Navair 80T-106 (Lha/lhd ) Chpt 2-6

The ship can support --- hours of flight operations per day when a marine composite squadron or other aviation squadron of similar size is embarked

Flight operations that are not in support of an ongoing operation or contingency shall adhere to the scheduled --- hour continuous flight operations from 1st launch to last recovery

Minimum requirements for initial helicopter LHA/LHD deck landing qualifications are --- day and --- night landings

Minimum helicopter shipboard requalifications are --- day and --- night landings

Deck landing qualifications for helicopters are valid for --- months

Minimum requirements for initial tilt rotor LHA/LHD deck landing qualification for launch recovery are --- day & --- night landings, which should consist of and VTOL, STO, and Stern landing

Minimum requirements for initial fixed wing carrier qualifications are --- day & --- night take off and landings

Requirements after 6 months for fixed wing Carrier qualifications shall be --- day & --- night take off and landings

Initial qualification requirements for fixed wing aircraft are necessary after --- months

Ships shall not be considered current in helicopter/tilt rotor/ fixed wing operations if --

An air planning board is usually convened no later than --- hours prior to the execution of the next day's air operations

A mission briefing shall be prepared by --- for each helicopter performing a logistics mission

As a rule, flights originating aboard the ship and are -------- require the filing of a written flight plan with the ship by the pilot in command/flight leader

Ships from which flights originated shall anotate the time and retain the original copy of the flight plan for--- months

Squadron/detachments shall prepare necessary flight plans and file them with --- as far in advance of scheduled launch times as possible

---- hours Before scheduled flight operations AATCC shall be manned

When night operations are planned flight deck lighting and optical landing aids will be checked for proper operations and physical integrity at least ---- before sunset

The maximum number of aircraft in the CQ/DLQ pattern is --- unless modified by the air officer

Whose primarily responsible for maintaining the interval/seperation, especially during VMC

During ---- mixed aircraft (helicopter and fixed wing) shall not occupy the same CQ/DLQ pattern simultaneously

During CQ/DLQ operations --- aircraft may operate with either helicopter or fixed

What type of control is used during case III recoveries

During helicopter and tilt rotor CQ/DLQ a responsible squadron representative shall be present in

During fixed wing night or IMC CQ/DLQ an additional responsible squadron representative qualified in fixed wing operations, shall be present in ---

night overwater helicopter passenger flights are prohibited except in

Tilt rotor over water flights at night are authorized In accordance with--- series

This officer is responsible for the control of airborne acft when control is assigned to other authority. The control refers to not incidental to the actual launch or recovery of aircraft

This officer is responsible to the operations officer for coordination of all matters pertaining to flight operations And for proper functioning of AATCC

This officer is responsible For visual control of all aircraft operating in the control zone. under case I and II Conditions, this responsibility Maybe extended beyond the control zone to include all aircraft that have been switched to his or her control freq

This officer is responsible for Mission control of aircraft assigned to him. This includes Providing separation from other traffic operating in the vicinity of the ship & ensuring that mission controllers know the basic procedures for air traffic control

Upon request the --- shall provide information concerning areas of special operations, such as air-to- surface weapon drops and air-to-air missile shoots

This officer controls And coordinates airborn tactical aircraft and helicopter operations with supporting arms and other air operations throughout TACC (afloat)

What is the most prominent factor affecting the degree of control in the control zone

The type of Control to be employed during departures and recovery is determined by the --- unless otherwise specified by higher authority

Operational constraints may at times require Aviation and/or amphibious Avaiation ships to operate within --- of one another, creating a conflict of overlapping control zones

Who shall closely monitor and coordinate flight patterns to avoid mutual interference. Pre-launch procedures shall include exchange of air plans and notification by air- capable ships and acknowledged by the LHA/LHD prior to any aircraft operations between contiguous control zones and/or within 10nm of the LHA/LHD

Unscheduled launches or recoveries that are because of emergency or operational necessity are permissible, but shall be coordinated with the --- as soon as possible because of the inherent danger of contiguous flight operations

Positive control shall be used in the control zone when the ceiling is --- feet or less for fixed wing operations

Positive control shall be used in the control zone when the ceiling is --- feet or less for helicopter operations

Positive control shall be used when forward flight visibility of less than --- miles for fixed wing. And tilt rotor airplane mode operations

Positive control shall be used when forward flight visibility of --- mile or less fire helicopter operations and tilt rotor conversion mode operations

Night CQ/DLQ pattern is excluded from positive control, provided what?

