Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
266 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
The acronym TIPS is useful to assist supervisors from committing unfair labor practices during an organizing campaign. What does it stand for? |
Employers may not THREATEN, INTERROGATE, PROMISE or SPY on employees during an organizing campaign. |
|
|
True or false: Simulation training is used to teach inexperienced workers how to use hazardous equipment. |
False. Simulation training provides learners with opportunities to try new skills or procedures in a safe environment. Vestibule training provides learners with opportunities to learn how to operate hazardous equipment safely (ch. 5). |
|
|
What is at-will employment? |
At-will employment allows employers and employees to end an employment relationship at any time, for any reason, with or without cause (ch. 7). |
|
|
A type of analysis that uses statistical measures to collect, interpret and communicate data is called what? |
Quantitative analysis |
|
|
An HR professional whose work requires an understanding of all the major human resource functions is known as what? |
A human resource generalist |
|
|
Name three types of pay differentials |
A pay differential pays additional compensation for work that goes beyond minimum job requirements. Some forms are overtime, shift pay, on-call pay, call-back pay, reporting pay, hazard pay and geographic pay. |
|
|
Cashiers hired at a big-box store are given a test after one week of training and before they start work. The store manager evaluates their performance after 6 months on the job. If the scores are very similar, this is called _______. |
Predictive validity |
|
|
True or false: Restricted stock may be issued only to executive employees. |
False. Restricted stock is common stock offered to employees to reward retention. |
|
|
An informal communication method in which a small group of employees meet with a senior manager to learn more about the company and ask questions is known as a _____________. |
Brown-bag lunch |
|
|
Describe the point-factor methodology |
The point-factor methodology is a job-classification method that uses benchmark jobs that are assigned points based on factors such as education, skill, effort and so on. Salary ranges are assigned to each position based on the total number of points assigned. |
|
|
What is the difference between supervisory training and management development? |
Supervisory training focuses on interactions with employees, such as discipline and performance management; management-development programs build expertise for achieving results through others and develop skills in budgeting, internal controls and so on. |
|
|
What is one technique for selecting employees that exposes the candidate to a typical day on the job? |
A realistic job preview |
|
|
Surveying, identifying and interpreting relevant data to identify external opportunities and threats is called what? |
Environmental scanning |
|
|
What is the function of the NLRB? |
The National Labor Relations Board was established by the National Labor Relations Act to conduct representation elections, prevent and remedy unfair labor practices, and enforce provisions of the NLRA. The NLRB does not originate actions; it responds to charges filed by employees, employers, or unions. |
|
|
What are five types of biological hazards? |
Bacteria, contaminated water, dust, fungi, mold, plants and viruses |
|
|
The ability of an instrument to measure consistently is called what? |
Reliability |
|
|
True or false: Incentive stock options are awarded to employees and consultants. |
False. ISOs can only be awarded to employees. |
|
|
What is a decertification election? |
Employees who are dissatisfied with the union can petition the NLRB for an election to remove the union as their representative. |
|
|
True or false: One way for an employer to defend against negligent-hiring claims is to verify an applicant's Social Security number. |
True |
|
|
What type of information is provided by the reaction evaluation method? |
A reaction evaluation is the first level of training evaluation. It measures the effectiveness of the presentation by asking learners for their initial reaction to the training. The most common way to collect reaction evaluation is by asking participants to complete a survey before they leave the training. |
|
|
What is the purpose of an authorization card? |
Authorization cards are written, signed statements from individual employees that they support a union election. The NLRB will hold an election if at least 30 percent of the employees in a bargaining unit have signed valid authorization cards. |
|
|
Define a highly compensated employee. |
ERISA defines an HCE as an employee who earns $110,000 during the plan year, owns 5% or more of the company and is one of the 20 highest paid employees in the company. |
|
|
The final phase of strategic planning, called ____, includes reviewing strategies, measuring performance, and tracking appropriate corrective action. |
Strategy evaluation |
|
|
What benefit does a student receive for working as an intern? |
Internship programs provide students with a real-world opportunity to gain experience in their chosen fields. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a check sheet? |
A check sheet is a simple analysis tool used in TQM to track a list of expected outcomes, such as reasons people might be absent from work. |
|
|
A glass ceiling refers to barriers used to keep women and minorities from advancing in senior ranks of corporate management. What are the three types of barriers identified? |
Societal, internal structure and governmental. |
|
|
What can an employer do to prevent a single catastrophic claim from devastating its self-funded health insurance plan? |
Employers can purchase stop-loss insurance to cover claims that exceed a preestablished amount. |
|
|
Workers hired for short periods of high labor demand are called ___________. |
Seasonal workers |
|
|
__________ is the phase of the strategic-planning process in which the organization's vision, mission, and values are composed. |
Strategy formulation |
|
|
___________ is the process of dividing work into specialized jobs that are performed by separate individuals. |
Division of labor |
|
|
______________ occurs when the US Supreme Court agrees to hear a case. |
Certiorari |
|
|
Name three employee-involvement strategies. |
Typical employee-involvement strategies include suggestion boxes, delegation of authority, formation of a task force to solve a specific problem, committee assignments, work teams, employee-management committees, virtual work teams and self-directed work teams. |
|
|
How must employers dispose of paper documents generated by a CRA as part of a background check? |
Paper documents may be shredded, pulverized, or burned in a way that prevents them from being reassembled. |
|
|
True or false: A compa-ratio compares a person's pay rate with a comparable pay range. |
False. A compa-ratio compares a person's pay rate with the midpoint of a pay range. |
|
|
Training provided in response to a request for assistance by an employee is an example of what level of training? |
Inidividual-level training |
|
|
What are compensable factors? |
Compensable factors are characteristics used to define a job and distinguish it from other jobs. |
|
|
True or false: Good-faith bargaining occurs when parties make offers and counteroffers to reach an agreement. |
True |
|
|
Name the four broad categories of strategic planning. |
Environmental scanning, strategy formulation, strategy implementation and strategy evaluation |
|
|
What is outplacement? |
Outplacement services are provided to employees leaving a company, usually as the result of a layoff. Typical outplacement services include resume development, job-search skills, and interview preparation. |
|
|
A contract that can be created by an employer's conduct but does not need to be spoken or written is an ___________. |
Implied contract |
|
|
A third party that gathers information about individuals and supplies that information to an employer is a ______________. |
Consumer reporting agency (CRA) |
|
|
What's the difference between an emergency action plan and an emergency response plan? |
An emergency action plan is required by OSHA and provides instructions for employees to follow during an evacuation. An emergency response plan describes how the organization will respond to different emergency situations in order to restore operations. The OSHA emergency action plan is part of the ERP. |
|
|
True or false: A mentor helps co-workers understand technology. |
