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445 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration the lower limit of the white Arc |
Vso |
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Maximum flaps extended speed the upper limit of the white Arc |
Vfe |
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The stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration the lower limit of the green arc |
Vs1 |
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The maximum structural cruising speed the upper limit of the green ark and the lower limit of the yellow Arc |
Vno |
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Never exceed speed marked in red |
Vne |
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Maximum landing gear extended speed |
Vle |
|
Maneuvering speed |
Va |
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The best rate of climb AirSpeed that will result in the most altitude in a given. |
Vy |
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The best angle of climb speed the airspeed that will result in the most altitude in a given distance |
Vx |
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The best angle of climb speed the airspeed that will result in the most altitude in a given distance |
Vx |
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Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged |
Airspeed |
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Which instruments will become inoperative if the static vents become |
AirSpeed altimeter and vertical speed |
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If the pitot tube and the outside static vents become clogged which instruments would be affected |
The altimeter airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator |
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The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument |
Airspeed indicator |
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Which v speed represents maneuvering speed |
Va |
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What does the red line on an airspeed indicator |
Never exceed speed |
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Which color identifies the never exceed speed |
The red radial line |
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Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration |
Lower limit of the green |
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Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff |
Vx |
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After takeoff which AirSpeed with the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period Of time |
Vy |
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What is the full flap operating range for the airplane |
55 to 100 knots |
|
What is the maximum flaps extended speed |
100 knots |
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What color identifies the normal flap operating range |
The white arc |
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What is an important AirSpeed limitation that is not color coded on AirSpeed indicators |
Maneuvering speed |
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Which v speed represents maximum flap extended speed |
V f e |
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Which v speed represents maximum landing gear extended |
Vle |
|
Vno is defined as the |
Maximum structural cruising speed |
|
Vso is defined as |
Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration |
|
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter |
The elevation of the departure area |
|
Prior to take off the altimeter should be set to which altitude or alternator setting |
The current local altimeter setting if available or the departure airport elevation |
|
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level |
18000 ft MSL |
|
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates |
True altitude at field elevation |
|
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter |
Pressure levels are raised on warm days in the indicated altitude is lower than the true altitude |
|
What is true altitude |
The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level |
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Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude |
In colder than standard air temperature |
|
What is absolute altitude |
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface |
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What is density altitude |
The pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature |
|
What is pressure altitude |
The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92 |
|
Under what conditions is indicated altitude the same as true altitude |
When at sea level under standard conditions |
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If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29. 15 to 29. 85 what change occurs |
700 foot increase and indicated altitude |
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Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to a true altitude |
When standard atmosheric condition exists |
|
if a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted the altimeter will indicate |
Lower than the actual altitude above sea level |
|
if a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted the altimeter will indicate |
Higher than the actual altitude above sea level |
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Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude |
Air temperature warmer than standard |
|
If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96 what is the approximate change in indication |
Altimeter will indicate 150 ft lower |
|
How should a pilot determine the direction of Bank from an attitude indicator |
The relationship of the miniature airplane to the deflected horizon bar |
|
A turn coordinator provides an indication of the |
Movement of the aircraft about the yall and roll axis |
|
The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the |
Miniature airplane to the horizon bar |
|
To receive accurate indication during flight from a heading indicator the instrument must be |
Realign ed with the magnetic compass as a gyro precesses |
|
Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by |
Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force |
|
The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is |
Magnetic variation |
|
Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by |
Certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft |
|
In the northern hemisphere a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if |
An aircraft is accelerated while on an East or West heading |
|
In the northern hemisphere the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn towards the South when |
The aircraft is decelerated while on a West heading |
|
what should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a South heading in the northern hemisphere |
The compass will indicate a turn to the right but at a faster rate than it actually occurring |
|
In the northern hemisphere if the aircraft is accelerated or decelerated the magnetic compass will normally indicate |
Correctly when on a North or South heading |
|
In the northern hemisphere a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn towards the West if |
A right turn is entered from a North heading |
|
In the northern hemisphere a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn towards the east if |