This control shall be utilized when the traffic density in an operating area requires a higher degree of control for safety of flight than required under visual flight rules. This control is normally limited to VMC and is recommended for all operations in or adjacent to oceanic control areas or route

This control shall be utilized only when aircraft are operating VMC outside controlled airspace and the responsibility for separation from other traffic can be safely assumed by the pilot

This control shall be used when shipboard radar is inoperative or so degraded as to be inadequate to provide radar separation of air traffic under conditions normally requiring positive control

This officer or his representative will hold detailed briefings prior to conducting operations under EMCON conditions

Civil aircraft or aircraft of other services may enter or transit the control zone without clearance, radio contact, or regard for procedures set forth herein, and may only adhere to the basic requirements or FAR 91 (no closer than ---- feet to any vessel, And less for helicopters in uncontrolled Airspace); others may not be aware of the ship's presence or conduct of flight operations

The outer limit of the control zone Shall not be established closer than --- NM to any airway, controlled airspace, or special use airspace, unless approved by Cognizant authority (controlling activity, scheduled activity, or FAA facility)

Air search radars that rotate in excess of --- RPM are the only radars acceptable for an ASR approach

Aircraft operating at 50 miles or more from the monitoring antenna shell be separated by a minimum of --- miles

Aircraft operating within 50 miles of the monitoring antenna and not within 10 miles on a designated approach shall be separated by a minimum of --- miles

Aircraft on a designated approach and inside of 10 miles shall be separated by a minimum of --- miles

Aircraft established on final within 5 miles shall be separated by a minimum of --- miles

Aircraft provided positive separation via nonradar control, utilizing a published approach/departure shall be separated by --- min or --- mi

Aircraft provided positive control with all other radars shall be separated by a minimum of --- miles

Air search radars that rotate in excess of 7RPM are the only radars acceptable for application of lateral separation of less than --- NM

Jet and Turboprop aircraft operating at altitude up to and including FL --- shall be separated by 1000' vertically

Aircraft operating at altitudes above FL 290 shall be separated by --- feet vertically

RVSM Equipped aircraft may use --- foot vertical separation minimum above FL 290

Helicopters and tilt rotors shall be separated by --- feet vertically

Fixed wing shall be separated from helicopters and tiltrotors by --- feet vertically

T/F All aircraft shall be under positive communications control while operating at sea unless otherwise directed

Who has primary control of assigned ship to shore air traffic control and intra type administrative frequencies

Who has primary control of assigned CCA frequency

Who has primary control of helicopter direction (Tactical )frequencies

Who has primary control of all air tactical frequencies not otherwise assigned

Who has primary control of aircraft guard frequencies

Who has primary control of land/ launch frequencies

Squadron or ship callsign plus aircraft side number are alpha numeric daily changing callsigns shall be used exclusively after the

Radio circuits used for the control of air traffic shall be recorded --- during hours of operation

From a control standpoint emergencies fall into --- categories

It is imperative that --- collect every permanent detail that might aid in the evaluation of any emergency and keep the command and other interested agencies properly informed

There shall be a UHF radio with a battery backup capability available in --- and --- in the event of a ship system casualty to ensure the continuous communications and the safe and expeditious control of all aircraft in the ship's operating area

An aircraft with radio difficulties transmitter or receiver should squack mode III code --- or emergency code --- as appropriate