False. A reverse mentor is a younger employee who helps older co-workers understand technology and the culture of the younger generation. |
|
|
Job duties that must be able to be performed, either with or without accommodation, are called what? |
Essential functions |
|
|
The ___________ limits the amount of wages that can be garnished or withheld in any one week by an employer to satisfy creditors. |
Consumer Credit Protection Act |
|
|
What is the practice of requiring employers to hire extra workers who are not wanted or needed called? |
Featherbedding |
|
|
A(n) __________ analysis shows the point in time when the return of an HR program is equal to or greater than the money put into it. |
Break-even |
|
|
True or false: According to the WARN Act, a faltering company is one experiencing sudden, unexpected negative changes that could not have been predicted. |
False. The faltering-company exception applies to companies actively seeking additional funding with reasonable expectation of receiving sufficient funds to prevent a closure or layoff. |
|
|
For what reason would an organization implement task-level training? |
Organizations implement task-level training to increase productivity or improve poor-quality results. |
|
|
How does a compressed workweek encourage positive employee relations? |
A compressed workweek can solve employees' needs to care for children or elderly parents, reducing stress and allowing employee to focus on job performance while they are at work. |
|
|
A ____________ is the period of time during which a pattern of performance measured in a trend analysis becomes apparent. |
Cycle |
|
|
What is the best way to keep track of a large volume of applications and resumes? |
An applicant-tracking system |
|
|
True or false: A part in interest is the plan administrator. |
False. A part in interest may be a fiduciary for the plan, a service provider, an owner of 50 percent or more of the business, a relative of any of these or a corporation involved with the plan in one of these functions. |
|
|
What are the three components defined by the EEOC as constituting a hostile work environment? |
A hostile work environment is one in which submitting to or rejecting unwelcome verbal ro physical conduct will explicitly or implicitly 1) affect an employee's employment; 2) unreasonably interfere with the individual's ability to perform their job; or 3) create an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment. |
|
|
True or false: Focal reviews occur on employee anniversary dates. |
False. Organizations that use a focal-review model conduct performance appraisals for all employees during the same period of time. |
|
|
What criterion is used to evaluate resumes during the selection process? |
Candidate qualifications are compared to essential job functions to determine whether the person would be able to successfully perform in the position. |
|
|
What are the characteristics of a divisional organization structure? |
Divisional structures are organized by market or industry segments (or some other criteria) into decentralized decision-making groups. This structure is similar to the geographic structure. |
|
|
True or false: FMLA allows employees to work for other companies while they are on FMLA leave. |
False, per Pharakhone v. Nissan North America, Inc.. Employees violating this may be terminated and not reinstated at the end of FMLA. |
|
|
Questions that begin with what, where, why, when, or how are called what? |
Open-ended |
|
|
A legal order issued by a state court to require pension payments to the dependent of a plan participant is known as a ___________. |
Qualified domestic relations order (QDRO) |
|
|
A framework that aligns individual business-function measures with organizational strategies to track progress and reinforce accountability and opportunities is called what? |
Balanced scorecard |
|
|
What is a forced-ranking evaluation method? |
In the forced-ranking evaluation method, managers rank employees according to the bell curve, with a small group of employees at the high end, a small group at the low end and the majority in the average range. |
|
|
True or false: A polycentric approach for global staffing policy occurs when the best-qualified people are placed in positions regardless of their countries of origin. |
False. A polycentric staffing approach places expatriates in corporate home-country positions, while host-country positions are filled with home-country nationals. |
|
|
What is the purpose of an organization incentive? |
Organization incentives are used to increase productivity, encourage teamwork, and share financial rewards with the employees. |
|
|
An agency shop is what? |
A union clause that requires all employees to pay union dues but does not require that they become union members. |
|
|
True or false: A conference is an example of an active training method. |
False. A conference, which is a combination of lecture or presentation with Q&A sessions, is an example of a passive training method. |
|
|
True or false: Scheduled drug testing is an effective method for detective employee substance abuse. |
False. This is the lease effective method because employees have advance notice. |
|
|
True or false: The first step in a needs analysis is to define the current situation. |
False. The first step in a needs analysis is to describe the objective, or what is to be accomplished. |
|
|
__________ is the degree to which operations are done in an economical manner. |
Efficiency |
|
|
True or false; Quid pro quo harassment occurs when an individual is subjected to unwelcome verbal or physical conduct. |
False. Quid pro quo harassment occurs when a person of authority promises a favorable employment action in exchange for sexual favors. |
|
|
True or false: Bona fide occupational qualifications are attributes that allow an employer to discriminate when they are necessary for operation of the business. |
True |
|
|
True or false: Work rules provide guidance for employees on how to apply organization policies to work situations. |
False. Work rules state what employees need to do to comply with policies. Procedures explain how organization policies are to be applied. |
|
|
What is the premise of Alderfer's ERG theory for motivation? |
The ERG theory says that people have three levels of needs - existence, relatedness, and growth - and that people can operate on more than one level simultaneously. |
|
|
What is the procedure for developing a wage structure based on an assessment of the job? |
Job evaluation |
|
|
What benefit does an employer realize from sponsoring an internship program? |
Internship programs give employers the chance to observe the intern's performance prior to making an offer for full-time employment. |
|
|
A statement that identifies the course that management has charted for the future and the associated activities that the organization intends to pursue is called what? |
A mission statement |
|
|
True or false: The EEOC guideline to determine whether a selection procedure has an adverse impact on selection is called the three-fifths rule. |
False. It is called the four-fifths rule. |
|
|
What is a learning curve? |
A learning curve is a graph that shows the rate of learning over time. |
|
|
A(n) _________ is the financial statement that provides information about an employer's financial condition on a specific day. |
Balance sheet. |
|
|
Attitudinal and organizational barriers that inhibit the career advancement of women and minorities are called whta? |
A glass ceiling |
|
|
True or false: An organization recruits all employees from the same labor market. |
False. The labor market varies depending on the knowledge, skills and abilities required for the position and the supply and demand for those KSAs at a given time. |
|
|
True or false: The similar-to-me bias occurs when an interviewer is soft on a candidate and gives a higher rating than the candidate earned. |
False. The similar-to-me bias occurs when an interviewer and candidate learn they have compatible interests and the interviewer overlooks negative aspects about the candidate as a result. |
|
|
What is the focus of TQM? |
TQM is a long-term, techno-structural intervention that focuses all of the organization resources on providing value for customers. |
|
|
_____________ is a risk-assessment tool used to determine whether unlawful or inappropriate conduct has occurred. |
Workplace investigation |
|
|
True or false: Organizational culture describes an organization based on observable practices and employee perceptions. |
False. Culture is based on the values and beliefs shared at all organization levels and reflected in interactions between employees and those outside the organization. |
|
|
