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328 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
All of the following pieces of info. are considered objective info. gathered when performing an Intergrated Client assessment:Except
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1.Medical history
(Physiologic,performance, static postural assessments) |
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During the overhead squat assessment a client demostrates an arched lower back, which following stretch would be most appropriate for this movement compensation
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Static Kneeling hip lfexor stretch
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When performing circumference measurements, where should the health and fitness professional measurre the waist
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Narrowest part of the waist
|
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Typical Heart Rate is between
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70-80 Beats per minute
|
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Which of the following represents points to consider when assessing a clients carotid pulse
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Execcisve pressure can decrease heart rate and blood pressure, leading to an inaccurate reading and possible fainting
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If a client knees cave in ward during the overhead squat assessment which of the following options would be implicted as being tight (overactive_
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Adductor Complex
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A client exhibits excessive forward lean during an overhead squat assessment should foam roll all of the following muscles except:
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Vastus Lateralis
(Soleus, tensor fascia latae, lateral gastrocnemius) |
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What type of blood pressure signifies the minimum pressure within the ateries through a full cardiac cycle and what is the normal range
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Diastolic 80-85
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To assess a clients body Mass index which of the following equations is used?
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Weight (Measured in kilograms) Height (in Meter squared)
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An example of a severe BMI score begins at which of the following?
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35
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If a client low back arches while pressing overhead, it could be indicative of which of the following?
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Overactive Latissimus dorsi
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When conducting the waist-to-hip ratio, what is the ratio for women and for men above which may put these individuals at risk for a number of diseases
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.80- and .95
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What muscles are most likely to be overactive (tight) if the head protrudes forward during a pushing pulling assessement
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Levator Scapulae
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Which of the following assessments best measures lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
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Shark skill test
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An example of an objective assessment would include which of the following
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Heart Rate
(not- dietary intake, medical history, Par-Q) |
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Skin fold, bioelectrical impedance, and underwater, weighing assess which of the following
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Body Fat
|
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What are the average resting heart rates for a male and female.
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70-75
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What is the name of the assessment that tests upper extremity neuromuscular efficiency?
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Pushing assessment
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A method of asking questions on a step by step basis to discoverthe initial cause of a fault is known as
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Root cause analysis
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If a clients arms fall forward during the descent part of the overhead squat assessment, which of the following options would likely be considered weak (underactive)
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Lower Trapeziua
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The muscle that would be tight or overactive if a clients feet turn out during the overhead squat assessement
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Soleus
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What is the appropriate weight increase following warm-ups when performing a lower extremity strenghth assessement (Squat)?
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30 to 40 pounds
|
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when a client exhibits feet turning out on the overhead squat assessment all of the following will be probable underactive muscle except:
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adductor complex
(Gracillis, medial gastronemius, sartorisu) |
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if a client demostrates arching low back (anterior pelvic tilt) during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following choices would be tight (overactive)?
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Erector spinae
(not-Rectus abdominus, multifidi, adductor complex) |
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The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscule is known as?
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Intramurscualr coordination
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During a Squat exercise which of the following muscles serve as the synergist?
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Hamstrings
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Balance is what type of process?
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Static and Dynamic
|
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Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for concentrically accelerating hip flexion and internal rotation
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Tensor Fascia Latae
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Which of the following muscles are involved during the inspiration phase?
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Pectoralis Minor
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Prolonged golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle spindle of the same muscle resulting in:
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Autogenic inhibition
|
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When a muscle is exerting less force than is being placed on it, resulting in the lengthening of the muscle, this is know as what type of contraction?
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Eccentric
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What is the name of the sensory afferents that are responsible for sensing distortions of body tissue?
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Mechanoreceptors
|
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When sprinting, proper backside mechanics include which of the following movements?
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Ankle plantar flexion
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The functional unit of the muscle formed by repeating sections of actin and myosin and lies in the space between two z lines is know as:
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Sarcomere
|
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What motion is the rectus abdominus responsible for?
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Concentrically accelerating spinal flexion
|
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Exercise performed predominantly, in the transverse plane of motion include?