Which mode I squawk means desire tanker to join

Which mode I squawk means intend bingo

Which mode I squat means desired aircraft to assist

Transient aircraft approaching the ship for landing shell contact a AATCC at least --- miles out or when "---"

What frequencies are used to locate lost aircraft

During all phases of air operations, the --- shall inform PriFly and AATCC prior to changing BRC/speed and provide expected BRC/speed

Who provides recovery/launch and operational control of aircraft while on ship and within the ship's control zone

Who has control for optical landing aids and flight deck light

In which alert condition will a helicopter be ready to be airborne within 15 minutes of order to launch

Which alert condition will a helicopter be ready to be airborne within 60 minutes of order to launch

In which alert condition will a helicopter be ready to be airborne within 5 minutes of order to launch

In which alert condition will a helicopter be ready to be airborne within 30 minutes of order to launch

The flight deck is marked with --- spots for the LHA and --- spots for the LHD

During a night helicopter launch pilots should not initiate any radio frequency changes or heading changes power to reaching --- feet

During a night helicopter launch PriFly/ AATCC shall not require a frequency change or heading change prior to reaching --- feet unless required for safety reasons

Weather minimums for helicopter night EMCON operations shall be --- feet above the normally prescribed Delta pattern and a minimum of ---NM visibility with a well defined horizon

Weather minimums for unaided fixing night EMCON operations minimums shall be a --- foot ceiling and ---NM visibility

Weather minimums for aided fixed wing night EMC ON operations shall be in accordance with case --- and --- procedures

During a case I departure a helicopter shall clear the control zone at or below feet or as directed by PriFly

What are the weather minimums for a case II helicopter departure

During a case III departure helicopter shall launch at not less than --- minute intervals climb straight ahead to--- and intercept the --- mile arc

During a case III departure helicopter shall Arc at --- miles to intercept assigned departure radials

AATCC Shall advise transit aircraft of the ---

Who is responsible for the control of all airborne aircraft

The most prominent factor affecting the degree of control necessary for aircraft operating in the control zone is the

Who determines the type of control to be employed during departure and recovery

When shall arriving transit aircraft contact AATCC

Who is the control zone clearing authority

Who is responsible for the coordination of all matters pertaining to flight operations

Aircraft operating within 50 miles of a monitoring antenna and not within 10 miles on a designated approach shall be separated by a minimum of --- miles

Aircraft on a designated approach inside of 10 miles she'll be separated by a minimum of --- miles

Aircraft provided separation via non radar control utilizing a published departure shall be separated by --- minute

T/F All aircraft shall be under positive communications Control while operating at sea unless otherwise Directed

Helicopter shall be separated by --- feet vertically

Who maintains primary control of aircraft guard frequencies

During mixed operations, helicopters shall not climb on the assigned departure radial until --- NM

What is the interval between the last helicopter and the 1st V/stol aircraft during case III departures

During case III departures, V/stol aircraft climb on the BRC accelerating to 300 knots and crossing the --- feet or above

The This minimum separation for departure radials is --- degrees

The mandatory departure report is

Weather minimums for case II helicopter departure

During case I, helicopters shall clear the control zone at or below --- feet

V/stol aircraft Shall intercept the --- mile arc to intercept the assigned departure radial during case II departure

During case III, do aircraft launch on land/launch frequency?

T/F During zip-lip operations, launch procedures shall be the same as during EMCON unless radio communications are required for safety of flights

Helicopter case III departure radials shall be separated by a minimum of --- degrees

What is the minimum interval between the last v/stol and the first helicopter departure

During case 3 departures V/stol aircraft climb on the BRC accelerating --- knots

T/F Should an aircraft have any emergency requiring immediate landing during an IMC departure, the controller shall make every effort to keep that aircraft on departure frequency until handed off to final

When in IMC what is the Mandatory report for single aircraft reaching assigned departure altitude

