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148 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
a cell type that is capable of becoming a variety of different cell types
pluripotent stem cell
a committed stem cell that will produce a cell type
colony forming unit
substances that regulate cellular activities by acting as chemical messengers among cells
cytokines
a group of cytokines that stimulate pluripotent stem cells to produce a cell type
colony-stimulating factors
a colony stimulating cytokine secreted by the kidney to stimulate red blood cell production
erthyropoietin
a colony stimulating cytokine secreted by the liver and kidneys to stimulate platelet blood cell production
thrombopoietin
disrupts viral replication
interferon
multiple cytokines 1-18 that conduct immune system modulations in angiogenesis, inflammation, and creation of C-reactive protein
interleukins
cytokines produced by activated macrophages

alpha is associated with debilitation and weight loss in clients with cancer

beta is also called lymphotoxin
tumor necrosis factor
colorless weakly motile cells originating from stem cells and differentiating in lymphoid tissue
lymphocytes
immunity that the organism developed by the immune system in response to environmental antigens
acquired immunity
process by which antibodies are formed
active immunity
process by which antibodies are formed by another person or animal and transferred to the host
passive immunity
substance that initiates immune responses
antigen
incomplete antigen
hapten
substance produced by immune system after exposure to antigen
antibody
proteins that interact with specific antigens that assist in formation of antigen-antibody complexes and opsonization
immunoglobulins
also called CD4 cells that produce cytokines
helper T cells
secrete interleukin 2 that assists the T cell to bind to an antigen

form holes in target cell membranes

especially lethal to viruses
cytotoxic T cells
lymphocytes that secrete antibodies
B lymphocytes
granulocytes that occur especially in connective tissue and have basophilic granules containing substances which mediate allergic reactions
mast cells
thermolabile group of proteins in a normal blood serum and plasma that work alongside antibodies to destroy antigens
complement
process by which lymphocytes leave the bloodstream and move into the injured or inflamed tissue
chemotaxis
medications that either enhance or restrict immune responses to various disease processes
biological response modifiers

(also called immunomodulators)
suspensions of microorganisms or their antigenic products that have been killed or attenuated so that they can induce antibody formation
vaccines
bacterial products that have been modified to destroy toxicity while retaining antigenic properties
toxoids
In adults, where is the bone marrow that makes RBCs, WBCs, and platelets?
in the flat bones (skull, ribs, sternum, vertebrae)
the most abundant immunoglobulin

works in concert with complement
IgG
the main immunoglobulin in mucous membranes and body secretions
IgA
immunoglobulin that is specific to one type of bacteria and toxins
IgM
immunoglobulin involved in parasitic infections and hypersensitivity reactions (anaphylaxis)
IgE
immunoglobulin that is found of the cell membranes of B lymphocytes
IgD
What kind of immunizing agent should a person with an active malignant disease (cancer) receive?
killed vaccines or toxoids

*do NOT give live vaccine to person with cancer
What are the recommendations for giving vaccines to a patient who is on a systemic corticosteroid in high doses?
Wait at least 3 months before being given a live-virus vaccine.
Which of the following immunizing agents are immune globulins? Which are toxoids?

CytoGam
Tetanus
Pnu-Immune 23
RespiGam
Recombivax HB
Immune globulins: CytoGam & RespiGam

Toxoid: Tetanus
Who should receive the CytoGam immune globulin?
transplant recipients
women before they become pregnant
Who should receive the tetanus toxoid?
children and adults routinely
people who sustain a potentially contamined wound (trauma)
Who should receive the Pnu-Immune 23 vaccine?
immunosuppressed people over age 65 (those with CV disease, DM, renal failure, cirrhosis, etc.)
Who should receive the RespiGam immune globulin?
neonates (children under 2)
Who should receive the hepatitis B vaccine (Recombivax HB)?
high-risk groups:
healthcare workers
teachers
first responders
Vaccines provide what kind of immunity?
active
Severe immunosuppression is a CI to:
the use of live bacterial or viral vaccines
To decrease fever and discomfort after an immunization, adults and children can take:
actetaminophen every 4-6 hours for at least 24 hours
For a child receiving an immunization, parents should be informed that common aftereffects include:
redness and soreness at the injection site
Adults should be given tetanus toxoid vaccine every ____ years.
10
immunostimulant drug given to prevent or treat anemia assoc. with CRF, AZT therapy (ppl who are HIV positive), or chemotherapy; also given to reduce # of blood transfusions in anemic clients
Epoetin alfa (Epogen)
People taking _________ after chemotherapy are more likely to develop cancer again.
Epoetin alfa (Epogen)
colony-stimulating factor drug given to prevent infection in patients with neutropenia induced by chemo or bone marrow transplantation

not used until WBC <200
Filgrastim (Neupogen)
What is the main AE of Filgrastim (Neupogen)?
excruciating bone pain
interleukin drug given to prevent severe thrombocytopenia in clients taking chemo that depresses bone marrow function
Oprelvekin (Neumega)
Who should NOT take Oprelvekin (Neumega)?
people with myeloid malignancies (leukemia or bone cancers)
drug used in the treatment of chronic hepatitis C
Interferon alfa-2a (Roferon-A)
What is the main AE of Interferon alfa-2a (Roferon-A)?
depression with suicidal thoughts
immunostimulant vaccine used in the treatment of bladder cancer
BCG
How is the BCG vaccine administered?
intravesical instillation (given though a urinary catheter over 6-7 hours)
After patients receive ___________ vaccine, they should never take another TB skin test.
BCG (for bladder cancer)
Through what route are most immunostimulant and hematopoeitic drugs given?