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Cable Lift
(Not- Bicep curl, ice skaters, squats) |
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Trauma to the tissue of the body creates inflammation, resulting in muscle spasm and adhensions if left unchecked these adhensions can begin to form permanent structural changes in the soft tissue evident by which law?
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Davis's Law
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Type I muscle fibers are considered to be?
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Slow twitch
|
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The Core is defined as?
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Lumbo pelvic hip complex, thoracic spine, and cervical spine
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Which section of the heart gathers re-oxygenated blood coming from the lungs?
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Left Atrium
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Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body?
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Right Atrium
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Performing exercises in the scapular plane of motion is a prefered motion as it decreases the risk of totator cuff impingement. This can be accomplished in which of the following shoulder exercises?
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Dumbbell scaption
|
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What are the three outer components of a neuron?
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Cell body, axon, dendrites
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What is the name of the plane of motion where movement such as abduction and adduction primarily occur
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Frontal
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During the seated row at the shoulder joint during the concentric phase of the movement is what?
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Shoulder extension
|
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A floor prone cobra is considered what type of exercise?
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Core Stabilization
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The preferred resistance training system for using the OPT training model is?
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Vertical loading
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Hypertrophy can best be described as
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enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension
|
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According to research, endurance is best achieved by performing what number of repetitions at 50-70 % of the IRM?
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12-25
|
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Metabolic specificity is best defined as
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The energy demand placed on the body
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Which of the follwing energy sources are used while training in the first phase of the OPT model, stabiliztion endurance training.
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Oxidative and Glycolysis
(not- atp-cp, Glycolysis, oxidative by themselves( |
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Research has demostrated that higher volume training (3-4 sets at 9-20 reps) produces what type of training adaptations?
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Cellular
|
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Hypertension is defined as blood pressure greater than?
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140/90
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All of the following items are potential responses in the system when a stressor is too much to handle except?
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Muscle spasm
(strain, stress fracture, emotional fatigue) |
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When implementing reactive training into phase 1 stabilization endurance training client, according to OPT what is the reommended number of exercises
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0-2
|
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The proper progression for a client in a balance training program would include
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two leg stable to one leg stable
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Which of the following flexibility techniques are used in all parts of the integrated flexibilty continumum?
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SMR
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A medicine ball rotation chest pass is an example of what type of exercise in the OPT model
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CORE Power
|
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The process of using agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion is know as
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Active isolated stretching
|
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Exercise that emphasize an agaonist immediately followed by an exercise that emphasizes the antagonist are know as?
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Compound set
|
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What type of exercise would a single leg balance reach be considered?
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Balance stabilization
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Which of the following exercises can be considered a core exercise in the strength level of the OPT model
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Cable Chop
|
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Tempo for the resistenance training exercises during a stabilization endurance training program in Phase 1 is?
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4/2/1
|
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The following items are all adaptations seen in the strength level of the OPT model except:
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Stabilization Endurance
(not - maximal strength, hypertrophy, strength endurance) |
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What percentage of communicationi is based on words?
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7%
|
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Individuals who engage in high level visionary thinking, as well as lower-level strategic thinking are know as?
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Flexible Thinkers
|
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What is the daily recommended intake of fiber?
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25 grams
|
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individuals who attribute failures to changeable causes rather than unchangeable ones:
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Truly believe they will be successful
|
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If carbohydrate or total energy intake is too low, the body has the ability to provide energy by using?
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amino acids
|
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Belief is a powerful predictor of success and comes in many forms, all of the following are forms of beliefs excepts?
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Motivation
(not- locus control, self-efficacy, hope) |
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What does SCAMPI mean?
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Specific, challenging, approach, measurable, proximal, inspirational
|
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What is one of the most powerful predictors of change and success
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Belief
|
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What is a food that supplies all of the essential amino acids in appropriate rations termed?
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Complete Protein
|
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The scientific study of happy, successful, highly achieving people is known as:
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positive psychology
|
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A method of asking questions on a step by step basis to discover the intitial cause of a fault is called?
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Root Cause analysis
|
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Individuals with conflicting goalsor those who are ambivalent about their goals are significantly more likely to:
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Be easily distracted and procrastinate
|
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Which of the following is one of the essential amino acid?