Assignment of departure radials depends on

During the stall case I departure, aircraft proceed straight ahead on BRC, climb to --- feet & --- miles

T/F In helicopter alert condition III the main rotor blades may not be folded

The helicopter emergency Marshall C8 holding fix is located on the

The base altitude for the helicopter emergency Marshall is --- ft

Mother's true heading is 300ﾟ with a magnetic variation of -10 what is the V/ stol emergency Marshall radial

An aircraft on a smoke light approach will be expected to descend at pilot's discretion to --- ft & --- kts

If a V/STOL aircraft doesn't have enough fuel to comply with emergency Marshal procedures, he will climb/ descend to what altitude and intercept what arc

Which Helicopter tacan Marshall conflicts with the helicopter emergency Marshal pattern

After a signal Delta, a new EAT shall be assigned as soon as possible with a minimum of --- minutes delay before descent is continued

V/STOL Descent from Marshall shall be at least --- knots

The rate of descent for V/STOL aircraft prior to reaching platform is --- feet per minute

V/STOL Aircraft shall be cleared to depart Marshal every --- minute's, operation/weather conditions permitting

Frequency changes shall not be issued to V/STOL aircraft below 2500' unless ---

What information are flights required to provide to AATCC upon a initial check-in

The highest instruction found on an LHA is --- feet

The normal entry into the helicopter Charlie Pattern is --- feet

What is the downwind leg of the starboard Delta pattern located

The relative bearings of the starboard Delta are the radials

Helicopters normally enter the overhead Delta at --- feet

What is the minimum altitude for the V/STOL Delta pattern

Who directs entry into the Charlie pattern for the starboard Delta pattern

During mixed operations, helicopters show into the --- pattern

T/F An aircraft position for commencement of a smoke light approach is 3 miles astern

T/F During a case II recovery, close control shall be used by AATCC until pilot reports to 12 mile gate

V/STOL case III Procedures shall be used when the weather is less than ---ft & --- mi

If an aircraft does not have the ship insight by --- miles during V/STOL recovery, the 1st flight shall be vectored into the wave off pattern

Where is the initial point for V/STOL aircraft doing a case I recovery

Case I V/STOL aircraft shall execute a normal break of not --- miles ahead of the ship

T/F During mixed operations helicopter break altitude shall not exceed 300'

T/F Helicopter altitudes are separated vertically by a minimum of 1000'

Helicopters established in Marshal are required to fly --- nautical mile legs with standard rate turns

The base altitude for the helicopter overhead Tacan approach is --- feet

During mixed operations helicopter break altitude shall not exceed --- feet

What is the base altitude and range for the V/STOL emergency Marshal

Helicopter Charlie pattern is normally flown at

The helicopter alpha pattern altitude and speed is

T/F The decision to divert aircraft shall be made by the operation officer

During mixed operations helicopters shall cross the final bearing at or above --- feet

How many emergency Marshall points are there

A form of control where the pilot flies according to a published procedure or as prescribed by the controlling agency

A signal given to hold and conserve fuel at an altitude and position appropriate to the type of aircraft and recovery

Instruction given to V/STOL aircraft indicating departure and reentry into the break

The tactical control of an aircraft where the aircraft receives orders affecting its flight that transfers responsibility for safe navigation to the controlling agency

The time an aircraft is cleared to depart inbound from a prearranged fix

A magnetic heading provided prior to launch to be used when executing lost communication procedures in IMC

The magnetic heading that will ensure interception of the BRC at a specific distance from the ship

The magnetic bearing assigned for final approach, extension of the landing area center line

The ship's magnetic heading during flight operations

Who is responsible for providing IMC approach and departure control services

The airspace within a circular limit is defined by 5 nautical miles horizontal radius from the ship, extending upward from the surface to and including 2500' unless otherwise designated for special operations, and is under the cognizance of the air officer doing VMC

A circular airspace with a radius of 50 nautical miles around the ship that extends upward from the surface to unlimited altitude, and is under the cognizance of AATCC