A left turn is entered from in a Northern heading |
|
During flight when are the indication of a magnetic compass accurate |
Only in straight and level unaccelerated flight |
|
The definition of night time is |
The time between the end of evening civil twilight in the beginning of morning civil twilight |
|
In regard to privileges and limitations a Private pilot May |
not pay less than the prorated share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involved only fuel-oil airport expenditures or rental fees |
|
According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations a Private pilot May |
not pay less than the prorated share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expense involve only fuel-oil airport expenditures and rental fees |
|
What exception if any permits a Private pilot to act as pilot in command of any aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight |
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight |
|
With respect to the certification of airmen which are categories of aircraft |
Airplane rotorcraft glider lighter than air |
|
With respect to the certification of airmen which are classes of aircraft |
Single-engine Land and Sea multi-engine Land and Sea |
|
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft |
Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12500 lb |
|
a third class medical certificate was issued to a 19 year old pilot on August 10th this year to exercise the privileges of a recreational or Private pilot certificate the medical certificate will expire at midnight on |
August 31st five years later |
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a third class medical certificate is issued to a 36 year old pilot on August 10th this year to exercise the privileges of a Private pilot certificate the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on |
August 31st five years later |
|
a third class medical certificate is issued to a 51 year old pilot on May 3rd this year to exercise the privileges of a Private pilot certificate the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on |
May 31st two years later |
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for Private pilot operations a second-class medical certificate issued to a 42 year old pilot on July 15th this year will expire at midnight on |
July 31st two years later |
|
for Private pilot operations a first class medical certificate issued to a 23 year old pilot on October 21st this year will expire at midnight on |
October 31st five years later |
|
to operate on basicmed the pilot in command must have completed a physical examination by state license physician within the preceding |
48 months |
|
For Private pilot operations on a basic med the pilot in command is allowed to fly with no more than |
5 passengers |
|
To maintain basicmed privileges you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist cmec every |
48 months |
|
what documents must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot-in-command of an aircraft |
An appropriate pilot certificate in an appropriate current medical certificate if required |
|
When must a current pilot certificate be in a pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft |
Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewman |
|
a recreational or Private pilot acting as pilot in command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member must have their personal possessions and readily accessible in the aircraft a current |
Medical certificate is required and inappropriate pilot certificate |
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Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any |
Local law enforcement officer |
|
to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding |
24 calendar months |
|
if recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met in the official sunset is 1830 the latest time passengers may be carried is |
1929 |
|
To act as pilot in command of any aircraft carrying passengers the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category class and if a type rating is required of the same type within the preceding |
90 days |
|
Your cousin wants you to take him flying you must have made three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding |
90 days |
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to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers the pilot must have made three takeoffs and 3 landings within the preceding 90 days and aircraft of the same |
Category class and type if type rating is required |
|
to meet The residency of experience requirements to act as pilot-in-command carrying passengers at night a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings With in the preceding 90 days in |
The same category and class of aircraft to be used |
|
If a recreational or Private pilot had a flight review on August 8th this year when is the next flight review required |
August 31st two years later |
|
Each recreational private pilot's required to have |
A biennial flight review |
|
the takeoffs and landings required to meet The recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane |
Must be to a full stop |
|
What is the definition of a high-performance airplane |
An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower |
|
before person holding a Private pilot certificate may act as private pilot in command of a high-performance airplane that person must have |
Received ground and flight instructions from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses a person's log book |
|
In order to act as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane a pilot must have |
Received and logged ground in flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower |
|
A certified Private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's log book a minimum of |
100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category class and type if require that the pilot is using to tow a glider |
|
To act as a pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months |
At least three actual or simulated glider toes while accompanied by a qualified pilot |
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If a certified pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA airmen certification branch of the new address the pilot is entitled to exercise their privileges of the pilot certificate for a period Of only |
30 days after the date of the move |
|
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is |
Pilot in command |
|
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action the pilot in command May |
Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency |
|
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of the deviation to the administrator |
Upon request |
|
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is and condition for safe flight |
The pilot in command |
|
Prior to take off briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of |
The pilot |
|
Which pre-flight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight |
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight |
|
Pre-flight actions as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport should include |
An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned |
|
In addition to other professions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport regulations specifically require the pilot in command to |
Determine runway length at airport which intended use in the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data |
|