True or false: Employee self-service is convenient for employees and cost-effective for HR Management. |
True |
|
|
What does the plan sponsor do? |
The plan sponsor may be a single employer, a labor organization, or a group that establishes a pension plan. |
|
|
The process used to gather names of candidates in active and passive labor markets is known as ___________. |
Sourcing |
|
|
When developing an HR staffing plan, what quantitative-analysis tool is the best way to forecast staffing needs? |
Simple linear regression |
|
|
What is talent assessment? |
Talent assessment uses tools similar to those used in the selection process to identify those employees who will be chosen for career-development programs such as job rotation or high potential |
|
|
What is a contract bar? |
A contract bar occurs when a valid union contract is in existence. |
|
|
When new employees are hired at salaries greater than the salaries of employees who have been in the same job for a longer period of time, this is called ___________. |
Wage compression |
|
|
Why would an employer consider helping employees develop career portfolios? |
A career portfolio contains information employers can use to plan development opportunities for talented employees. |
|
|
The process used to create a job description or a job specification is called what? |
Job analysis |
|
|
What are the detailed steps that a unit, department, or team will take to achieve short-term objectives called? |
Action plan |
|
|
What is a geocentric staffing strategy? |
The best-qualified individuals are placed into positions throughout the organization without regard to their countries of origin. |
|
|
Jobs that are underpaid relative to a pay grade are called what? |
Green-circle jobs |
|
|
What is a position of relative advantage over your competition called? |
Competitive advantage |
|
|
The instructional method that examines ideas in a question-and-answer format is known as ___________. |
The Socratic seminar |
|
|
What is job bidding? |
Job bidding allows employees who are interested in a position to apply before it becomes vacant. |
|
|
True or false: Ellerth v. Burlington Northern Industries is the ruling that distinguished between supervisor harassment that results in tangible employment action and supervisor harassment that does not. |
False. It was Faragher v. City of Boca Raton |
|
|
True or false: MSHA issues MSDS reports. |
False. OSHA requires chemical manufacturers to prepare MSDSs and provide them to purchasers of their products. |
|
|
An HR accounting measure that estimates the cost to replace an employee in current dollars is called what? |
The replacement cost |
|
|
True or false: A transactional leader focuses on getting the job done by rewarding employees who accomplish organization goals. |
True |
|
|
What is an excelsior list? |
An excelsior list includes the names and addresses of all employees in the bargaining unit and is provided to the union within 7 days after the NLRB schedules an election. |
|
|
True or false: In an entitlement culture, employees have line of sight between their pay and performance. |
False. An entitlement culture rewards seniority, and there is no connection between pay and performance. |
|
|
_________ bias occurs when interviewers are influenced by a candidate's body language. |
Nonverbal |
|
|
True or false: Transfer of training occurs as a result of the instructor teaching students about a subject. |
False. Transfer of training occurs when learning takes place outside the normal work environment and what is learned is then applied to the regular work situation. |
|
|
An HR professional who focuses on a particular human resources function such as compensation or recruitment is called what? |
A human resource specialist |
|
|
A study in which variables in an organization are measured and correlated is called what? |
Correlational study |
|
|
An impartial person, not involved in a dispute, who speaks with both parties and suggests alternative solutions is known as an ________. |
Ombuds or ombudsman |
|
|
What is the purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Act? |
OSHA was enacted to reduce or eliminate workplace injury and illness. It requires employers to provide a safe workplace and comply with safety and health standards. |
|
|
What four categories are used in a replacement chart? |
Ready for promotion, develop for future promotion, satisfactory in current position, replace. |
|
|
In a ______ plan, employees work with managers to improve productivity and share the financial benefits of improvements. |
Gainsharing |
|
|
True or false: A sample is a portion of the population that is used to draw conclusions regarding the entire population. |
True |
|
|
What is the theory of motivation that ranks physiological needs, safety needs, social needs, esteem needs, and self-actualization needs? |
Maslow's hierarchy of needs |
|
|
True or false: A wildcat strike occurs when employees stop working and stay at their workstations. |
False. A wildcat strike is one that violates the terms of a no-strike clause in the CBA. |
|
|
Why is it important for the executive team to identify and promote values in the organization? |
Values describe what is important to an organization, prescribe employee behavior, and establish the organizational culture. |
|
|
Dividing the average number of total employees by the number of employees who exited the organization during a specific time period is a metric known as ________. |
Turnover |
|
|
What are the combined knowledge, skills and experience of a company's employees called? |
Human capital |
|
|
What is the difference between active and passive training methods? |
A passive training method is one in which the learner listens to and absorbs information, and the focus is on the instructor. An active training method focuses on the learner, and the instructor acts more as a facilitator or guide. |
|
|
True or false: Local nationals are employees hired by a multinational company to work in their own country (they are also called host-country national). |
True |
|
|
The _______ is a masure of central tendency that indicates the average score or value. |
Mean |
|
|
This act requires that construction contractors that receive federal funds and their subcontractors pay at least the prevailing wage for the local area. |
The Davis-Bacon Act (1931) |
|
|
True or false: Midterm objectives are completed in 1-3 years. |
True |
|
|
True or false: The vestibule training method reproduces a realistic situation so learners can analyze circumstances in a way similar to what would be encountered on the job. |
False. Vestibule training allows inexperienced workers to become familiar with and operate equipment that is hazardous or requires a level of speed that is achieved with practice. |
|
|
What is the purpose of section 404 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act? |
Section 404 is the part of SOX requiring the implementation and review of internal control measures to ensure the integrity of business operations. |
|
|
The use of data already gathered by others and reported in various sources is called what? |
Secondary research |
|
|
An evaluation of how well the human resource cepartment is performing its responsibilities and meeting its objectives is called what? |
HR audit |
|
|
What is an executive order? |
A presidential proclamation published in the Federal Register that becomes law 30 days later. |
|
|
Which measure of central tendency indicates the point below which 50% of the scores lie? |
Median |
|
|
Measures that need to be accomplished in 3-5 years in order for an organization to meet its mission are called what? |
Long-term objectives |
|
|
What court ruling ultimately established the reasonable-person standard in sexual-harassment cases? |
Harris v. Forklift Systems, Inc. |
|
|
Creating wide salary ranges so there are fewer ranges with more jobs in each range is called what? |
Broadbanding |
|
|
The _____ is the measure of variation that indicates the distance between the highest and lowest scores. |
Range |
|
|
How is a SWOT used in an organization? |
A SWOT analysis (strenths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats) is ued to gather information used in the strategic-planning process. |
|
|
When a job is designed to include challenging tasks and/or new responsibilities, this is known as _____________. |
Job enrichment |
|
|
What is inter-rate reliability? |
Inter-rater reliability is a process used when organizations are concerned about bias in performance appraisals. The process uses multiple raters and averages their scores to reduce the possibility of errors related to bias. |
|
|
True or false: Thinking is an example of a major life activity. |
True |
|