Where are most of these drugs given?
sub-q or IV (b/c they are proteins that would be destroyed by digestive enzymes if given orally)

most of these drugs are given at home by the patient or caregiver
The expected outcome of administering epoetin afla (Epogen) to a client with chronic renal failure is:
increased RBC production
Most clients who take epoetin alfa (Epogen) also need to take:
iron
An expected outcome after the administration of filgrastim (Neupogen):
fewer infections
When are some times when we want to turn the immune system OFF (with immunosuppressant drugs)?
autoimmune disease
organ transplantation
immunosuppressant used to prevent renal transplant rejection
Azathioprine (Imuran)
What is the main problem with immunosuppressant drugs?
they can cause cancer (esp. Hodgkin's lymphoma)
immunosuppressant drug used to prevent rejection of solid organ (heart, liver, kidney) transplant
Cyclosporine (Sandimmune)
Which immunosuppressant drug should be given in a glass container?

What should you mix it with to improve the taste?
Cyclosporine (Sandimmune)

apple juice or orange juice; do NOT mix with grapefruit juice
immune system suppressor drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid, juvenile and psoriatic arthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis
Etanercept (Enbrel)
What should the nurse teach a patient who is taking Etanercept (Enbrel)?
Teach patient that low-grade fever is very serious (they could die of sepsis).

Teach patient to have job where they aren’t around many people.

Teach patient how to mix and inject medicine correctly
immune system suppressor drug used in the treatment of severe psoriasis or rheumatoid arthritis unresponsive to other treatments

also used to treat cancer
Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)
immune system suppressor drug used to treat renal, cardiac, or hepatic transplant rejection
Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)
Which immunosuppressant drug may only be used once a lifetime?
Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)
Who should NOT take Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)?
people allergic to mice
Which immunosuppressant drug may cause patients to go into heart failure?

What should they be monitored for?
Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)

S3 heart sound, edema, jugular venous distention
immunosuppressant drug used to prevent liver, kidney, and heart transplant rejection
Tacrolimus (Prograf)
Who should NOT take Tacrolimus (Prograf)?
people allergic to castor oil
The most commmon malignancies that occur with immunosuppression include:
skin cancers and lymphomas
antidote used to treat acute iron intoxication and hemochromatosis due to blood transfusions
Deferoxamine (Desferal)
antidote used to treat copper intoxication (sometimes in Wilson's disease)
Penicillamine (Cupramine)
antidote used to treat lead poisoning in children
Succimer (Chemet)
Potassium should be restricted in _________ failure.
renal
____________ and _____________ should be restricted in liver failure.
fat-soluble vitamins
protein
__________ should be restricted in pulmonary failure.
carbohydrates
Do not give magnesium faster than __________.
1g/hr
adrenergic drug used to in the short term treatment of obesity
Phentermine hydrochloride (Adipex-P)
Who should not take Phentermine hydrochloride (Adipex-P)?
clients with HTN or other CV disease
appetite suppressant and SSRI used to treat obesity

works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain
Sibutramine (Meridia)
When should you take Phentermine hydrochloride or Meridia?
in the morning to decrease appetite during the day and to avoid interference with sleep at night
fat blocker used in the treatment of obesity
Orlistat (Xenical)
When should you take Orlistat (Xenical)?
Take 1 capsule with each main meal (up to 3 capsules daily).
pregnancy category in which adequate studies in pregnant women demonstrate no risk to the fetus
A
pregnancy category in which animal studies indicate no risk to the fetus, but there are no adequate studies in pregnant women; or animal studies show adverse effects, but adequate studies in pregnant women have not demonstrated a risk
B
pregnancy category in which there is a potential risk, usually because animal studies have either not been performed or have indicated adverse effects, and there are no data from human studies

these drugs may be used when potential benefits outweigh potential risks
C
pregnancy category in which there is evidence of human fetal risk, but the potential benefits to the mother may be acceptable despite the potential risk
D
pregnancy category in which studies in animals or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities; the risk of use in a pregnant woman clearly outweighs any possible benefit
X
What factors that occur during pregnancy affect the DISTRIBUTION of drugs in the body?
1. Increased plasma volume and body water (dilutional factor)

2. Decreased serum albumin (albumin-bound drugs are left free or unbound in the body and produce greater effects)
What factors that occur during pregnancy affect the EXCRETION of drugs in the body?
1. Increased weight and body fat (fat-soluble drugs tend to linger longer in the body)

2. Increased renal blood flow and GFR (increased excretion of drugs by the kidneys)
How do opiates affect the fetus?
they could cause respiratory depression
Should a pregnant woman take ACE inhibitors or ARBs?
no!
What antibiotics are safe during pregnancy?