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Leucine
(not-Alanine, glycine, cysterine) |
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Which of the following nutrients are responsible for acting as transports for vitamins A, D, E and K?
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Fat
|
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Successful people who know what they want from life have been show to lead to lives that are characterized by all of the following except?
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Physical Activity
(not-meaning, passion, purpose) |
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What does the READ stand for?
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Rapport, empathy, assessment, development
|
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How many quarts of water are recommended for the average adult?
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3 quarts
|
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A state of lost physical fitness, whcich may include muscle inbalances, decreased flexibility and or a lack of core and joint stability?
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Deconditioned
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The cumulative input to the central nervous sytem from mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movement
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Proprioception
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An unstable but controlled environament where exercises are performed that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms
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Propreioceptively enriched environment
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Smaller divisions of training progressions that fall within the three building blocks of training
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Phase of training
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The muscle that acts as the main source of motive movement
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Prime movers
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Ability of the body's stailizing muscles to provide support for joints as well as maintain posture and balance during movements
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Stabilization
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The ability of the boy's nerves to effectively send messages to the body's muscles
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Nuromuscular efficiency
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How quickly a muscle can generate force
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Rate of force production
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Set of two exercises that are performed back to back without any rest time between them.
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Superset
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Enhance stabilization,strength, and endurance while increasing prime movers strength
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Phase II Strength Endurance
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Designed for individuals who have the goal of maximal muscle hypertrophy
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Phase III hypertrophy
|
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Works towards goal of increasing maximal prime mover strength
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Phase IV Maximal strength
|
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Enhances prime movers strength while also improving the rate of force production (how quickly) a muscle can generate force
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Phase V. Power
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The combination and interrelation of this nervous, skeletal and muscular systems
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Kinetic Chain
|
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Large groups of cells that form nerves, which provide a communication network within the body
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Nervous system
|
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The ability of the nervous system to sense changes in either internal or external environment
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Sensory function
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The ability of the nervous system to analyze and interpret sensory information to allow for proper decision making which produces the appropriate response
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Intergrative function
|
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The neuromuscular response to sensory information
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Motor function
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The functional unit of the nervous system
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neurons
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Neurons that transmitt nerve impulse from effector sites to the brain or spinal cord
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Sensory Neuron
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Neurons that transmitt impulses from one neuron to another
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Interneurons
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Neuron that transmitt nerve impulses from the brain or spinal cord to the effector sites
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Motor neurons
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Consist of the brain and spinal cord and serves mainly to interpret information
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Central Nervous System
|
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Cranial and spinal nerves that spread throughout the body and serve to relay information from bodily organs to the brain and from the brain to bodily organs
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Peripheral nervous system
|
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Sensory receptors responsiblie for sensing distortion in bodily tissues
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Mechanoreceptors
|
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Fibers sensitive to change in length of the muscle an the rate of that change
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Muscle Spindles
|
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Organs sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change
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Golgi Tendon organs
|
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Receptors sensitive to pressure, acceleration and deceleration in the joint
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Joint receptors
|
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Attach muscles to bone and provide the anchor from which the muscle can exert force and control the bone and joint
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Tendons
|
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Is tissue consisting of long cells tht contracct when stimulated to produce motion
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Muscle
|
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Are chemical messengers that transmitt electrical impuluses from the nerve to the muscle
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Neurotransmitter
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Is a series of muscles that the nervous system commands to move the skeletal system
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Muscular System
|
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The functional unit iof muscle the produce muscular contraction Which consiste of repeating sections of actin and myosin
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Sarcomere
|
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Is the contraction of a muscle generated by the communication between the nervous system and muscular system
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Neural activiation