Who may wave The minimum dedicated radio and frequency requirements

Also known as 1LT This person is responsible for anchoring, mooring, fueling, and with replenishment at sea, loading/unloading operations and stowage of cargo

Who is responsible for the navigation, piloting, and maintaining an accurate plot of the ship's position by celestial, visual, electronic, or other means

Who is responsible to the operations officer for the proper functioning of AATCC

Who ensures training supervision and assignment of OC div personnel, recommends/suspend qualifications, recommends NECs, SDAP, ensures air plan is delivered, ensures all systems and equipment are maintained and in proper operating order

Who is in charge of welfare and morale of a enlisted personnel, formulates and recommends policy and procedures for the administration of the OC division, establishes, coordinates and excutes the long range training plan

Who supervises the administration of PQSs within the division and maintains training records and prepares required reports

Who is responsible for all matters pertaining to the division's damage control equipment, fittings, and training program

Who's responsible for the proper maintenance, training, scheduling, and performance of the divisions 3M system

Who is responsible for coordinating all matters pertaining to flight operations and the proper functioning of AATCC

Who is responsible for the overall management of AATCC, Proper movement of air traffic within the control area, coordinating with other ship work centers concerning launch and recovery operations, & assists CIC, TACC and PriFly with SAR

Who ensures AATCC is manned 1 1/2 hours prior to scheduled flights, equipment checklist are completed, pre launch briefings are accurate & complete, Assist the approach and marshal controller with the transition from case I to case II/III

Which AATCC operating position is responsible for providing positive control to arriving aircraft from Marshal or another controlling agency until switched to PriFly, They also ensure status board is accurate and complete

Which AATCC operating position is responsible for providing control and arrival information to inbound aircraft until handed off to PriFly or approach? As appropriate advisory control is provided from check in until radar contact, Transition from positive control when dictated by weather, & obtain load report from arriving COD/VOD aircraft

Which AATCC control position provides advisory control to departing aircraft with a shift to possible control as required by weather, Upon request, or until pilot reports KILO. Also Provides advisory control of point- to- point flights and PMC aircraft, conducts apch monitoring

Which AATCC position is responsible for positive control of aircraft after handoff from approach until transfer of control to LSO, and conducts approach monitoring

Which AATCC control position is responsible for conducting ship to shore movement of troops, helicopter control section when TACC is embarked, Relay mission information such as hostile fire and MEDEVAC, & obtains mass casualty reports

Which AATCC control position is responsible for completing the pre launch briefing, handling communications, maintaining land launch records, obtain ships position from DAIR every 30 minutes during flight Ops and every hour during non flight Ops, updates general information status board every 30 minutes during flight Ops and every hour during non flight Ops

Which publication provides private pilots with basic flight and ATC procedural information, Also contains a pilot controller Glossary

Also known as the daily changing call sign book, each book contains call signs for a 7 day period, That normally commences on Sunday and ends on Saturday

This publication is published by the communications division and encompasses a section (or phase) of an at-sea period of deployment. it also lists available circuits, radios, frequencies assigned, and frequency usage

In which instruction can you find information about the precision approach landing system (PALS) certification and how long is valid for

This publication is Used by the US military for flight planning. Its published By the defense mapping agency aerospace center (DMAAC) or by national ocean survey NOS). It contains General planning (GP) & area planning (AP) section

This publication is a supplement that can be carried by air crew and serves as a guide, each entry includes a silhouette of the ship and a plan view of the ship's helicopter landing area

This publication is published by the FAA and contains foreign entry requirements.