|
Data that is collected firsthand for the specific analysis that is being conducted is called what? |
Primary research |
|
|
A business moves its customer-service operation to a call center in India. This practice is known as _____________. |
Offshoring |
|
|
What is the difference between stock options and employee stock-ownership plans? |
Stock options are granted to employees and give them the right to purchase stock at a future date at a designated price. An ESOP is a defined-contribution plan that allows employees to purchase stock in the company. |
|
|
What are three objectives of a nondisclosure agreement? |
NDA objectives are to define what is confidential, identify restrictions for using confidential information, define how long confidentiality must be maintained, require identification of prior discoveries or inventions, and prevent confidential information from outside sources from being used. |
|
|
What is regression analysis? |
A statistical technique for predicting the value of one dependent variable based on a weighted combination of independent variables. |
|
|
A formal, rigid organizational structure in which communication moves from the top down and the bottom up is known as what? |
Functional structure |
|
|
What are the three components of the expectancy theory of motivation? |
Expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. |
|
|
_____________ are basic job characteristics and broad statements of the factors needed to be successful in the organization. |
Job competencies. |
|
|
An essay review is an example of ___________. |
A narrative review method. |
|
|
True or false: The OSHA Alliance Program allows employer organizations to participate in workplace health & safety issues. |
True |
|
|
An interviewer who evaluates a candidate negatively based on a single characteristic may be being influenced by what bias? |
Horn effect |
|
|
An ADR technique consisting of managers and nonmanagers who hear disputes and resolves conflict is known as a(n) _____________. |
Peer-review panel |
|
|
_____________ training methods focus on the learner. |
Active training methods. |
|
|
What is the purpose of reengineering? |
Increasing customer satisfaction by simplifying or eliminating redundancy to improve efficiency. |
|
|
A test that produces consistent scores over time is said to have ________________. |
Reliability |
|
|
Shared vision is required by what type of strategic intervention? |
Shared vision is one of the five disciplines of a learning organization. |
|
|
True or false: Bargaining units are established by the union. |
False. The composition of a bargaining unit is determined by the NLRB. |
|
|
True or false: Money is one example of Herzberg's hygiene factors. |
True |
|
|
What is reinforcement theory? |
A theory of motivation that says behavior is determined by the types of rewards or punishments associated with the behavior. |
|
|
What is the difference between andragogy and pedagogy? |
Adult learning theory, or andragogy, describes learning in which the learner participates in decisions about what will be taught and how the learning will be delivered. Pedagogy, the study of how children learn, is defined as learning in which the teacher decides what will be taught and how it will be delivered. |
|
|
What are the three exceptions to the WARN Act? |
Faltering company, unforeseeable business circumstances and natural disaster. |
|
|
True or false: HIPAA regulations prevent HR practitioners from assisting an employee who has problems with a health-insurance claim. |
False. If employees provide written authorization for release of information to the TPA or insurance company, HR can assist the employee. |
|
|
True or false: An income statement provides information about the money that moves through a business during a specified accounting period, describing where it came from and what it was used for. |
False. An income statement provides information about the financial results of operation during a specified accounting period. |
|
|
What is the purpose of an orientation program? |
Orientation programs reduce the time employees need to become productive in a new job by introducing them to the organization and providing the support they need to become successful. |
|
|
True or false: A kinesthetic learner retains information best during hands-on training. |
True |
|
|
What are the circumstances in which a product-based organization structure is most appropriate? |
A product-based structure is best when the business has well-defined product lines that are clearly separate from each other. |
|
|
True or false: The Delphi technique is used to gather a wide variety of ideas from geographically dispersed individuals. |
True |
|
|
What is extinction? |
Extinction is the fourth intervention strategy in Skinner's theory of operant conditioning. Extinction discourages future occurrence of a behavior by ceasing to reinforce it. |
|
|
What factors are scanned in a PEST analysis? |
POLITICAL, ECONOMIC, SOCIAL and TECHNOLOGICAL. |
|
|
A management technique that initiates, plans, executes, controls and closes a temporary assignment is called ____________. |
Project management |
|
|
What was the 1971 case that identified adverse impact discrimination? |
Griggs v. Duke Power |
|
|
True or false: Unfair labor practices are committed only by management. |
False. ULPs can be committed by both management and union members. |
|
|
A stratification chart is used to show what type of information? |
Stratification charts show the individual aspects of an identified problem, such as absenteeism. In a bar graph, for example, one bar represents the total number of absences, and the other bars represent the number of absences for various reasons, such as illness, vacation, unexcused and so on. |
|
|
When a company identifies a low-probability risk with low consequences, what would be the most likely decision to manage the risk? |
Risk acceptance |
|
|
What is the best way to obtain honest, candid information during an exit interview? |
Exiting employees are more likely to provide honest feedback when exit interviews are conducted by a third party. |
|
|
What are the 5 steps of primary research? |
Identify a problem, create a hypothesis, decide how to test the hypothesis, collect data to verify the hypothesis, and draw conclusions from data analysis. |
|
|
True or false: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act prohibits discrimination in employment for persons aged 40 or older except where this ages is a BFOQ. |
True |
|
|
Faragher v. City of Boca Raton established the definition of a tangible employment action. What is it? |
A tangible employment action (TEA) is "a significant change in employment status, such as hiring, firing, failing to promote, reassignment with significantly different responsibilities, or a decision causing a significant change in benefits." |
|
|
What is the difference between instrinsic and extrinsic rewards? |
Intrinsic rewards motivate employees through challenging and exciting work and individual recognition. Extrinsic rewards motivate employees through external means such as working with talented peers in a team environment. |
|
|
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission is a government agency created by what act? |
The Civil Rights Act of 1964 |
|
|
The organizational function responsible for producing financial statements is known as _________________. |
Accounting |
|
|
A training method that informs and answers questions is called a(n) ____________. |
Lecture |
|
|
What is EPLI, and why is it important? |
EPLI stands for employment practices liability insurance, and it transfers risk from a business to an insurance company in the event of a settlement or judgment from an employee lawsuit. |
|
|
Written plans for recruiting and hiring minorities and females are called what? |
Affirmative action plans |
|
|
True or false: Short-term objectives are milestones that are usually achieved within 6 months to 1 year. |
True |
|
|
A consent election occurs when what happens? |
A consent election occurs when the employer and the union are able to resolve their differences during an NLRB conference. |
|
|
What are the three types of environmental health hazards? |
Chemical, physical and biological. |
|
|
True or false: In a defined-benefit plan, the contribution amount varies from year to year. |
True. In a defined-benefit plan, the contribution made by the company each year fluctuates based on actuarial calculations and the performance of plan investments. |
|
|
What HR activity focuses on the acquisition or enhancement of specific skills or knowledge to address an organization's current or short-term needs? |
Training |
|
|
