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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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When a radiographic examination is
warranted for a 10-year old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron. B. apply a radiation protection badge. C. use high speed film. D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp. E. take a panoramic film only. |
A
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Myxedema is associated with
A. insufficient parathyroid hormone. B. excessive parathyroid hormone. C. insufficient thyroid hormone. D. excessive thyroid hormone. |
C
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Condensing osteitis in the periapical
region is indicative of a/an A. acute inflammation of the pulp. B. pulpal abscess. C. chronic inflammation of the pulp. D. early apical abscess formation. E. None of the above. . |
C
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An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital. B. associated with a root fracture. C. infraerupted. D. found in the permanent dentition. |
C
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For which of the following pathological conditions would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst. B. Acute apical abscess. C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. D. Chronic apical periodontitis. |
C
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The microscopic appearance of the central
giant cell granuloma of the jaws is similar to that of lesions which occur in A. hyperparathyroidism. B. Paget's disease. C. cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis). D. hyperpituitarism. . |
B (brown tumor)
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Radiographically, the opening of the
incisive canal may be misdiagnosed as a 1. branchial cyst. 2. nasopalatine cyst. 3. nasolabial cyst. 4. periradicular cyst. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the a |
C
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On a bite-wing radiograph of posterior teeth,
which of the following is most likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries? A. Cemento-enamel junction. B. Marginal ridge. C. Carabelli cusp. D. Calculus. E. Cemental tear |
A
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In children, the most common cause of a
fistula is a/an A. acute periradicular abscess. B. suppurative periradicular periodontitis. C. acute periodontal abscess. D. dentigerous cyst. |
B
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A large carious exposure occurs on a
permanent first molar of a 7-year old. There is no periapical involvement and the tooth is vital. The treatment should be to A. cap the exposure with calcium hydroxide and place zinc-oxide and eugenol. B. perform a pulpotomy and place calcium hydroxide. C. perform a pulpectomy. D. extract the tooth and place a space maintainer |
B
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In a 4-year old child, the primary central
incisor has discoloured following a traumatic injury. The treatment of choice is A. pulpotomy. B. pulpectomy. C. observation. D. extraction |
C
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A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a
A. fracture of the zygomatic arch. B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla. C. fracture of the malar complex involving the floor of the orbit. D. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla. E. craniofacial dysjunction. |
B
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To prevent mesial drift of a permanent first molar, the ideal time to place a distal extension space maintainer is
A. as soon as the tooth erupts through the gingival tissue. B. after the permanent second molar has erupted. C. immediately after extraction of the primary second molar. D. as soon as the extraction site of the primary second molar has completely healed |
C
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A radiopaque area within the alveolar process
containing several rudimentary teeth suggests a/an A. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. B. ameloblastoma. C. compound odontoma. D. complex odontoma. E. Pindborg tumor |
C
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The minimum time to wait before placing
composite restorations after the completion of a bleaching (whitening) treatment is A. 1 to 2 hours. B. 24 to 48 hours. C. 1 to 2 weeks. D. 4 to 5 weeks |
C
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In an ideal Class I occlusion, the cusp of which
mandibular tooth is in contact with the central fossa of the maxillary second molar? A. Mesiobuccal cusp of the first molar. B. Distobuccal cusp of the first molar. C. Mesiobuccal cusp of the second molar. D. Distobuccal cusp of the second molar |
D
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Which of the following is an indication for a
pulpotomy on a primary tooth? A. Radiographic evidence of internal root resorption. B. Involvement of interradicular bone with no fistula. C. Involvement of interradicular bone with a fistula. D. Signs and symptoms of pulpitis |
D
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A child has received a successful inferior
alveolar nerve block using 1.5ml of lidocaine 2% with 1:100000 epinephrine. However, during placement of a rubber dam clamp on the first permanent molar, the child complains that the “tooth ring” is hurting. Which of the following is the most appropriate management? A. Wait 15 minutes until more profound anesthesia is achieved. B. Anesthetize the lingual nerve with the remaining lidocaine. C. Anesthetize the long buccal nerve with the remaining lidocaine. D. Proceed with treatment without rubber dam. |
C
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Vitamin D is activated in the
A. skin upon ultraviolet radiation from the sun. B. liver upon hydroxylation. C. kidney upon hydroxylation. D. intestinal mucosa upon absorption |