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane |
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed |
|
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane |
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed |
|
Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during |
Takeoffs and landings |
|
which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened |
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing |
|
Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during |
Takeoffs and landings |
|
which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew member are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened |
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while in route shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing |
|
With respect to the passengers what allegation if any does a pilot in command have concerning the use of seatbelts |
the pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of seatbelts and notify them to fasten your seatbelts during taxi takeoff and landing |
|
Pre takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seatbelts for a flight is the responsibility of |
The pilot in command |
|
With certain exceptions seatbelts are required to be secured about passengers during |
Taxi takeoff and landings |
|
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which person in an aircraft and when |
Passengers during taxi takeoff and landings only |
|
under what condition if any May a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft |
In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care |
|
No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with |
.04% by weight or more alcohol in the body |
|
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drug shall be reported to the FAA civil aviation security division |
No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action |
|
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic |
Aircraft in distress |
|
What action is required with two aircraft of the same category converge but not head |
The aircraft on the left should give way |
|
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed |
A glider has the right of way over an airship airplane or rotorcraft |
|
An airplane and an airship are converging if the airship is left of the airplanes position which aircraft has the right of way |
The airship |
|
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed |
An aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircrafts |
|
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft |
At the lower altitude but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another |
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A seaplane and a motorboat are in a crossing course if the motor boat is to the left of the seaplane which has the right of way |
The seaplane |
|
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course |
Both pilot should give way to the right |
|
and approve chair type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding |
180 days |
|
With certain exceptions when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute |
When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more |
|
when an ATC clearance has been obtained no pilot in command May deviate from the clearance unless amended clearance is obtained or a deviation in response to traffic the one exception to this regulation is |
An emergency |
|
As pilot-in-command of an aircraft under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance |
In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory |
|
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance |
Within 48 hours if requested by ATC |
|
Why on a VFR cross-country in 9 contact with ATC what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency |
121 .5 MHz |
|
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere |
An attitude allowing if a power unit fails an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface |
|
except when necessary for takeoff relating what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested area |
An altitude of 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2050 of the aircraft |
|
except when necessary for takeoff or landing what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area |
an altitude of 500 ft AGL except over open water or a sparsely populated area which requires 500 feet from any person vessel vehicle or structure |
|
except when necessary for takeoff or landing an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person vessel vehicle or structure |
500 ft |
|
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1200 feet AGL the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirements for VFR flight is |
2000 feet |
|
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL |
3 miles |
|
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL |
500 ft below 1000 feet above and 2000 feet horizontally |
|
turn operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 ft AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum distance above cloud requirement for VFR flight is |
1000 feet |
|
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of |
3 miles and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace |
|
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flight above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 ft AGL in controlled airspace is |
5 miles |
|
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 ft AGL the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required |
1 mile |
|
Turn off vibrations at altitudes of more than 1200 feet AGL in at or above 10,000 feet MSL the minimum distance above cloud requirements for VFR flight is |
1000 ft |
|
what minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in class g airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours |
1 mi visibility and clear of clouds |
|
during operations outside controlled airspace and altitude of more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is |
3 Mile |
|
turn off vibrations outside controlled airspace altitudes of more than 1,200 ft AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight is |
1 mile |
|
during operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum distance below clouds requirements for VFR flight at night is |
500 ft |
|
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within class d airspace unless the |
Ground visibility at the airports at least three mile |
|
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within class d airspace |
1000 ft ceilings and 3 miles visibility |
|
a special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate via fire while with in class d airspace when the visibility is |
At least one mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds |
|
What is the minimum weather conditions required for airplanes operating under special VFR in class d airspace |
1 mile flight visibility |
|
What are the minimum requirements for an airplane operations under special VFR in class d airspace at night |
The pilot must be instrument rated in the airplane must be IFR equipped |
|
No person may operate an airplane within class d airspace at night under special VFR unless the |
Are planes equipped for instrument flight |
|
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in class d airspace |
Air traffic control tower |
|
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight under magnetic 135° |
Odd thousands plus 500 ft |
|
Which VFR cruising altitude acceptable for a flight on a vector airway with a magnetic course of 175 °the terrain is less than 1000 feet |