This publication is a pocket checklist that provides standard flight doctrine and optimum operating procedures for each aircraft type and model as well as extracts for emergency procedures

This manual provides a list of fleet operating areas, target areas, test and special use areas, and is published by FACSFAC

A command directive issued to govern the coordinated execution of an operation in the immediate or near future Effective upon receipt and contains no assumptions

becomes effective at the time and/or under the conditions specified and may be based on assumptions

The TACAN shall be certified in accordance with

This publication specifies procedures and doctrines developed by the ACE. As well as aspects of ATC operations including aircraft launch and recovery procedures, EMCON procedures, aircraft fuel States, and NORDO procedures

The air planning board is usually convened no later --- hrs prior to the execution of the next days operations, and is co-chaired by --- & ---

Aircraft separation criteria

Lateral seperation:

>50nm

50nm-10nm

10nm est downwind

5nm final

Nonradar

Aircraft separation criteria

vertical separation:

FW/Turbo ⬆️FL290

FW-FW

FW-Tiltrotor

FW-Helo

Helo-Tiltrotor

Helo-Helo w/tilt conversion

<12nm

Emergency control procedures (SNACC)

Helo & fixed wing readiness procedures

Helicopter departure procedures Case I VMC departure to rendezvous

Helicopter departure procedures Case II VMC to VMC on top

Helicopter departure procedures Case III IMC

Fixed wing departure procedures: Departure to rendezvous in case I conditions

Fixed wing departure procedures: departure to Ronaldo in case II conditions

Fixed wing departure procedures: departure to rendezvous in case III conditions

Fix wing departure procedures: Fixed wing visual flight join

Is electronic emissions control(EMCON)/Zip-lip launch procedures: general

EMCON/Zip-lip launch procedures: day launch procedures

EMCON/Zip-lip launch procedures: Zip-lip

EMCON/Zip-lip launch procedures: EMCON

Emergency after launch: VMC

Emergency after launch: Night/IMC

Emergency after launch: Lost communications during departure

Emergency after launch: Lost communications only during departure (IMC)

Emergency after launch: Lost communications and DME during departure

Emergency after launch: Lost communications and NAVAIDs during departure IMC

Arrival procedures: aircraft initial voice check-in

Arrival procedures: Marshal instructions

Arrival procedures: Approach instructions

Arrival procedures: Smokelight approach

Helicopter approach and recovery: Helo case I Approach procedures

Helicopter approach and recovery: Helo case I holding -

OVHD Delta

Starboard Delta

Port Delta

Helicopter approach and recovery: Helo Charlie pattern

Helicopter approach and recovery: Prep Charlie

Helicopter approach and recovery: Helicopter night case I recovery pattern

Helicopter approach and recovery: wave off

Helicopter case II approach procedures

Helicopter case III approach procedures

Helicopter Marshall pattern

Helicopter case III approach instructions

Helicopter case III departing Marshal descent & ft/min

Helicopter radar approaches: Intercept angles

Helicopter case 3 missed approach procedures

Helicopter Delta procedures

ASR/PAR approach minimums

Helicopter emergency Marshal

Helo ceiling visibility

Case I

Case II

Case III

Fixed wing ceiling visibility

Case I

Case II

Case III

Helicopter emergency procedures: Lost communications during approach

Helicopter emergency procedures: Complete communications/navigation failure

Fixed wing approach & recovery: Fixed wing Marshal procedures

Fixed wing approach and recovery: fixed wing port Delta

Fixed wing approach procedures under case I conditions

Standard fixed wing landing pattern

Fixed wing approach procedures under case II conditions

Face wing approach procedures under case III conditions

Under FW apch case III conditions no frequency changes are allowed below

Under fixing departing Marshal aircraft depart every

Fixed wing/tiltrotor radar approaches standard pattern

Approach minimums for fixed wing aircraft: ASR/ TCN/ JPALS

Missed approach Procedures for TACAN & radar approaches

Fixed wing Delta procedures: in holding or commenced

Fixed when emergency Marshal

Landing aids malfunction at night

Fixed wing communication emergencies: general

Communications emergencies day/ night VMC

Emergency approach procedures

Tiltrotor recovery procedures: Marshal

Tiltrotor recovery: approach procedures

Tiltrotor recovery: break procedures