C
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A cast partial denture replacing teeth 3.5 - 3.8
and 4.5 - 4.8 was permanently relined with acrylic resin. At the delivery appointment, when the rests of the framework are fully seated on the abutment teeth the denture base does not contact the supporting tissues. The most likely cause of the problem is A. the denture reline resin shrunk during polymerization. B. excess pressure was placed on the rests during the impression procedure. C. excess pressure was placed on the denture base area during the impression procedure. D. the patient’s tissues have remodelled |
C
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Methyl methacrylate resins will perform better
than composite resins for long span, temporary bridges because of superior A. hardness. B. fracture toughness. C. wear resistance. D. dimensional stability. |
B
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Which of the following bone lesions of the
mandible is/are malignant? 1. Osteosarcoma. 2. Osteochondroma. 3. Ewing's tumor. 4. Fibrous dysplasia. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. |
B
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Which of the following materials is most
likely to initiate a hypersensitivity reaction? A. Titanium. B. Gold. C. Nickel chromium. D. Chrome cobalt. E. Silver amalgam. |
C
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What is the alloy of choice for the framework
of a resin-bonded fixed dental prosthesis? A. Nickel-chromium. B. Gold-palladium. C. Gold-silver. D. Gold-platinum-palladium. |
A
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When restoring an endodontically treated tooth,
the post A. reinforces the root. B. needs to end within 1mm of the apex. C. retains the core. |
C
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Polyvinylsilopane impression materials have
high A. polymerization shrinkage. B. dimensional stability. C. by-product formation. D. linear expansion. |
B
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Incomplete tooth fracture
A. can readily be diagnosed using transillumination. B. most commonly involves the supporting cusps. C. is associated with medium to largesized restorations. D. elicits dull, prolonged pain on chewing. |
C
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The etiologic agent for necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis (NUG) is A. bacterial. B. viral. C. fungal. D. protozoan |
A
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A 60 year old patient in chronic renal failure presents with bilateral radiolucent mandibular lesions. Histological analysis reveals that these are giant cell lesions. This patient should be evaluated for
A. hyperparathyroidism. B. hyperthyroidism. C. hyperpituitarism. D. hypoparathyroidism. |
A
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Patients with known prion diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease are characterized by
A. the disease being transmissible through air or casual contact with an infected patient. B. needing no additional sterilization precautions in the management of the patient. C. the disease usually being fatal within one year. D. having an incubation time of 3-6 months for the disease |
C
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A periodontal screening and recording (PSR)
score of 3 for a sextant indicates that the pockets are NOT deeper than A. 3.0mm. B. 3.5mm. C. 4.0mm. D. 5.5mm. E. 6.0mm. |
D
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Which of the following require prophylactic antibiotics prior to dental procedures causing a bacteremia?
A. Implanted cardiac pacemakers. B. Prosthetic cardiac valves. C. Coronary artery bypass grafts. D. Cardiac stents one year after placement |
B
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The terminal plane relationship of primary
second molars determines the A. arch length between permanent second molars. B. future anteroposterior positions of permanent first molars. C. vertical dimensions of the mandible upon eruption of permanent first molars. D. amount of leeway space that is available for permanent premolars and canines. |
B
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Naloxone reverses respiratory depression caused by
A. meperidine. B. lorazepam. C. alcohol. D. phenobarbital |
A. nexolone- opioid antagonist
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When performing a frenectomy, a minimal
amount of anesthetic solution is used to prevent A. distortion of the tissues. B. sloughing. C. secondary bleeding. D. irritation. |
A
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In a normally developing occlusion, spaces
between primary incisors are called A. physiological spaces. B. primate spaces. C. leeway spaces. D. freeway spaces |
A
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Which of the following impression materials is
the LEAST flexible when set? A. Polyvinyl siloxane. B. Condensing silicone. C. Polyether. D. Polysulfide |
C
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In which of the following situations can topical
corticosteroids be used? A. Angular cheilitis. B. Candidiasis. C. Herpes labialis. D. Erosive lichen planus. E. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis |
D
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During matrix placement for a Class II cavity
preparation, a wedge is placed to 1. separate the teeth. 2. adapt the matrix to the gingival margin. 3. aid in the creation of a contact. 4. absorb moisture. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. |
E
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The most efficient cutting instrument used in the root canal is a
A. barbed broach. B. reamer. C. k-type file. D. Hedstrom file |
D
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In restoring occlusal anatomy, the protrusive