5500 feet |
|
Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3000 ft AGL on a magnetic course of 185° |
4500 feet |
|
each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude Sean maintain an odd thousand plus 500 ft altitude while on a |
Magnetic course of 0 through 179° |
|
With respect to the certification of aircraft which is a class of aircraft |
Airplane rotorcraft glider balloon |
|
Unless otherwise specifically authorized no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate |
Over a densely populated area or in a congested airway |
|
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft |
Flight over a densely populated area |
|
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight |
Except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft |
|
Under what condition May objects be dropped from an aircraft |
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface |
|
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of a flight at a controlled airport |
The pilot must close a flight plan with the FAA upon landing |
|
unless otherwise authorized what is the maximum indicated AirSpeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL |
250 knots |
|
unless otherwise authorized to maximum indicated AirSpeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2500 ft AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of class c airspace is |
200 knots |
|
When flying in the airspace underlying class b airspace the maximum speed authorized is |
200 knots |
|
When flying and VFR corridor designated through class b airspace the maximum speed authorized is |
200 knots |
|
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found |
In the current faa-approved flight manual or proved manual material markings and place cards or any combination thereof |
|
where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an experimental or special light sport airworthiness certificate |
Attached to the airworthiness certificate |
|
In addition to a valid airworthiness certificate what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight |
Operating limitations and registration certificate |
|
How long does the airworthiness certificate of an aircraft remain valid |
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal aviation regulations |
|
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the |
Owner or operator |
|
The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a pre-flight inspection and a |
Review of the maintenance records |
|
the responsibility for ensuring that the maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for the return to service lies with the |
Owner or operator |
|
Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service |
Owner or operator |
|
Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by |
Inappropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance record |
|
an aircraft and your condition inspection was performed on July 12th this year the next annual inspection will be due no later than |
July 31st next year |
|
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection a person should refer to the |
Aircraft maintenance records |
|
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction |
Annual condition and 100-hour inspections |
|
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding |
24 calendar months |
|
maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1st 2014 the next expection will be due no later than |
September 30th 2016 |
|
Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft what paperwork is required |
the signature certificate number and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance record |
|
What regulations allow a Private pilot to perform preventive maintenance |
14 CFR part 43.7 |
|
Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for service |
Private or commercial pilot |
|
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance |
Replenishing hydraulic fluids |
|
if an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft operation in flight the aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated |
With passengers aboard |
|
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably change its flight characteristics it must be flight tested by an appropriately rated pilot who holds at least a |
Private pilot certificate |
|
An aircraft has a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6 when is the next 100-hour inspection due |
1359.6 |
|
A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours the 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours when is the next 100 inspection due |
3402.5 hours |
|
which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable airworthiness directive |
Aircraft maintenance records |
|
What should an owner operator know about airworthiness directives ad's |
They are mandatory |
|
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an airworthiness directive |
Yes if allowed by the AD |
|
Who is responsible for ensuring airworthiness directives are complied with |
Owner or operator |
|
FAA advisory circulars some free others at cost are available to all pilots and are obtained by |
Ordering these desired from the government printing office |
|
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically rated air main are issued under which subject number |
60 |
|
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically rated to airspace are issued under which subject number |
70 |
|
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to air traffic controller and general operations are issued under which subject number |
90 |
|
if an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft the nearest NTSB field office should be notified |
Immediately |
|
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office |
Flight control systems not function or failure |
|
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office |
An in-flight fire |
|
Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office |
An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident |
|
May aircraft wreckage be removed prior to the time the NTSB takes custody |
Yes but only to protect the records from further damage |
|
The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days |
10 |
|
the operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB |
When requested |
|
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-controlled airport |
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport |
|
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is |
To enter 45° at the midpoint cover the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude |
|
VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished |
The same as during daytime |
|
when approaching to land at an airport in a class g airspace that does not have light signals or other visual markings in airplane pilot must make |
All turns to the left |
|
Entries into traffic patterns while descending create specific collision hazards and |
Should be avoided |
|
Inbound to an airport with no tower FSS or you can caught in operation a pilot should self announce on multicom frequency |
122.9 |
|
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately |
090° and 270° magnetic |
|
The numbers 8 and 26 on an approach end of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately |
080°and 260°magnetic |
|
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway what is the purpose of the tax rate directional sign |
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection |
|
The yellow demarcation bar marking indicates |
A runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway |
|
Who should not participate in the land and hold short operations program (lahso) |
A student pilot |
|
Who has the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance |
Pilot in command |
|
When should pilots decline a land and hold short clearance |
When it will compromise safety |
|
Where is the available landing distance data published for an airport that utilizes land and hold short operations |
Special notices section of the chart supplement u.s. |
|
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short clearance |
3 statute miles |
|
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines the pilot |
Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance |
|
What is the purpose of the runway/runway holding position sign |
Denotes intersecting runway |
|
What does the outbound destination sign identify |
Identify direction to take off runway |
|
What is the purpose of the no entry sign |
Identifies a paved area where aircrafts are prohibited from entering |
|
Which approach and landing objective is shirred when pilot remains on the proper glidepath on a VASI |
Safe obstruction clearance and the approached area |
|
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a |
Pulsating red light |
|
while operating in class d airspace each pilot on an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall (VASI) |
Maintaining altitude at or above the glideslope until a lower altitude is necessary for safe landing |
|
When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator the pilot shall (VASI) |
Maintaining altitude at or above the glideslope |
|
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is (PAPI) |
Three white lights and one red light |
|
When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds which aileron positions should be used |
Aileron's down on the side which the wind is blowing |
|
Which a neuron position should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds |
Aileron up on the side for which the wind is blowing |
|
Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nose wheel equipped high wing airplane |
Quartering tailwind |
|
To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown the pilot should keep the |
Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion |
|
Information concerning parachute-jumping sites may be found in the |
Chart supplement U. S. |
|
Hypoxia |
A state of oxygen deficiency impairs functions of the brain and other organs |
|
Hyperventilation |
A deficiency of carbon dioxide within the body |
|
Carbon monoxide |
A colorless odorless and tasteless gas contained in exhaust fumes |
|
when operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitude above 12500 ft MSL up to and including 14,000 ft MSL supplemental oxygen shall be used during |
That flight times in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes |
|
unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen no person may operate a civil aircraft of us. Registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of |
15000 ft MSL |
|
Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in |
Loss of muscular power |
|
it probably experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in his body by |
Slowing the breathing rate breathing into a paper bag or talking aloud |
|
Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as |
Altitude increases |
|
The dangers of spatial disorientation during flight and poor visual conditions may be reduced by |
Having faith in your instruments rather than taking a chance on the scenery organs |
|
A lack of orientation with regards to the position altitude or movement of the aircraft and space is defined as |
Spatial disorientation |
|
Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if |
Visual Hughes are taken away as they are and instruments meteorological conditions |
|
if a pilot experience is special disorientation during flight and a restricted visibility condition the best way to overcome this effect is to |
Rely upon the aircraft instrument indications |
|
what is often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities in the aircraft limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain and low visibility and ceiling |
Scud running |
|
What antidotal phrase can help preserve verse be hazardous attitude of entire story |
Follow the rules |
|
What an adorable phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity |
Not so fast think first |
|
Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time what are some of these hazardous attitudes |
Anti-authority impulsivity macho resignation and invulnerability |
|
In the aeronautical decision making (ADM)process what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude |
Recognizing hazardous thoughts |
|
risk management as part of the aeronautical decision making(ADM) process relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight |
situational awareness problem recognition and good judgment |
|
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of invulnerability |
It could happen to me |
|
What an antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of macho |
Taking chances is foolish |
|
Which antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of resignation |
I am not helpless |
|
Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight even though he or she holds current medical certificate |
The pilot |
|
What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents |
Human error |
|
What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground obstacles on fine under visual flight rules VFR |
Duck under syndrome |
|
What is the one of the neglected items when I pilot relies on short and long-term memory for repetitive tasks |
Checklist |
|
a pilot and two passengers landed on a 2100 foot East-West gravel strip with an elevation of 1800 ft the temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude it is determine the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle is 1980 ft the airplane is 75 lb under gross weight what would be the best choice |
Wait until the temperature decreases and recalculate the takeoff performance |
|
Most mid-air collision accident occurred during |
Clear days |
|
Prior to starting each maneuver pilot should |
Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance |
|
What effects does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight |
All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance |
|
To scam properly for traffic a pilot should |
Use a series of short regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field |
|
Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should |
Not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least one second |
|
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight |
Systemically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals |
|
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft |
There would be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft in the other aircraft |
|
What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying |
Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight |
|
What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight |
Scan slow leader permit off center viewing |
|
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to |
Look at the side of the object and skin slowly |
|
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during night time hours is to use |
Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing |
|
Except in Alaska during what time. Should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft |
Sunset to sunrise |
|
pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 ft day or night and when operating within |
10 miles of any airport |
|
The aeronautical information manual aim specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 ft day or night and especially when operating |
In conditions of reduced visibility |
|
during a night flight you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude what is the general direction of movement of the aircraft |
The other aircraft is crossing to the left |
|
during a night flight you observe a study white light and a flashing red light that had at the same altitude what is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft |
The aircraft is flying away from you |
|
During a night flight you observe steady red and green lights ahead at the same altitude what is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft |
The other aircraft is approaching head-on |
|
The winds at 5000 ft AGL is South Westerly while the surface when is southerly this difference in direction is primarily due to |
Friction between the wind and the surface |
|
Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by |
Cool dense are moving inland from over the water |
|
When there is a temperature inversion you would expect to experience |
An increase in temperature as altitude increases |
|
Air circulates in a clockwise direction around a high |
M |
|
Air circulates in a counterclockwise direction around a low |
M |
|
The closer the isobars are together the stronger the wind speed |
M |
|
The most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by |
Terrestrial radiation on a clear relative still night |
|
What is meant by the term dew point |
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated |
|
The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the |
Air temperature |
|
Clouds fog or do will always form when |
Water vapor condenses |
|
What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air |
Evaporation and sublimation |
|
if the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing the temperature is 62° Fahrenheit what type of weather is most likely to develop |
Fog or low clouds |
|
Ridge |
Elongated area of high pressure |
|
Trough |
Elongated area of low pressure |
|
A cold front |
The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass |
|
Frontal waves and cyclones |
Areas of low pressure usually form on a slow-moving cold front or stationary fronts |
|
One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across the front is |
A change in temperature |
|
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the |
Wind direction |
|
which weather condition should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high |
Smooth airport visibility fog Haze or low clouds |
|
What measurements can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere |
Actual lapse rate |
|
What would decrease the stability of an air mass |
Warming from below |
|
What is a characteristics of stable air |
Stratiform clouds |
|
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion |
A stable layer of air |
|
What are the characteristics of a moist unstable air mass |
Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation |
|
What are the characteristics of unstable air |
Turbulence and good surface visibility |
|
A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristics |
Poor surface visibility |
|
Cumuliform clouds |
Are the billowy type clouds having considerable vertical development which enhances the growth of rate of precipitation |
|
Stratiform clouds |
Clouds are flat evenly based clouds formed in a stable condition |
|
Cirrus clouds |
High clouds mainly of ice crystals |
|
When warm moist able air flows upslope it |
Produces Stratus type clouds |
|
If an unstable air mass is forced upwards what type of clouds can be expected |
Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence |
|
Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of |
Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence |
|
The conditions necessary for formation of a cumulonimbus cloud are the lifting action and |
Unstable moist air |
|
What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature is at 1,000 feet MSL is 70° Fahrenheit and the dew point is 48° Fahrenheit |
6000 feet MSL Subtract the surface temperature from the dew point divide the enter by 4.4 then multiply that by1000 And add the field elevation |
|
at approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of a cumulus cloud if the surface air temperature is 82° Fahrenheit and the dew point is 38° Fahrenheit |
10000 ft AGL Subtract surface temperature from dew point divided answer by 4.4 them multiply 1000 |
|
The suffix nimbus used in naming clouds means |
A rain cloud |
|
Clouds are divided into four families according to their |
Height range |
|
What clouds have the greatest turbulence |
Cumulonimbus |
|
an almond or lens shaped clouds which appears stationary but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more is referred to as |
A lenticular cloud |
|
Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary lens shaped clouds known as |
Standing lenticular clouds |
|
What cloud type would indicate convective turbulence |
Towering cumulus clouds |
|
Possible mountain Wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow |
Across the mountain ridge and they are stable |
|
Upon encountering severe turbulence which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain |
Level flight attitude |
|
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm |
Continuous updraft |
|
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm |
Precipitation beginning to fall |
|
What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms |
High humidity lifting force and unstable conditions |
|
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts |
Dissipating |
|
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the |
Mature stage |
|
Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are |
Squall line thunderstorms |
|
The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with |
The start of precipitation |
|
A non frontal narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop the head of a cold front is known as a |
Squall line |
|
If there is a thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport I wish you plan to land which hazards atmospheric phenomenon might be expected in the landing approach |
Wind shear turbulence |
|
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm |
Lightning |
|
Where does wind shear occur |
At all altitudes in all directions |
|
When may hazardous windshear be expected |
In areas of low-level temperature inversions frontal zones and clear air turbulence |
|
a pilot can expect a wind shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the wind speed at 2000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least |
25 knots |
|
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there |
Is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude |
|
One in flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is |
Visible moisture |
|
In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate |
Freezing rain |
|
Turn a cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is half an inch thick on the leading edge of the wings you're not below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching our destination airport under VFR visibility under the cloud is more like than 10 miles wins at the destination airport eight knots right down the runway and the surface temperature is 3° c you decide to |
