonic acid breaks down to which of the following?

H, H20, HC03, & CO2

An increase of what electrolyte is associated with renaldisease?

K

Blood gasses are measured using what type of vacutainer?

HEPARIN

Increases of what electrolyte may be associated withmetastatic or neoplastic disease?

Ca

What hormone decreases blood sugar?

INSULIN

Calcium concentrations generally are inversely related toinorganic phosphorus.

TRUE

Serology is the branch of science primarily involved with

antibodies or antigens

Renal threshold of glucose is approximately

175 mg/dl

Cats that are hyperthyroid may show which of the following 3 clinical signs

losing weight


increased appetite


Rapid heart rate

The adrenal gland causes the production of

Cortisol

Which of the following tests are used in the diagnosis of hyperadrenocorticism

Dexamethasone suppression and ACTH stimulation test

Which of the following tests is for the liver

ALT

The opposite of Cushing's Disease is

Hypoadrenocorticism

Hypothyroidism is NOT associated with pu/pd

TRUE

T4 IS PRODUCED BY THE

THYROID

TSH is produced in the

pituitary gland

In reference to specimen collection the Vagina is NOT considered a closed body area

TRUE

When obtaining a sample for evaluation, your biggest concern is

Avoiding contamination from other tissues, secretions, or foreign substances

Which stain is most useful when differentiating the bacterial species present on a sample smear

Gram stain

It is ok to leave anaerobic samples out overnight, as long as you package and transport them to a laboratory facility first thing in the morning

FALSE

To reduce the incidence of nosocomial infections, veterinary hospitals should only use disinfectants that:

Are registered by the E.P.A.

Nosocomial infections are most often seen in

Large, referral practices or teaching institutions

Osha stands for Occupational Safety and Hazard Administration

FALSE

Gram positive cocci will appear what color on a well gram stained slide

PURPLE

In the gram stain procedure, the safarin counterstain is

The last solution used in the procedure, before rinsing.

On stained smears, bacteria are best identified on:

100x oil Immersion objective.