Which ones are NOT safe?
Safe: Pencillin, cephalosporins

NOT safe: aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, tetracyclines
What is the only anticoagulant that is safe to give during pregnancy?
heparin
What is the only safe HIV drug to give during pregnancy?
AZT
What bacteria is 100% fatal to newborns?
Group B strep
What are the 2 uses for Misoprostol (Cytotec)?
treatment of GERD/stomach ulcers

abortion
What is the pharm class of Misoprostol (Cytotec)?
prostaglandin
What is the therapeutic classification of magnesium sulfate?
tocolytic
drug given primarily in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters to prevent uterine contractions in preterm labor
magnesium sulfate
What assessments should you do when giving someone magnesium sulfate?
check for low blood pressure
count respirations (<12)
see if DTRs are less brisk

*these findings incidate hypermagnesemia!
posterior pituitary hormone given to induce labor and control post-partum bleeding
Oxytocin (Pitocin)
A daily vitamin K supplement is recommended during the last month of pregnancy for women receiving long-term drug therapy for what condition?
seizure disorders
For a client receiving a continuous IV magnesium sulfate infusion for tocolysis, what medication needs to be readily available at the bedside?
calcium gluconate
What are some of the side effects of taking birth control pills?
weight gain (about 5 lbs)
skin clears up
sun-sensitivity
irritability (when estrogen is either high or low)
Who should NOT take birth control pills?
women who:

are pregnant
smoke
are older than 35
have a family history of breast or uterine cancer
What is the pharm class of megestrol acetate (Megace)?
progestin
drug given to people with anorexia or cancer to encourage appetite
megestrol acetate (Megace)
herbal treatment for menopause
black cohosh
What are the AE of black cohosh?
hypotension
visual disturbances
How does combined estrogen-progestin therapy affect women with diabetes?
it may increase blood sugar
estrogen prototypes given to treat menopause
Premarin (pill)
Climara (patch)
estrogen/progestin drug given to prevent pregnancy or regulate the menstrual cycle
Levonorgestrel ethinylestradiaol (Preven)
What is the pharm class of Clomiphene (Clomid)?
ovulation inducer
ED drug that moves blood under the influence of nitric oxide into the penis
Viagra
What two drugs should not be taken at the same time as Viagra? Why?
nitrates --> can't pool blood in the heart and penis at the same time

alcohol --> will cause profound hypotension
Will giving testosterone help ED?
no!

all it will do is increase libido
When are androgens legally prescribed?
when a man has an orchidectomy b/c of cancer or injury

to treat hair loss in both sexes

to increase libido in post-partum women
What organ is central to making you male or female?
liver
What are the 2 testosterone prototypes we need to know?
Depo-testosterone (IM)
Androderm (patch)
dietary supplement marketed as a safe, natural, alternative androgen for building muscle
DHEA
The most common eye disease in the U.S. is _____________.

Second most common is ___________.
diabetic retinopathy

glaucoma
alpha adrenergic drug used to treat glaucoma by causing pupil dilation (mydriasis)
Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
beta blocker used to treat glaucoma by lowering intraocular pressure
Betaxolol (Betoptic)
diuretic used to treat severe glaucoma and also metabolic alkalosis
Acetazolamide (Diamox)
antiviral agent used to treat herpes infections in the eye
trifluridine (Viroptic)
If a penetrating object is in the eye, should you remove it?
No! Go to the ER...
immune system suppressor drug used to treat dry eyes (most commonly caused by autoimmune diseases)
cyclosporine (Restatsis)
What is a major purpose of occluding tear ducts after administering eye drops?
to prevent systemic absorption of the drug
When a client has 2 eye drops ordered at the same time, how should the nurse administer them?
Wait 5-10 minutes between drops.
a general term denoting an inflammatory response of the skin
dermatitis
chronic, inflammatory skin disorder that results in excessively rapid turnover of epidermal cells
psoriasis
antifungal agent used in the treatment of candidiasis in the fat folds of very obese people
nystatin (Mycostatin)
What is the pharm class of Accutane?
retinoid
What assessment should you do on patients taking Accutane?
depression inventory screening (to make sure they are not going to commit suicide)
antipyretic used to treat itching (chicken pox, hives, etc.)
Aveeno
What is the antidote for anticholingergic drugs (Atropine)?
Physostigmine
What is the antidote for beta blockers?
Glucagon
What is the antidote for calcium channel blockers?
calcium gluconate
What is the antidote for cholinergic drugs?
Atropine
What is the antidote for Isoniazid (INH)?
Pyridoxine
What is the antidote for phenothiazine antipsychotic agents?
Benadryl
What is the antidote for tricyclic antidepressants?
sodium bicarbonate