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The body's frame which is comprised of bones and joints
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Skeletal System
|
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Hard connective tissue that connect to create a skeletal framework
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Bones
|
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The movable place where two or more bones meet
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Joint
|
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Portion of the skeletal system that consists of the skull, rib cage, and vertebral column
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Axial skeleton
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Portion of the skeletal system that includes the upper and lower extremities
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Appendicular skeleton
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Flattened or indented portion of bone, which can be a muscle attachment site
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Depression
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The movement of the joints
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Arthrokinmatics
|
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Joints that are held together by a joint capsule and ligaments and are most associated with movement in the body
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Synovial joints
|
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Joints that do not have a joint cavity, connective tissue or cartilage
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non-synovial Joints
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Connective tissue that connects bone to bone
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ligaments
|
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Slow twitch, smaller in size, produce less force, slow to fatigue, long term contraction
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Type I muscle fiber
|
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Fast twitch, Lower in capillaries, mitochondria and myogloblin, produce more force, quick to fatigue, short term contractions (force and power)
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Type II muscle Fiber
|
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Muscular pump that rhyhmically contracts to push blood throughout the body
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Heart
|
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Acts as a medium to deliver and collect essential products to and from the tissues of the body
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Blood
|
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A system comprised of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems
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Cardiorespiratory System
|
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A hollow tube that allows blood to be transported to and from the heart
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Blood Vessel
|
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The smallest blood vessel that is location where substances such as oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products are exchanged between tissue
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Capillaries
|
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Vessels that transport blood back to the heart
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Veins
|
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Comprised of the heart, the blood it pumps and the blood vessels that transport the blood from the heartto the tissuesof the body
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Cardiovascular System
|
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Vessels that transport blood away from the heart
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Arteries
|
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Is comprised of four hollow chambers that are delineated into interdependent pumps on either side
|
Heart
|
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Are chambers located inferiorly on either side of the heart
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Ventricle
|
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The heart rate of the typical person is aprroximately
|
70-80 beats per minute
|
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The exhalation of air during the process of breathing
|
Expiration
|
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Looks at how chemical energyis converted into mechanical eneregy
|
Bioenergetics
|
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An action that occurs in the presence of oxygen
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Aerobic
|
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Cellular structure that serves as a storage and transferunit within the cells of the body for energy
|
Adenosine Triphosphate
|
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A system including that lungs and their nervous and circulatory supply that collects oxygen from the external environment and transports it to the blood stream
|
Respiratory System
|
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The inhalation of air during the process of breathing
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Inspiration
|
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An action that is not dependent on oxygen for proper execution
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Anaerobic
|
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Refers to the length at which a muscle can produce the greater force
|
Length tension relationships
|
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Muscle action where there is no appreciable change in muscle length
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Isometric
|
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Information tht the nervous systemutilizes to gather information about the environmnet to produce movement
|
Proprioception
|
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Synergistic action of muscles to produce movement around a joint
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Force-Couple
|
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When a muscle exerts more force han is being placed on it, which leads to the shortening of the muscle
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Concentric
|
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Ability of nervous system to gather and interpret information and select and executethe proper motor response
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Sensorimotor integration
|
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The study of how the kinetic chain creates movements
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Motor control
|
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When a muscle exerts less froce than is being placed upon it, which results in the lengthening of a muscle
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Eccentric
|
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Provides information about the quality of a movement during an exercise
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Knowledge of Performance
|
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The study of how internal and external forces affect the way the body moves
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Biomechanics
|
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Bisects the body to create right and left halves. Movements include flexion and extension
|
Sagittal Plane
|
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Bisects the body to create front and back halves. Movements include abduction and adduction of the limbs, llateralflexion of the spine, and eversion and inversion of the foot ankle complex
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Frontal Plane
|
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Bisects the body to create upper and lower halves. Movements include internal and extrenal rotation for the limbs, right and left rotation for the head and trunk and radioulnar pronation and supination.