True or false: Adverse impact occurs when the selection rate for any minority or gender group is less than 4/5 of the selection rate for the highest group. |
True |
|
|
True or false: An ad hoc arbitrator is one who both parties agree is impartial and able to resolve disputes between them. |
False. An ad hoc arbitrator is selected to hear a single case between two parties, while a permanent arbitrator is one who the parties agree will settle any disputes that arise between them. |
|
|
|
Organizational structures are the framework that defines how information flows between functions and employees. |
|
|
A reduction-in-force that occurs when an employer does not replace employees when they leave is known as what? |
Attrition |
|
|
An ADR method that identifies ways the parties in a dispute are aggravating each other and assists them in working through the dispute is known as ______________. |
Constructive confrontation |
|
|
True or false: Validity is the ability of an instrument to measure what it is intended to measure. |
True |
|
|
What is the key difference between an employee and an independent contractor? |
The level of control that the employer has over the individual. |
|
|
If an employee performs a task sporadically but not often enough to become efficient, what type of learning curve would be expected? |
A plateau learning curve begins with a rapid increase in knowledge that levels off; additional progress is not made for an extended period of time. |
|
|
Why would a company choose to use a payrolliing service instead of a temp agency? |
Payrolling services are useful when a company has an individual willing to work in a temporary position but does not want to add that person to its payroll. The services is generally less expensive than a temp agency fee. |
|
|
When is the presentation training method the best choice? |
The presentation training method is used to provide the same information to a group of people at one time, such as announcements that affect all employees. |
|
|
What is stop-loss insurance? |
Stop-loss insurance is purchased by employers that self-insure their employee health insurance. Employers pay out claims up to a predetermined amount, after which the stop-loss policy pays additional claims up to the policy limits. |
|
|
A directed election is what? |
A representation election directed by the NLRB after a pre-election hearing to settle disputes between the union and the employer. |
|
|
A(n) ____________ provides guidelines for moving from disaster recovery to normal operations. |
Continuity of operations plan (COOP) |
|
|
A(n) ____________ provides claim-management services for an employer's benefit plan. |
Third-party administrator |
|
|
List the two main types of return-to-work strategies |
Modified duty, reasonable accomodation |
|
|
What are the primary benefits of an independent medical exam? |
IMEs can help prevent fraud and deal with improper diagnosis or treatment. |
|
|
What are four methods available to gather employee feedback? |
Employee surveys, exit interviews, skip-level interviews, and employee focus groups. |
|
|
Programs that are designed to acknowledge the longevity or performance efforts of employees are called what? |
Recognition programs. |
|
|
Knowledge, work experience, cultural backgrounds, and problem-solving techniques are all examples of what type of employee-relations program? |
Diversity-management programs |
|
|
What is the primary difference between a reference guide and a standard operating procedure? |
A reference guide is a tool used to organize large amounts of data into a single source document. SOPs are tools that are used to capture processes that typically follow a sequence of events. |
|
|
Payroll, COBRA, and employee-recognition services are all examples of what HR activity? |
Outsourcing |
|
|
What are the two basic types of pay systems? |
Base pay and variable pay |
|
|
Benchmarking, employee surveys, and trend analysis are examples of what compensation and benefit activity? |
Conducting compensation and benefits needs assessments. |
|
|
Identifying workforce requirements and adapting the corporate structure to reach short- and long-term goals falls under which of the functional areas of human resource management? |
Workforce Planning and Employment |
|
|
What are the two main strategies for a workforce reduction? |
Layoff and reduction in force |
|
|
Life five types of alternative staffing strategies. |
Job sharing, part-time employees, interns, temporary workers, on-call workers, contractors, employee leasing, outsourcing. |
|
|
Industry activity is an analysis used to determine what? |
Conditions of the labor market that affect the ability of an organization to hire the qualified individuals it needs. |
|
|
What are the three main categories of the labor market? |
Geographic, technical/professional skills, and education. |
|
|
What do the organization's mission, vision, values, business goals, objectives, plans, and processes have in common?
A. They are all strategies related to managing organizational change. B. They are all elements to completing a SWOT audit. C. They are all necessary to interpret an organization's internal operational strengths and weaknesses. D. They are all measures necessary to evaluate HR contributions.
|
C. They are all necessary to interpret an organization's internal operational strengths and weaknesses. |
|
|
Attending end-of-year seminars, working to influence legislative changes, and auditing an employee manual for compliance are all examples of which of the following?
A. Monitoring the legislative and regulatory environment. B. HR due-diligence responsibilities C. Transitioning corporations in an uncertain economy D. Establishing a competitive advantage |
A. Monitoring the legislative and regulatory environment. |
|
|
Which of the following is the most effective order of the strategic-planning process?
A. Preplan, formulate, implement, scan, evaluate/adjust. B. Formulate, environmental scan, implement, evaluation/adjust C. Scan, formulate, implement, evaluate D. Preplan, environmental scan, formulate, implement, evaluate/adjust |
D. Preplan, environmental scan, formulate, implement, evaluate/adjust |
|
|
Which of the following negative outcomes best reflects the failure to align the human resource strategic plan with the organization's strategic plan?
A. Lack of plan management B. Misdirection of the organization's human talent C. Failure to respond to external market conditions D. Out-of-compliance HR policies, procedures and rules. |
B. Misdirection of the organization's human talent |
|
|
Which of the following is the best example of a decentralized organization?
A. A company with branches that share an employee handbook B. A company with branches that have their own profit-and-loss statements C. A company in which payroll is processed through a corporate office D. A company in which each location has its own safety committee |
B. A company with branches that have their own profit-and-loss statements |
|
|
Which management function is defined as "used to ensure that the strategies, tactics and plans developed during the planning process are implemented"?
A. Directing B. Organizing C. Controlling D. Managing |
C. Controlling is the process of implementing the strategies identified through the planning process. Directing is the function of managing the work, and organizing speaks to the structural elements of the organization, work, and jobs. |
|
|
In which of the following would you most likely find the statement "All managers are expected to model a standard of honesty to their employees"?
A. A code of conduct B An employee handbook C. Work rules D. Employment contract |
A. A code of conduct is a tool used to define the integrity and ethical expectations of a company, often included in a Code of Ethics statement that may or may not be included in an employee handbook. |
|
|
Billingsworth Entertainment recently joined forces with its largest competitor, WWE, combining assets into one functioning entity. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Hostile takeover B. Corporate restructuring C. Merger D. Workforce expansion |
C. A merger is similar to an acquisition as both result in a new, single business entity. A merger, however, is usually a mutual effort to leverage assets, whereas an acquisition is often completed by the strategic purchase of the target’s stock, allowing the purchaser to assume (or take over) control.
|
|
|
The executive committee has asked HR to provide them with copies of all employee personnel files, EEO reports, collective-bargaining agreement(s), and the employee handbook. They are most likely engaged in the practice of executing which activity?