condylar path inclination has its primary influence on the morphology of A. cusp height. B. anterior teeth only. C. mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and distal inclines of mandibular cusps. D. mesial inclines of mandibular cusps and distal inclines of maxillary cusps. |
D
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In composite resin restorations,
polycarboxylate cements are used as a base because they are A. sedative to a hyperemic pulp. B. neutral in colour. C. biocompatible. D. None of the above. |
C
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Odontoblast nuclei displacement into adjacent
dentinal tubuli is thought to be 1 a reversible pathologic condition. 2 due to increased intrapulpal tissue pressure. 3 due to contraction of collagen fibres. 4 more frequent following the use of air coolant rather than water coolant. 5 one of the first histological changes following operative trauma. a (1) (2) (3) b (1) and (3) c (2) and (4) d (4) only e All of the above. |
E
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A zinc oxide and eugenol cement placed
beneath a metallic restoration serves as a 1. thermal insulator. 2. electrical insulator. 3. cavosurface margin seal. 4. medicinal benefit to the pulp. A. (1) (3) (4) B. (2) (3) (4) C. (1) (2) (4) D. (1) (2) (3) . |
C
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Prior to the placement of polycarboxylate
cement as a base for a restoration, the cavity preparation should be A. painted with cavity varnish. B. cleaned with hydrofluoric acid. C. thoroughly dried with warm air. D. cleaned with water and air dried |
D
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The physiologic rest position of the mandible
is 1. a position determined by the musculature. 2. a fairly constant position throughout life. 3. used in determining occlusal vertical dimension. 4. used when making a centric interocclusal record. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. |
A
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Polycarboxylate cement may be used as a base
material beneath a metallic restoration because A. its thermal conductivity is similar to dentin and enamel. B. its thermal diffusivity is similar to dentin and enamel. C. its compressive strength when set will resist forces of condensation. D. All of the above |
C
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Pain upon vertical percussion on the incisal edge of an anterior tooth may indicate the possible presence of
A. chronic pulpitis. B. hyperemia. C. necrosis. D. periradicular periodontitis. |
D
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Radiolucent lesions of the jaws can be seen in
1. hyperparathyroidism. 2. multiple myeloma. 3. fibrous dysplasia. 4. hyperthyroidism. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
A
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Lancinating paroxysmal pain in the posterior part of the tongue, tonsil, nasopharynx and pharynx is most likely diagnostic of
A. Ménière's disease. B. trigeminal neuralgia. C. sphenopalatine neuralgia. D. glossopharyngeal neuralgia. E. psychotic glosso pyrosis. |
D
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Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis? A. Lower lip. B. Retromolar area. C. Gingiva. D. Buccal mucosa. E. Hard palate |
A
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When a patient experiences continuous pain in
the maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no evidence of dental infection, the most likely diagnosis is A. trigeminal neuralgia. B. acute maxillary sinusitis. C. impacted maxillary canine. D. impacted maxillary third molar. E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia |
B
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Loss of taste to the anterior two thirds of the
tongue and a lack of secretion of submandibular glands indicates nerve damage to the A. mandibular division of cranial V. B. long buccal nerve. C. chorda tympani nerve. D. cranial VII. |
C
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For an adult patient, the recommended time
interval between bitewing radiographic examination for the detection of dental caries is A. 6 months. B. 12 months. C. 24 months. D. dependent upon caries risk. E. None of the above. |
D
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Which of the following lesions is most likely to occur in the floor of the mouth?
A. Pleomorphic adenoma. B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma. C. Lymphangioma. D. Ranula. E. Granular cell myoblastoma. |
D
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The apical region of a non-vital tooth with a
deep carious lesion may radiographically show 1. widening of the periodontal space. 2. loss of lamina dura. 3. a circumscribed radiolucency. 4. calcification of the periodontal membrane. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. |
A
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Which of the following combinations of
milliamperage and kilovoltage will give Xradiation with the maximum penetration? A. 10kVp - 65ma B. 85kVp - 5ma C. 90kVp - 10ma D. 65kVp - 15ma E. 75kVp - 40ma |
C
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Intensifying screens are used when exposing
extra-oral radiographic films to A. improve detail. B. decrease exposure time. C. decrease scatter radiation. D. increase the quantity of X-rays necessary to produce a certain photographic effect on silver. E. None of the above. |
D
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Image sharpness of radiographs can be
improved by A. increasing the object-film distance. B. using a larger focal spot. C. using a larger diaphragm opening. D. increasing the target (source)-film distance. |
D
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A radiolucent area in a radiograph occurs as a result of