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Transverse Plane
|
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Muscles most responsible for a particular movement
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Agonists
|
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Assists agonists during a movement
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Synergist
|
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Muscles that support the body while other muscles are performing movements
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Stabilizers
|
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Muscles that oppose the agonist muscles
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Antgonists
|
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Accelerate Hip Flexion
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Psoas, rectus femoris, tenor fascia latae
|
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Decelerate hip flexion
|
Gluteus maximus , hamstring
|
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Stabilize the hip
|
Transveseus abdominis , adductors, gluteus medius
|
|
Accelerate plantar flexion
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Gastronemius, soleus
|
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Decelerate plantar flexion
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Anterior tibialis
|
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Stabilize the foot and ankle
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Peroneus longus
|
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Accelerate spinal flexion
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Rectus abdominus, obliques
|
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Decelerate spinal extension
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REctus Abdominus, Obliques
|
|
Stabilizes the spine
|
Transverse Abdominis
|
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Ability of the neuromuscular systme to monitor and manipulate movement using the least amount of energy creating the least amount of stresson the kinetic chain
|
Functional Efficiency
|
|
Signifiies the minimum pressure within the arteries through a full cardiac cycle
|
Diastolic pressure
|
|
The ability to efficiently maintain balance
|
Postural equilibrum
|
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Feedback from the client to the fitness professinal regarding personal history
|
Subjective information
|
|
provides the fitness professional with a three-dimensional represenatation of the client, which enables proper construction of a training program
|
Integrated fitness assessment
|
|
Measurable data that can be utilized to denote improvements in the client, as well as the effectiveness of the program
|
Objective Information
|
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Alignment and function of the kinetic chain at any given moment
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Posture
|
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Alignment of the musculoskeletal system that allows a center of gravity to be maintained over a base of support
|
Structural Efficiency
|
|
Reflects the pressure produced by the heart as it pumps blood to the body
|
Systolic Pressure
|
|
Questionnaire that is designed to help qualify clients for activity levels and identify thosewho may need medical attention.
|
PAR-Q
|
|
Normal soft-tissue extensibility that allows full range of motion of a joint and has optimum control
|
Flexibilty
|
|
Where the kinetic chain seeks the path of least restrictive during movement.
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Relative Flexibilty
|
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Alteations of length of muscular surrounding a joint
|
Muscle imbalance
|
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When a tight psoas decreses the neural drive to the gluteus maximums, this an example of?
|
Altered REciprocal inhibition
|
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The body's substitution system when there is a weak or inhibited prime mover.
|
synergistic dominance
|
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Sensory organ of muscles sensitive to length and rate of change of length
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Muscle spindle
|
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Process that simulates the golgi tendon and produces an inhibitory effect on the muscle spindle
|
Autogenic innhibition
|
|
Sensory organ sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of change of tension
|
Golgi Tendon organ
|
|
Consist of movements that more closely mimic those of the actual activity
|
Specific Warm-up
|
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State where the body's metablolism is elevated following exercise
|
EPOC
|
|
The number of training sessions for a given time period.
|
Frequency
|
|
Point when the bodycan no longer produce enough energy for the muscles with normal oxgen intake
|
Anaerobic threshold
|
|
Provides body with a smooth transition back to a steady state.
|
Cool-down
|
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Level of demnd the activity places on the body
|
Intensity
|
|
Training that involves and places stress on the cardiorespiratory system
|
Intergrated Cardiorespiratory training
|
|
Where intensities are varied throughout the workout
|
Interval Training
|
|
Three steps programming system that uses ifferent heart training zones
|
Stage Training
|
|
Preparing the body for physical activity by doing movements that are not specific to this activity to be performed
|
General Warm-up
|
|
What type of flexibility would be most appropriate in the cool-down and Why?
|
Corrective. This type of flexibility relax the muscle and bring them back to their orginal length
|
|
What is an indicator that a client is ready to move from stage one to stage two in the cardiorespiratory training program
|
The client can maintain a Zone One heart rate for at least 30 minutes two to three times a week.
|
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Which two stages of training utilizes interval training.