A. Exercising due diligence B. Responding to a labor dispute C. Union busting A. A wage review |
A. Due diligence requires that target corporations provide a clear picture of their employment practices. This would include furnishing the interested party with all documents pertaining to the functional practices of the workforce. |
|
|
Preparing best- and worst-case scenarios for growth is required for which of the following measurement activities?
A. Cost/benefit analysis B. Net-worth evaluations C. Business case development D. Resource allocation |
A. A cost/benefit analysis takes into account both best- and worse-case scenarios for future strategic outcomes. While forecasting by default is an imperfect science, having the ability to anticipate best- and worst-case situations provides direction for resource allocation and planning activities. |
|
|
Salaries, training cost per employee, cost of outsourcing, and travel are all examples of what type of information?
A. Items in a recruiting budget B. Items in an HR budget C. Items in a cost/benefit analysis for training D. Hiring cost per employee |
B. Items in an HR budget |
|
|
Global Brands Inc. is expanding operations to India, and a top priority is keeping labor costs down. The company should consider which of the following type of hire?
A. Parent-country nationals B. Host-country nationals C. Third-country nationals D. Expatriates |
B. Host-country nationals are employees whose home country is the same as where the new company plans to do business. Hiring talent from within the host country is less expensive than relocating an expatriate.
|
|
|
An ethnocentric approach to global staffing is best describes by which of the following situations?
A. All key management positions are filled by expatriates B. All key management positions are filled by host-country nationals C. All employees are hired from within the parent company D. All key management positions are filled by individuals from related regions. |
A. The benefits of having home-country nationals—expatriates—fill key management positions abroad are many. It increases the ability of an organization to maintain control of its business operations, and it minimizes the organizational challenges host-country or third-country nationals often encounter, such as different communication styles and business practices. |
|
|
Which of the following statements about cultural acclimation is false?
A. Cultural acclimation can be the difference between a successful global hire and turnover. B. Cultural acclimation can be difficult for employees, but their families are relatively unaffected. C. Cultural acclimation may be unsuccessful in situations where host-country customs are stricter, such as not accepting women in management roles. D. Cultural acclimation must take into account business practices and customs that may be out of step with American business practices. |
B. Successful acclimation to a host country is necessary for employees and their families. Unsuccessful acclimation is often the primary reason for an unsuccessful placement. Language, schools, and customs are all elements of acclimation that affect expatriate families. |
|
|
Telecommuting, job sharing, and internships are all examples of which of the following staffing strategies?
A. Mining the internal talent B. Hiring through outsourcing C. Alternative staffing methods D. Working with independent contractors |
C. Alternative staffing methods are those strategies that fall outside of traditional 9 to 5, Monday through Friday, on-site staffing practices. Other examples include hiring temporary workers, creating a part-time staff, and working with on-call employees. |
|
|
The laissez-faire style of leadership is to autonomy what authoritarian leadership is to which of the following?
A. Dictatorship B. Independence C. Dependence D. Autocracy |
C. The authoritarian style of leadership is most likely to result in employees who are overly dependent on their leader, just as the laissez-faire style of leadership can lead to chaos if not enough direction is offered. Balancing the right amount of independent decision-making with the need for direction is one goal in the development of leadership styles. |
|
|
Building a virtual training center is an example of which of the following HR strategies?
A. Assessing the needs of the organization B. Responding to the cultural trends of the labor force C. Ensuring the ability to attract a diverse workforce D. Demonstrating the value of training efforts to organizational stakeholders. |
B. Being able to respond to the cultural trends of the labor force is not just convenient, it is necessary for organizations to compete effectively in emerging markets. Following and responding to social and cultural trends ensures that an organization has access—both internally and externally—to diverse talent that can respond to opportunities and threats. |
|
|
Members by Design, an architectural firm built on franchise locations, has requested that HR design a training program based on the unique needs of the company's independent owners. It has asked HR to create a topical calendar of training designed to address the gap between what the existing franchisees know about corporate business practices and what the company would like them too know about corporate business practices. Which training evaluation method should you reommend?
A. Job analysis B. Pilot tests C. Attitude surveys D. Pre-tests |
D. A pre-test can help HR gather data related to what the participants already know, as well as identify common threads of topical uncertainty. This technique identifies the target training outcomes before the training is designed. |
|
|
Strategic OD interventions would include making changes to which of the following business practices?
A. Mission, vision and values B. Tactical measures C. Organizational policies, procedures and rules D. Management development |
A. Mission, vision, and values statements are at the heart of strategic HRM. Implementing changes to these areas will result in the tactical and operational changes required to achieve the desired results. |
|
|
If an organization wishes to reward performance and encourage employee retention, which of the following types of stock should it offer?
A. Phantom stock B. A nonqualified option C. An incentive D. Restricted stock |
D. Restricted stock consists of actual shares that are often issued to employees to reward company or individual performance. It follows a vesting schedule, encouraging retention because the value of the stock is not fully realized until an employee achieves the anniversary milestones. |
|
|
Which of the following statements are true regarding global compensation programs?
A. Unions do not have as much influence in other countries as they do in the United States B. Pay differentials are used to balance tax burdens C. The labor laws of the United States usurp host-country laws D. Executive compensation cannot be greater than three times the average worker pay rates on foreign soil |
B. Employer and employee tax contributions have a significant impact on pay structures for expatriates. Pay differentials, housing allowances, and cost-of-living adjustments are all strategies that can be used to neutralize pay disparity for expats. |
|
|
HR has recently noticed that groups of employees are holding impromptu meetings, and they seem to center about a single new hire. Absenteeism is inexplicably on the rise as well. Which of the following is most likely occurring?
A. Harassment of the new hire B. Early signs of union organizing C. The formation of a class-action lawsuit D. Informal town-hall meetings |
B. Prior to a formal declaration of intent to organize, there are often early warning signs of union activity. It is not uncommon for unions to use “salting”—getting hired with the intent to unionize—in order to begin on-site organizing activity. |
|
|
In order to remain union-free, HR should recommend which of the following practices?
A. Don’t allow employees to get stressed out. B. Tell the employees that they will be fired if they participate in organizing activities. C. Clearly communicate and fairly execute organizational policies, procedures, and rules. D. Promise employees that they will get raises if they simply keep the company union-free. |
C. In order to avoid a charge of an unfair labor practice, employers must not threaten, interrogate, promise, or spy on employees. Encouraging an open, inclusive work place that fairly applies policies and making truthful statements about the consequences of union organizing in response to union claims are reasonable attempts to discourage union-organizing activity. |
|
|
Which of the following acts or laws established the standards for corporate responsibility?