1. decreased density of tissue. 2. increased density of tissue. 3. more radiation affecting the silver halide crystals. 4. increased exposure time. A. (4) only B. (2) and (3) C. (1) and (3) D. (1) only E. None of the above |
C
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In the early stage, a periradicular abscess can
be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by A. pain. B. type of exudate. C. tenderness to percussion. D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation. E. radiographic examination |
D
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Metastasis is most likely to occur in
A. squamous cell carcinoma. B. basal cell carcinoma. C. ameloblastoma. D. complex odontoma. E. odontogenic fibroma |
A
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The main purpose of collimation of an x-ray
beam is to A. permit the use of lower kilovoltage during exposure. B. filter out useless short rays. C. permit use of the long cone technique. D. reduce the diameter of the primary beam. E. reduce exposure time. |
D
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Multiple supernumerary teeth are most
commonly found in A. cherubism. B. cretinism. C. hypothyroidism. D. cleidocranial dysplasia. E. Down's syndrome |
D
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A radicular cyst
A. enlarges rapidly. B. infiltrates bone. C. contains fluid. D. cannot cause cortical bone expansion. E. is associated with a vital tooth. |
C
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Which of the following is NOT a sign or
symptom of the myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome? A. Pain. B. Muscle tenderness. C. Limitation of jaw motion. D. "Clicking" or "popping" noise in the joints. E. Radiographic changes of the joint |
E
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A patient with a white blood cell count of
34,000/mm3 has a differential of lymphocytes 62%, lymphoblasts 4% and polymorphonuclear leukocytes 34%. The most likely form of leukemia is A. aleukemic. B. granulocytic. C. monocytic. D. lymphocytic. E. plasma cell. |
D
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A syphilitic gumma is most commonly found
on the A. lip. B. tongue. C. palate. D. buccal mucosa. E. gingiva |
C
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A mandibular radiograph displaying a “cotton-wool”' appearance and hypercementosis is suggestive of
A. fibrous dysplasia. B. osteopetrosis. C. osteogenesis imperfecta. D. Paget’s disease. E. cleidocranial dysplasia |
D
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The term used to describe epithelial changes including nuclear hyperchromatism, alteration of nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio and abnormal mitoses is
A. acanthosis. B. hyperkeratosis. C. dysplasia. D. parakeratosis. E. hyperparakeratosis |
C
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The radiologic change most suggestive of
multiple myeloma is A. multiple radiolucent lesions. B. multiple radiopaque lesions. C. diffuse “ground glass” appearance. D. generalized hypercementosis |
A. punched out
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A pontic replacing a mandibular first molar
should be designed so that it(s) 1. gingival surface is concave and adapts closely to the ridge. 2. has open gingival embrasures. 3. conceals the porcelain to metal junction on its gingival surface. 4. gingival surface is convex in all directions. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
C
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A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty
after an injection of 4ml of lidocaine 2% with epinephrine l:l00,000. The radial pulse is slow and steady. The respiration is slow. The blood pressure is 80/60. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. A toxic reaction to lidocaine. B. A toxic reaction to epinephrine. C. An allergic reaction to the local anesthetic. D. Incipient syncope. E. An impending adrenal insufficiency. |
D
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A 20-year old male presents with a three-day
history of an acute generalized gingivitis. He has malaise, fever and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. A blood examination reveals Hb: 8.9g/100ml Platelets: 82,000/mm3 Red blood cell count: 3,900,000/mm3 White blood cell count: 870,000/mm3 Normal Values: Hb: 14-18g/100ml Platelets: 150,000-400,000/mm3 Red blood cell count: 4-5million/mm3 White blood cell count: 5,000-10,000/mm3 The most likely diagnosis is A. thrombocytopenic purpura. B. acute myelogenous leukemia. C. infectious mononucleosis. D. acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis |
B
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If an odontogenic infection involves the pterygomandibular space, the most obvious clinical sign will be
A. trismus. B. facial swelling. C. swelling in the submandibular area. D. rise in body temperature above 39C |
A
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Which of the following drugs are classic antagonists for curare over-dosage?
A. Anticholinesterases. B. Ganglionic stimulants. C. Ganglionic blocking agents. D. Alpha adrenergic blocking agents. E. Beta adrenergic blocking agents. |
A
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Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS) may be characterized by 1. candidiasis. 2. rapid weight loss and night sweats. 3. extreme malaise, fever or chills. 4. a smooth and red tongue. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
E
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A 12-year old child presents with
characteristic tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and mandibular incisors and permanent first molars. The probable age at which this child received tetracycline therapy was A. 6 years. B. 4 years. C. 1 year. D. before birth |
C
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The psychomotor recovery time from nitrous
oxide sedation is A. immediate. B. 1 to 2 minutes. C. 10 minutes. D. 30 minutes. |
D!