|
Stage II and III
|
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When designing a program for a client who is in the strength level of the opt model, which two stages should be rotated during the week for the client's cardiorespiratory training
|
Stage I and Stage II
|
|
When designing a program for a client who is in the power level of the opt model which stages should be rotated during the week for the clients cardiorespiratory training
|
Stage I, II, III
|
|
Ability of the neuromuscular system to allow muscles to work together with proper activation and timing between them
|
Intermuscular coordination
|
|
Pulling the region just below the navel toward the spine
|
Drawing-in Maneuver
|
|
Ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscle
|
Intramuscular coordination
|
|
The lumber-pelvic -hip complex, thoracic and cervical spinc
|
Core
|
|
The musculature of teh core is divided into two categories: the stabilization systems and the movement system
|
True
|
|
The movement system is responnsible for the stability of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
|
False - The movement system is responsible for the movement of the core
|
|
The stabilization system is responsible for the movement of the core
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False the stabilization system is responsible for stablization of the core
|
|
When working optimally each structural component of the core distrubutes weight , absorbs force and transfersground reaction forces
|
True
|
|
A weak core can lead to predictable patterns of injury
|
True
|
|
Stablization level excercises
Reps Tempo |
Marching, floor prone cobra, Prone Iso-ab, Floor bridge
10-25 reps 4,2,1, tempo |
|
Strength Level exercise
|
Ball Crunch, reverse crunch, back extension, cable rotation
8-12 reps 3-2-1 |
|
Power Level Exercises
|
Rotation chest pass, ball medicine ball pullover, front med ball oblique throw, woodchop throw
10 reps controlled tempo |
|
Training environment that provides heightened stimulation to proprioceptors and mechoreceptors
|
Multisensory condition
|
|
The distance outside of an individuals base of support that they can go without losing control of their center of gravity.
|
Limit of stability
|
|
Training environment that is as unstable as cansafely be controlled by an individual
|
controlled instability
|
|
Ability of the kinetic chain to stablize a joint during movement
|
Dynamic Joint stabilization
|
|
Balance is a static process
|
False- Functional balance is a dynamic process involving multiple neurological pathways
|
|
Adequate force reduction and stabilization are required for optimum force producation
|
True
|
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An individual's limit of stability is the distance outside of thebgase of support tht they can go to without losing control of their center of gravity
|
True
|
|
Only when playing sports is balance training effective
|
False - Whether on a bball court, stability ball, or walking downstairs, maintaining balance is the key to all functional movements
|
|
Maintence of postural equilibrium is a static process
|
False - Postural equilibrium is an intergrated, dynamic process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency
|
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The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limits of stability by creating the most unstable envoronment avaiable
|
False- The main goal of balance training is to increase a client's limits of stability by training in the most unstable environment tht they can safely control.
|
|
Training environment that provides heightened stimulation to proprioceptors and mechoreceptors
|
Multisensory condition
|
|
The distance outside of an individuals base of support that they can go without losing control of their center of gravity.
|
Limit of stability
|
|
Training environment that is as unstable as cansafely be controlled by an individual
|
controlled instability
|
|
Ability of the kinetic chain to stablize a joint during movement
|
Dynamic Joint stabilization
|
|
Balance is a static process
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False- Functional balance is a dynamic process involving multiple neurological pathways
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Adequate force reduction and stabilization are required for optimum force producation
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True
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An individual's limit of stability is the distance outside of thebgase of support tht they can go to without losing control of their center of gravity
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True
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Only when playing sports is balance training effective
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False - Whether on a bball court, stability ball, or walking downstairs, maintaining balance is the key to all functional movements
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Maintence of postural equilibrium is a static process
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False - Postural equilibrium is an intergrated, dynamic process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency
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The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limits of stability by creating the most unstable envoronment avaiable
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False- The main goal of balance training is to increase a client's limits of stability by training in the most unstable environment tht they can safely control.
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Training environment that provides heightened stimulation to proprioceptors and mechoreceptors
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Multisensory condition
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The distance outside of an individuals base of support that they can go without losing control of their center of gravity.
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Limit of stability
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Training environment that is as unstable as cansafely be controlled by an individual
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controlled instability
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Ability of the kinetic chain to stablize a joint during movement
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Dynamic Joint stabilization
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Balance is a static process
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False- Functional balance is a dynamic process involving multiple neurological pathways
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Adequate force reduction and stabilization are required for optimum force producation
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True
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An individual's limit of stability is the distance outside of thebgase of support tht they can go to without losing control of their center of gravity
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True
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Only when playing sports is balance training effective
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False - Whether on a bball court, stability ball, or walking downstairs, maintaining balance is the key to all functional movements
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Maintence of postural equilibrium is a static process
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False - Postural equilibrium is an intergrated, dynamic process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency
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The main goal of balance training is to continually increase the client's awareness of their limits of stability by creating the most unstable envoronment avaiable
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False- The main goal of balance training is to increase a client's limits of stability by training in the most unstable environment tht they can safely control.