A. The Fair Credit and Reporting Act B. The Employee Polygraph Protection Act C. The Service Contract Act D. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act |
D. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act supports the concept that businesses have a legal obligation to their stakeholders to act in a trustworthy matter. This includes holding the CEO accountable for fairness and accuracy of financial reports, and prohibition of insider trading when employees are prohibited from trading. |
|
|
A warehouse manager recently submitted a record of a disciplinary conversation he had with an employee for reporting what turned out to be an unsubstantiated safety hazard to OSHA. Which of the following statements is true?
A.The discipline was appropriate, because the employee lied. B. The discipline was inappropriate, because the employee was executing his right under whistleblower protection. C. The discipline was inappropriate, because it should have been for unprofessional behavior, not for the reporting itself. D. The discipline was appropriate, because a record of a conversation is not considered an adverse employment action. |
B. If the employee in good faith reported what he believed to be a safety violation, an employer—by issuing an ROC or taking other adverse employment action—would be violating the employee’s rights under whistleblower protection. HR should take steps to train managers and employees alike as to their rights and responsibilities for reporting safety hazards. |
|
|
The company you work for has asked you to find a way to predict organizational risks for ADA discrimination claims. Which of the following strategies would you use to get started?
A. Consult with a labor attorney to identify risk factors. B. Implement exit interviews to identify whether the reasons for leaving are related to discriminatory practices. C. Calculate the number of workers’ compensation claims that become disability claims. D. Review the job descriptions to ensure that both mental and physical requirements are included. |
D. The strategic needs of addressing risks such as ADA compliance become tactical measures when applied to operational activities. Job descriptions—while not required specifically by the ADA—are documents that are used at all phases of the employee life cycle, and they should include both mental and physical requirements. |
|
|
The safety committee has identified a potential danger in the storage of chemicals in the warehouse. This is an example of which of the following types of safety and health risks?
A. Physical B. Biological C. Environmental D. Hazard communication |
C. Environmental health hazards are typically addressed by the OSHA standards requiring comprehensive written policies, training, and hazard-abatement procedures. This includes policies for fire prevention, emergency action, and hazard communication. |
|
|
Your union-organized employees have decided to strike because they want a higher pay rate for a shift differential. Which of the following is your lawful course of action?
A. Permanently replace the striking workers. B. Agree to bargain in good faith once the workers agree to return to work. C. File a claim of an unfair labor practice with the NLRB. D. Fire the workers who agree to go on strike. |
A. An economic strike is a lawful strike in which members of the union seek better pay, hours, or working conditions. An employer may permanently replace these striking workers and is not required to rehire them if doing so means the replacement workers would be fired. If a striking worker makes a request to return to work with no conditions, the employer may recall them at a later time when an opening occurs. |
|
|
Your company has received a petition by a labor union to hold a consent election to represent dock workers and drivers. The election is scheduled to be held within 30 days. What may the employer lawfully do?
A. Determine who petitioned the union, and meet with them to discuss their grievances. B. Hold all-employee meetings and meetings with the employees of the proposed bargaining unit to present the company’s case for maintaining a union-free environment. C. Let the employees know that the employer cannot afford the union and will have to move or close down the shop if the union wins the election. D. Take disciplinary action against the employees who signed authorization cards. |
B. Once 30 percent of the anticipated bargaining unit signs union-authorization cards, the NLRB will schedule a consent election. Up until 24 hours immediately preceding the scheduled election, the employer or its representative may schedule meetings with the employees to present the company’s union philosophy and desire to maintain direct communication with the employees. An employer may not threaten to shut down, interrogate employees about their role in the organizing attempt, spy on workers, or promise benefits if employees do not join the union. |
|
|
Morale seems to be low in the customer service department, and absenteeism is on the rise as well. As the HR manager, which of the following should be your first step to address the organizational climate?
A. Create an attendance incentive program to encourage employees to come to work. B. Activate the discipline policy for employees whose attendance is outside the scope of acceptability. C. Conduct employee interviews to determine what, if anything, is wrong. D. Meet with the department manager to gain insight into any specific issues that may be contributing to the issues. |
D. The first step(s) in addressing any organizational climate issues is to identify the root cause of the performance deficiencies. Leaping directly to discipline or rewards may address the symptoms but not necessarily the cause. Meeting with the manager before the employees is helpful to gain clarity and insight on what they perceive to be the issues, and will allow HR to properly formulate questions for the employees to identify effective solutions. |
|
|
A production supervisor in your organization was overheard teasing an employee about how cute she looked in her jeans. Which of the following would be the appropriate HR response?
A. Launch a harassment investigation, including interviewing the supervisor, the employee, and any witnesses. B. Meet with the production supervisor to remind him of company expectations of professional behavior, and meet with the employee separately to identify what really occurred. C. Hold a department staff meeting to retrain/remind employees of the company’s zero-harassment policy. D. Reprimand the supervisor for inappropriate conduct. |
B. Obnoxious behavior in and of itself does not automatically constitute harassment. However, because harassment is based on how the recipient or observer perceives the behavior, it typically must be addressed. In this case, until HR gains clarity on the nature and severity of the supervisor behavior, a full-scale investigation may not be necessary, although the behavior that puts the employer at risk should be addressed. |
|
|
Which of the following statements is false about mediation?
A. Decisions made through mediation are binding to both parties. B. Mediators assist both parties to a dispute. C. Mediation is not a formal undertaking and does not require a formal record of the proceedings. D. Mediation is less structured than arbitration. |
A. Mediation is one of the first steps toward dispute resolution. The decisions of the mediator are not binding, and if the process fails, the parties may continue through the arbitration process. |
|
|
Which of the following is the correct list of mandatory benefits that must be offered to employees by all employers?
A. FUTA, FICA, SDI B. Retirement, unemployment insurance, medical benefits C. Social Security, Medicare, unemployment D. Social Security, workers’ compensation, health insurance |
C. Health insurance is not currently a mandatory benefit for most employers, and SDI is state-run disability insurance. All employers are required to contribute to Social Security, Medicare, and unemployment through a tax on payroll. |
|
|
A recent round of turnover has your executive team questioning the existing salary structure. What should be your first strategic approach?
A. Recommend pay increases for critical staff positions. B. Implement exit interviews to find out if inadequate pay is the reason for leaving. C. Conduct a wage survey to compare your pay rates to those of similar employers in the area. D. Meet with employees to determine if they are satisfied with their pay. |
C. Conducting equity surveys both internally and externally is necessary to determine if your pay structure is positively or negatively influencing turnover. Exit interviews are important, but they usually come too late to have an immediate effect on retention. |
|
|
Compensable factors are used to ______________ jobs from each other and to determine their value to the organization.