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When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
extraction sites, they should be 1. placed over firm bone where possible. 2. interrupted, 15mm apart. 3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps without blanching. 4. tight enough to produce immediate hemostasis. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above. |
B
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Primate spacing in the primary dentition is
observed between 1. maxillary canines and first molars. 2. maxillary canines and lateral incisors. 3. mandibular canines and first molars. 4. mandibular canines and lateral incisors. A. (1) and (3) B. (1) and (4) C. (2) and (3) D. (2) and (4) E. (4) only |
C
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The anterior component of force may be
observed clinically as A. distal movement of a permanent mandibular cuspid. B. mesial movement of a permanent maxillary first molar. C. A. and B. D. None of the above |
B
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The organisms associated with a carious
pulpitis are A. streptococci. B. staphylococci. C. spirochetes. D. viruses. |
A
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Hypothyroidism affects the dental
developmental pattern by A. interfering with jaw growth. B. delaying the eruption timetable. C. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. D. accelerating the eruption timetable |
B
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A single tooth anterior crossbite found in a 9
year old should A. self-correct. B. be treated with a removable appliance. C. have 2 arch orthodontic treatment. D. be treated in the complete permanent dentition. E. be observed and treated when the cuspids have erupted. |
B
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The significant factor in the correction of an
anterior cross-bite is the A. age of patient. B. depth of cross-bite. C. shape of the tooth involved. D. space available mesiodistally. |
D
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The treatment of a Class II, Division 1
malocclusion has the best prognosis when A. there is labial tipping of the maxillary incisors. B. there is a satisfactory relationship of maxillary and mandibular apical bases. C. there is no archlength(tooth size) discrepancy. D. There is a short lower anterior face height. E. All of the above |
E
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Loops and helices in wires are used in
orthodontic appliances to provide A. a decreased force. B. a greater range of activation. C. more precise control of tooth movement. D. All of the above. |
D
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Mandibular condylar region grows by
A. sutural and interstitial proliferation. B. interstitial and appositional proliferation. C. appositional and sutural proliferation. D. interstitial proliferation only. E. appositional proliferation only. |
B
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A Class II dental occlusion in the mixed
dentition will likely A. develop into a Class I occlusion after normal exfoliation of the primary molars. B. worsen with forward growth of the maxilla. C. develop into a Class I occlusion with late mandibular growth. D. develop into a skeletal malocclusion with growth of the maxilla and mandible. E. not change as the maxilla and mandible grow. |
E!
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An exchange of calcium ions between saliva
and enamel is 1. affected by fluoride. 2. a component of remineralization and demineralization. 3. important in maintenance of tooth structure. 4. pH dependent. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above |
E
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Class II malocclusions can be prevented by
A. maintaining the integrity of the primary dentition. B. preventing thumbsucking and lip biting habits. C. correcting mouth breathing as early as possible. D. None of the above. |
D
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The sequence of eruption of the mandibular
permanent teeth is normally 1. central incisor. 2. lateral incisor. 3. canine. 4. first premolar. 5. second premolar. 6. first molar. 7. second molar. A. (6)(1)(2)(4)(5)(3)(7) B. (6)(1)(2)(3)(5)(4)(7) C. (1)(6)(2)(3)(4)(5)(7) D. (6)(1)(2)(3)(4)(5)(7) |
D
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In the mandibular dental arch of a 12-year old
boy, the permanent first molars are in contact with the first premolars and the crowns of the second premolars have erupted lingually. The likely cause is A. ankylosis of the mandibular second premolars. B. lack of space. C. teeth too large for the dental arch. D. premature loss of deciduous second molars. E. faulty lingual eruption of the second premolars. |
D
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Thumbsucking in most cases does not cause
permanent harm to the dentition if the habit is A. discontinued before four years of age. B. discontinued before eight years of age. C. practised only at night. D. is light in intensity. E. None of the above. |
A
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The enamel structures most resistant to the
action of acids are A. cuticles. B. lamellae. C. rods. D. interprismatic substances. |
A
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Gingival crevicular fluid
A. never varies in volume. B. is a transudate. C. is derived from mast cells. D. is an exudate. E. B. and D. |
E
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After a tooth surface has been completely
cleaned, the new mucoprotein coating which forms on the surface is called A. pellicle. B. plaque. C. materia alba. D. primary cuticle. E. Nasmyth's membra |
A
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Trauma from occlusion may be diagnosed
radiographically by evidence of A. cemental tears. B. horizontal bone loss. C. widening of the periodontal ligament space. D. narrowing of the periodontal ligament space |
C
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The most important diagnostic element in
assessing the periodontal status of a patient is A. the results of vitality testing. B. the radiographic appearance. C. the depth of periodontal pockets. D. the mobility of the teeth. |
C
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