Use a faster than normal approach and landing speed |
|
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog |
Warm moist air over low flat land areas on clear calm nights |
|
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form |
An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter |
|
What type of fog depend upon win in order to exist |
Advection fog and upslope fog |
|
Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of |
Steam fog |
|
Which condition results in the formation of Frost |
The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dew point of the adjacent air and the dew point is below freezing |
|
How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff |
Frost May prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed |
|
How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance |
Also disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing adversely affecting its lifting capabilities |
|
Why is Frost considered hazardous to flight |
Frost poems of smooth flow of air over the wings thereby decreasing lifting capabilities |
|
For aviation purposes ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the |
Lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obstruction |
|
To best determine general forecast weather conditions covering a flight information region the pilot should refer to |
Graphical forecast for aviation GFA |
|
What values are used four winds aloft forecast |
True direction and knots |
|
When the term light and variable is used in reference to a winds aloft forecasts the coded group and wind speed is |
9900 and less than 5 knots |
|
What is indicated when a current convective sigmet forecasts thunderstorms |
Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers |
|
What information is contained in a convective sigmet |
Tornadoes invaded thunderstorms and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter |
|
Sigmet are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft |
All aircraft |
|
Which in flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms |
Sigmet |
|
Airmets are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities then sigmets and are intended for dissemination to |
All pilots |
|
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for PreFlight weather information pilot should state |
Whether they intend to fly VFR only |
|
To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight the pilot should request |
A standard briefing |
|
Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement Mass disseminated data |
An abbreviated briefing |
|
To update a previous weather briefing a pilot should request |
An abbreviated briefing |
|
a weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the purposed departure time is |
An Outlook briefing |
|
When requesting weather information for the following morning a pilot should request |
An Outlook briefing |
|
What should pilots State initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for PreFlight weather information |
The intended route of flight and destination |
|
What should pilots State initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for PreFlight weather information |
Identify themself as pilots |
|
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for PreFlight weather information pilots should state |
The aircraft identification or the pilot's name |
|
When speaking to a flight service weather briefer you should state |
Whether the flight is VFR or IFR |
|
Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft |
Unusable fuel and untrainable oil |
|
Pilotage |
is the use of visible landmarks to maintain a desired course and it is basic form of navigation for the beginning pilot operating under VFR |
|
Longitude |
Meridians of longitude are drawn from pole to pole |
|
Latitude |
Meridian's lines of latitude run parallel to the equator |
|
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true |
Lines of longitude cross the equator at right angles |
|
Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on sectional aeronautical charts |
Airports with control towers underlying class b c d and e airspace are shown in blue |
|
Class a airspace |
Extends from 18000 feet MSL up to and including fl600 No VFR allowed |
|
Class b airspace |
Consists of controlled airspace extending upward from the surface or higher to specified altitudes outlined in blue |
|
Class c airspace |
Has the same dimensions with minor variations two circles centered on primary airport |
|
Class d airspace |
Extends upward from the surface to approximately 2500 ft AGL 4 nautical miles in radius shape is depicted by a blue dash line and a number showing the top |
|
Class e airspace |
Magenta shading starting at 750 a GL and no shading or blue if next to class g airspace identifies class e airspace starting at 1200 ft AGL |
|
Class g airspace |
class g airspace is air space within which air traffic controller has neither The authority nor responsibility to exercise any control over air traffic extends from surface to the base of the overlying controlled class e airspace normally 702 1200 ft AGL |
|
What minimum pilot certification is required for operations within class b airspace |
Private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements |
|
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within class b airspace |
Private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsement |
|
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operations within class b airspace |
Two-way radio communication equipment a 4096 code transponder and an encoding altimeter |
|
A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts which class airspace |
Class d |
|
Air space in an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as class d airspace only |
When the associated control tower is in operation |
|
The lateral dimensions of class d airspace are based on |
Instrument procedures for which the control air spaces established |
|
when a control tower located on an airport within class d airspace ceases operation for the day what happens to the airspace designation |
The airspace reverse to class e or combination of class e and g airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation |
|
a non tower satellite airport within the same class d airspace as a designated for the primary airport requires radio communication be established and maintained with the |
Primary airports control tower |
|
two-way communication must be established with the air traffic controller facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace |
Class c |
|
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering class c airspace |
Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency |
|
The vertical limit of class c airspace above the primary airport is normally |
4000 ft AGL |
|
The radius of the procedural outer area of class c airspace is normally |
20 nautical miles |
|
The radius of the procedural outer area of class c airspace is normally |
20 nautical miles |
|
All operations within class c airspace must be in |
An aircraft equipped with a 4096 code transponder with mode c encoding capabilities |
|
All operations within class c airspace must be in |
An aircraft equipped with a 4096 code transponder with mode c encoding capabilities |
|
Under what conditions may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within class c airspace |
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff |
|
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within class c airspace |
Two-way radio communication equipment a 4096 code transponder and encoding altimeter |
|
Normal VFR operations in class d airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least |
1000 ft and 3 Mile |
|
Unless otherwise authorized two-way radio communication with air traffic control are required for The landings or takeoffs |
A tall tower controlled airport regardless of weather conditions |
|
Unless otherwise specified Federal airways include that class e airspace extend upward from |
1200 feet above the surface up to and including 17999 ft MSL |
|
With certain exceptions class e airspace extends upward from either 700 ft or 1200 feet AGL to but does not include |
18000 ft MSL |
|
Under what conditions if any May pilots fly through a restricted area |
With the controlling agencies authorizations |
|
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has |
Received prior authorization from the controlling agency |
|
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a military operations area moa |
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted |
|
Responsibility for collision avoidance is in an alert area rests with |
All pilots |
|
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than |
2000 feet AGL |
|
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited |
Class a airspace |
|
When flying hawk n666 CB the proper phraseology for initial contact with Mcalester flight services is |
MC alester radio hawk 666 Charlie bravo receiving ardmore vortec over |
|
The correct method of stating 4500 feet MSL to ATC is |
Four thousand five hundred |
|
The correct method of stating 10,500 ft MSL to ATC |
One zero thousands five hundred |
|
When should pilots State their positions on the airport when calling the tower for take-off |
When departing from a runway intersection |
|
a standard operating practice all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of |
10 miles |
|
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an atis broadcast indicates that |
The ceiling is at least five thousand feet and visibility is 5 miles or more |
|
Automatic terminal information service atis is it continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning |
Non control information and selected high activity terminal areas |
|
Select the unicorn frequencies are normally assigned to stations at landing areas used exclusively as heliports |
123.05 and 123.075 mhz |
|
After landing at a tower controlled airport went to the pilot contact ground control |
When advised by the tower to do so |
|
If instructed by ground control to taxi to runway 9 the pilot May proceed |
To the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required |
|
A steady green light signal directed from control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot |
Is cleared to land |
|
Alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to |
Exercise extreme caution |
|
Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot a taxi |
Flashing green |
|
if the control tower uses light signals to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling the light will be |
Steady red |
|
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to taxi aircraft is an indication to |
Return to the starting point on the airport |
|
while on final approach for landing and alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower under these circumstances of pilot should |
Exercise extreme caution in abandoned the approach realizing the airport is unsafe for landing |
|
If the aircraft radio fails what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport |
Observe the traffic flow into the pattern and look for the light signal from the tower |
|
Why should you file a VFR flight plan with the FAA |
To provide search and rescue in the event of an emergency |
|
When the air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock the reference the controller uses the aircrafts |
Ground track |
|
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090° "Traffic 3 o clock 2 miles westbound"where should the pie look for this traffic |
South |
|
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot on a heading of 360 "Traffic 10 o clock 2 miles south bound |
Northwest |
|
Trsa service in the terminal radar program provides |
Sequence and separation for participating VFR aircraft |
|
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight "Traffic 2 o clock 5 miles northbound Where should the pilot look for this traffic |
Between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right |
|
An ATC radar facility issues of following advisory to a pilot flying North in a calm wind "Traffic at 9 o clock 2 miles southbound Where should the pilot look for this traffic |
West |
|
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as |
Safety alerts traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft |
|
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations |
Ground control on initial contact |
|
Inoperable 4096 car transponder whether encoding altimeter is required in which airspace |
Class a class b and within 30 miles of class b primary airport and class c |
|
Inoperable 4096 code transponder and mode c encoding altimeter are required in |
Class b airspace in within 30 miles of class b primary airport |
|
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL unless otherwise authorised what transponder code should be selected |
1200 |
|
When operating the transponder on the VFR code 1200 what is a minimum of the transponder must be in |
Modi |
|
if air traffic controller advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing class c airspace the transponder should be set to code |
1200 |
|
with certain exceptions all aircraft within 30 miles of class b primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with |
An operable transponder having either mode s or 4096 code abilities with mode c automatic altitude reporting capabilities |
|
When making routine transponder code changes pilots should avoid inadvertent section of which codes |
7500 7600 7700 |
|
When making routine transponder code changes pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of the which code |
7500 |
|
Unless otherwise authorized if flying a transponder equipped aircraft they probably should squawk which VFR code |
1200 |
|
When activated an emergency locator transponder elt transmits on |
406 MHz |
|
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter elt be replaced or a charge if rechargeable |
When the LT has been in use for more than one cumulative hour |
|
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter elt required to be replaced |
When 50% of their useful life expires |
|
When must have batteries in an emergency locator transmitter elt be replaced or recharged if battery is rechargeable |
After 1/2 the batteries useful life |
|
When may an emergency locator transmitter elt be tested |
During the first five minutes after the hour |
|
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter elt has not been activated |
Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown |
|
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller |
the throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM |
|
What regulations allow a Private pilot to perform preventative maintenance |
14 CFR part 43.7 |
|
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of a |
Heat exchange |
|
When requesting weather information for the following morning a pilot should request |
An Outlook briefing |