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Balance Stabilization exercises level
Reps Tempo |
Single leg balance, Single leg balance and reach, Single leg balance hip internal and external rotation, single leg lift and chop
10 reps 3 secs in perfect alignment |
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Balance Strength Level Exercises
Reps Tempo |
Single-leg Squat, Single-leg squat touchdown, Single-leg romanian deadlift, Step-up to balance, lunge to balance,
8 reps 3-2-1 tempo |
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Power Level exercises
Reps Tempo |
Multiplanar hop with stablization (Sag, frontal, Tran hop with stabilization), box hop up with stabilization, Boz hop down with stabilization.
8 reps controlled tempo |
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Exercises that utilizes quick, powerful movements involving an eccentric contraction immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction
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Reactive Training
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To move with percision, forces must be reduced (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and the produce concentrically
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Integrated performance paradigm
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Ability of the muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.
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Rate of force production
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The ability to react to stimulus and change the motion of the body in all planes of motion.
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Quickness
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The ability of accelerate, decelerate and change direction quickly while maintaining proper posture
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Agility
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The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible
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Speed
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Speed is the product of?
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Stride rate and stride length
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Proper sprint mechanics includes frontside mechanics
and backside mechanics, what are they? |
Frontside = Triple flexion - ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexionof the front leg
Backside = triple extension- ankle plantar flexion, knee extension,and hip extension of the back leg |
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Stress that is intolerable to the client and that will produce breakdown or injury.
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Exhaustion
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Principle that states the body will specifically adapt to the type of demand placed upon it
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Principle of specificity
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Refers to the energy demand placed upon the body
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Metobolic specificity
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The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome external force
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Strength
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General pattern of adaptation brought forth by stresses placed upon thte kinetic chain
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General adaptation syndrome
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The initial reaction to a stressor that allows for protective processses withiin the body.
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Alarm reaction
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A stage where the kinetic chain increases its functional capacity to adapt to the stressor
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Resistance development
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Refers to the speed of contractions and exercise selection
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Neuromuscular specificity
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Refers to the weight and movements placed on the body
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Mechanical specificity
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Divisions of a training program into smaller progressive stages
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Periodization
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If a client demonstrates the movement compensationof an arching low back(anterior pelvic tilt) during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following choices would be implicated as being tight(overactive)
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Erector spinae
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When conducting the waist-to-hip ratio, what is the ratio for women and for men which may put these individuals at risk for a number of diseases
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.80 and .95
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It has been shown that obseity -related health problems begin to increase when a person;s BMI exceeds
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25
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What is the appropriate weight increase, following warm-up when performing a lower extremity strength assessment ( Squat)
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30 to 40 lbs
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Beta Blockers typically have what type of affect of the client's heart rate
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Decrease
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After a client has warmed up with light resistance for 8-10 rep, how much additional weight should be added when performing the lower extremity strength assessment
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30-40 lbs
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During the overhead squat assessment a client demostrates arms falling forward. In this scenario, which of the following stretches would be appropriate
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Static lat stretch
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What are the average resting heart rates for a male and female
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70 and 75
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What is the name of the assessment that tests upper extremity neuromuscular efficiency
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Pushing assessment
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Which of the following options would likely be considered underactive if a client's head protrudes forward during the concentric phase of a pulliing assessment
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Deep Cervical flexors
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A cellular structure that supplies energy for many biochemical cellular processess by undergoing enzymatic hydrolysis is known as
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Adenenosine triphosphate
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Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for concentrically accelerating hip flexion and internal rotation
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Tensor fascia latae
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What is the term given to an anatomical location referring to a position on the same side of the body
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Ipsilateral
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When assiting muscle in the force couple substitutes for a prime mover during a muscle contraction which of the following is occuring
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Synergistic dominance
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A lunge to two arm dumbbell press is considered what type of exercise
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Total body strength
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condition in which there is a decrease in bone mass and density as well as an increase in the space between bones
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Osteroporosis
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Degeneration joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissues
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Rheumatoid arthritis
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Conditions where lung tissues is normal, but flows are restricted
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Obstructive lung disease
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Characterized by narrowing of the major arteries that are responsible for supplying blood to the lower extremity