A. Distinguish B. Identify C. Separate D. Isolate |
A. A job evaluation allows the employer to distinguish the characteristics—or compensable factors—of each job in the organization. This allows for the assignment of proper values to each task or criterion, thus developing the proper wage scale for the job. |
|
|
Which of the following would be the most appropriate approach to meet the changing needs of a diverse workforce?
A. Contract with an outside agency to conduct an organizational needs assessment. B. Identify training needs geared to specific work groups. C. Evaluate programs such as flexible staffing options or diversity initiatives to meet identified employee needs. D. Encourage supervisors to conduct employee-satisfaction surveys. |
C. Flexible staffing options, diversity initiatives, and telecommuting are just a few examples of programs that can meet the unique needs of a diverse workforce. Training may or may not be an appropriate solution to meet employee needs, and supervisors are not always the best choice to conduct satisfaction surveys. |
|
|
Your employer requires that you conduct performance appraisals every January. This is an example of which of the following timing strategies?
A. Focal review B. Anniversary review C. Compensation review D. Cyclical reviews |
A. A focal review involves completing performance reviews and comparative analyses of employee performance at the same time. While this strategy provides managers with the opportunity to accurately compare employee performance, it may be difficult for managers if a large number of reviews must be completed at once. |
|
|
An employee self-assessment is limited in which of the following ways?
A. It does not allow for proper comparative performance to other employees. B. Employees are not able to set or capable of setting goals for themselves. C. Employees cannot be trusted to make decisions about their performance deficiencies. D. Objective assessment may be difficult for some employees to achieve, especially if pay increases are tied to the performance-appraisal process. |
D. Employee self-assessments can be very useful tools to identify employee perceptions about how well or how poorly they are doing. However, when performance appraisals are closely linked with pay increases, it may be difficult for an employee to provide objective feedback about their strengths and weaknesses for fear of losing a pay increase or bonus. |
|
|
An upcoming training session will require extensive collaboration between the facilitator and 10 participants. Which of the following seating arrangements would be most beneficial?
A. Classroom style B. Theater style C. U-shaped style D. Chevron style |
U-shaped seating provides a center area for the facilitator while still providing a forum for participants to interact with each other. Accounting for the number of participants is an important consideration in seating design to maximize training design elements such as interaction with other participants and mode of delivery. |
|
|
Which of the following scientists helped to create the concept of programmed instruction, where the learner progresses from objective to objective until learning occurs?
A. Jung B. Skinner C. Senge D. Adams |
B. While B.F. Skinner is best known for his work on operant conditioning, he applied those concepts to instructional design. Programmed instruction is built on the operant-conditioning technique that modifies behavior (learning) through the use of strategic clusters—learning one behavior prior to moving on to the next objective. |
|
|
A strategic workforce plan allows an employer to accomplish which of the following?
A. Determine what skill sets are needed to meet future training or staffing needs. B. Comply with affirmative-action requirements. C. Identify recruitment sources based on skill sets required. D. Provide a framework to ensure that the right people are doing the right jobs when the employer needs them. |
D. A strategic workforce plan will incorporate the findings from a staffing needs assessment, training needs assessment, and affirmative-action requirements, and will help to identify recruiting sources that can be used to fill the current and future needs of the employer. |
|
|
What is the primary purpose of a realistic job preview (RJP)?
A. To give the job applicant an accurate picture of a typical day on the job B. To prescreen candidates who may not be able to perform the essential functions of the job C. To test the applicant’s knowledge of work performed on the job D. To measure an applicant’s ability to analyze and solve problems |
A. An RJP is a tool that employers use to help candidates understand the work environment and the type of skill set necessary to complete the work for which they are applying. This technique should help improve person-to-job fit and person-to-organization fit, thereby reducing turnover. |
|
|
Which of the following is not a strategic benefit of an HRIS system?
A. The ability to track employee-development plans B. The ability to provide self-service options for employee benefits enrollment C. The ability to run payroll reports D. The ability to compare wages by employee group for an equity survey |
C. The ability to run payroll reports |
|
|
McClelland is to experience as Adams is to which of the following?
A. Discipline B. Equity C. Conditioning D. Punishment |
B. McClelland believed that individual experiences with achievement or success lead them to be motivated. Adams believed that people are constantly measuring what they put in against what they get out. If they perceive that the inputs are commensurate to their reward, they are motivated to continue. |
|
|
At the end of a staff meeting, David’s boss complimented him on his professionalism. This is an example of which of Skinner’s reinforces?
A. Praise B. Extinction C. Punishment D. Positive reinforcement |
D. Skinner believed that motivation is controlled by the reinforcer presented after the target behavior. If an employee receives praise, they will seek to repeat the preceding behavior to the praise. When using positive reinforcement, employers must be sure they are supporting the correct behavior, or there could be unintended consequences. |
|
|
“A diverse workforce is more creative.” Which of the following supports this statement as true?
A. Some personalities are more creative than others. B. Increasing the variety of perspectives available in the workplace brings new points of view to traditional problem-solving. C. Many individuals are more likely to be inspired when working with a diverse group of people. D. A diverse workforce increases the pool of qualified candidates for the job. |
B. Hiring a diverse work group helps to ensure that many points of view are represented, including the needs of the customer. When more points of view are available as a resource, it is likely that a larger, more creative knowledge base will be available for problem-solving. |
|
|
Which of the following provides the framework for collecting information to be used in strategic planning? A. Environmental scan B. SWOT audit C. Statistical model D. Force analysis |
An environmental scan includes activities related to both internal and external data collection. This data is used to determine the course of action for businesses once the goals and objectives have been developed. |
|
|
Porter’s 5 Forces focus on which specific factor of strategic business planning?
A. Market conditions B. Geographic C. Industry D. Technological |
C. Industry-specific information is used to implement a Porter’s 5 Forces analysis. Information such as industry market trends, direct competition, and the availability of skilled workers in the field are all examples of information analyzed using this model. |
|
|
Assets = Liabilities + Equity is the formula used to create which of the following financial reports?
A. Accounts payable B. Cash flow statement C. Income statement D. Balance sheet |
D. A balance sheet is used to provide a picture of the financial condition of an organization at any given time. It is called a balance sheet because the total of liabilities and equity must be equal to the assets. To further clarify, the difference between the assets and liabilities is the equity (Assets –Liabilities = Equity). |
|
|
Choosing a third-party contractor should always begin with which of the following?
A. A request for proposal B. A needs assessment C. A calculation of return on investment D. Reference checking/asking for referrals |
B. Requesting a proposal or calculating ROI is very difficult unless HR has a clear picture of the specific need for which they would contract with a third party. |