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Preipheral arterial disease
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Degeneration of cartilage in joints
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osteoarthritis
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Fastest growing health problem in the US
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obesity
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The precursor of osteoporosis and is indicated by lowered bone mass
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Osteopenia
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Conditions where the ability to expand the lungs is decreased
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Restrictive Lung Disease
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Metabolic disorder in which the body's ability to produce insulin or to utilize glucose is altered
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Diabetes
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Characterized by limping, lameness, and/or pain in the lower leg during mild exercise, resulting from a decrease in blood to the lower extremities
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Intermittent claudication
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Blood pressure of 140/90 or greater
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Hypertension
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Any various types of malignant neoplasm, most of which invade surrounding tissues, may spreadto several sites and arelikely to recur after attempted removal
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Cancer
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Inflammatory condition that mainly affects the joints
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Arthritis
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Amino acids the body is able to manufacture
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Non essential amino acids
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The utilization of protein for building and repairing tissues or structures
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Protein synthesis
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The sum of processess by which an animal or plant takes in and utilizes food substances
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Nutrition
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A food source that is low or lacking in one or more essential amino acid
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Incomplete protein
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Amino acid are utilized to assist in energy production
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Gluconeogensis
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made up of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds
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Protein
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amino acids the body is unable to manufacture
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Essential amino acids
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a measure of protein quality or how well it satisfies the body's essential amino acids needs
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Biological value
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A food source that supplies all of the essential amino acid in appropriate ratios
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Complete protein
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The storage form of carbohydrates in human is
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Gylcogen
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The rate at which ingested carbohydrates raise blood sugar and its accompanying effect on insulin release is referred to as
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Gylcogen index
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Weight gain or loss is related to total______________not the source of food eaten
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Energy intake
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The limiting factors for exercise performance is ________availability because maximal ___________ utilization cannot occur without it
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Carbohydrates, fat
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For most moderately active adults, a carbohydrates intake between _______ is recommended.
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50-70 %
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For individuals participating in endurance exercise a diet consisting of __________ of total calories from carbohydrates is recommended
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60%
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Of the lipids contained in foods, 95% are _______ and _____
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Fats, oils
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____________fatty acids are implicated as a risk factor for heart disease by raising bad cholesterol levels, whereas,______ fats are associated with increases in good cholesterol.
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Saturated, unsaturated
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If the goal is fat loss or to enhance overall health, a diet containing _________ of calories from fat is recommended
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10-30%
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an individual should drink approximately _______onces of water per day
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96
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Provides guidelines for what constitues an adequate intake of a nutrient
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Dietary reference intakes
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A recommended average daily nutrient intake level based on estimates of nutrient intake that are adequate for group of healthy people
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Adequate intake
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Labels that provide product information on required nutrient amounts and precent of daily value
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Supplement facts panel
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The average daily intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals
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Recommended dietary allowance
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A Substance that completes or makes an addition to daily intake
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Dietary Supplement
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The average daily nutrient intake level tht is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group
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Estimated Average Requirements
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The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no adverse health effects to almost all individuals
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Tolerable upper intake level
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Upper intake level values are set for each nutrient except for __________ and __________. The UL's for these nutrients are set from supplements or pharmacological sources only
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Vitamin E, Magnesium
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Excess ___________ can cause birth defects when a woman is taking too much at conception and during early pregnancy
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Vitamin A
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Excess ________ can result in the calcification of blood vessels and eventually damage the function of kidneys, heart and lungs
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Vitamin D
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Excess intake of ________ can interfere with the absorption of other minerals and can cause gastrointestinal irritation
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Iron
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Supplementation with Vitamin E and ________can complicate conditions for people on blood thinner
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Vitamin K 150
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Large doses of anti-inflammatory drugs may interfere with ____function and increase its requirement
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Folic Acid
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What does READ mean
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Rapport, empathy, assessment, developing
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