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445 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration the lower limit of the white Arc

Vso

Maximum flaps extended speed the upper limit of the white Arc

Vfe

The stall speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration the lower limit of the green arc

Vs1

The maximum structural cruising speed the upper limit of the green ark and the lower limit of the yellow Arc

Vno

Never exceed speed marked in red

Vne

Maximum landing gear extended speed

Vle

Maneuvering speed

Va

The best rate of climb AirSpeed that will result in the most altitude in a given.

Vy

The best angle of climb speed the airspeed that will result in the most altitude in a given distance

Vx

The best angle of climb speed the airspeed that will result in the most altitude in a given distance

Vx

Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged

Airspeed

Which instruments will become inoperative if the static vents become

AirSpeed altimeter and vertical speed

If the pitot tube and the outside static vents become clogged which instruments would be affected

The altimeter airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument

Airspeed indicator

Which v speed represents maneuvering speed

Va

What does the red line on an airspeed indicator

Never exceed speed

Which color identifies the never exceed speed

The red radial line

Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration

Lower limit of the green

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff

Vx

After takeoff which AirSpeed with the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period Of time

Vy

What is the full flap operating range for the airplane

55 to 100 knots

What is the maximum flaps extended speed

100 knots

What color identifies the normal flap operating range

The white arc

What is an important AirSpeed limitation that is not color coded on AirSpeed indicators

Maneuvering speed

Which v speed represents maximum flap extended speed

V f e

Which v speed represents maximum landing gear extended

Vle

Vno is defined as the

Maximum structural cruising speed

Vso is defined as

Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter

The elevation of the departure area

Prior to take off the altimeter should be set to which altitude or alternator setting

The current local altimeter setting if available or the departure airport elevation

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level

18000 ft MSL

Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

True altitude at field elevation

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter

Pressure levels are raised on warm days in the indicated altitude is lower than the true altitude

What is true altitude

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude

In colder than standard air temperature

What is absolute altitude

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface

What is density altitude

The pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature

What is pressure altitude

The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92

Under what conditions is indicated altitude the same as true altitude

When at sea level under standard conditions

If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29. 15 to 29. 85 what change occurs

700 foot increase and indicated altitude

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to a true altitude

When standard atmosheric condition exists

if a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted the altimeter will indicate

Lower than the actual altitude above sea level

if a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted the altimeter will indicate

Higher than the actual altitude above sea level

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude

Air temperature warmer than standard

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96 what is the approximate change in indication

Altimeter will indicate 150 ft lower

How should a pilot determine the direction of Bank from an attitude indicator

The relationship of the miniature airplane to the deflected horizon bar

A turn coordinator provides an indication of the

Movement of the aircraft about the yall and roll axis

The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the

Miniature airplane to the horizon bar

To receive accurate indication during flight from a heading indicator the instrument must be

Realign ed with the magnetic compass as a gyro precesses

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by

Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is

Magnetic variation

Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by

Certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft

In the northern hemisphere a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

An aircraft is accelerated while on an East or West heading

In the northern hemisphere the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn towards the South when

The aircraft is decelerated while on a West heading

what should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a South heading in the northern hemisphere

The compass will indicate a turn to the right but at a faster rate than it actually occurring

In the northern hemisphere if the aircraft is accelerated or decelerated the magnetic compass will normally indicate

Correctly when on a North or South heading

In the northern hemisphere a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn towards the West if

A right turn is entered from a North heading

In the northern hemisphere a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn towards the east if

A left turn is entered from in a Northern heading

During flight when are the indication of a magnetic compass accurate

Only in straight and level unaccelerated flight

The definition of night time is

The time between the end of evening civil twilight in the beginning of morning civil twilight

In regard to privileges and limitations a Private pilot May

not pay less than the prorated share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involved only fuel-oil airport expenditures or rental fees

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations a Private pilot May

not pay less than the prorated share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expense involve only fuel-oil airport expenditures and rental fees

What exception if any permits a Private pilot to act as pilot in command of any aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight

If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight

With respect to the certification of airmen which are categories of aircraft

Airplane rotorcraft glider lighter than air

With respect to the certification of airmen which are classes of aircraft

Single-engine Land and Sea multi-engine Land and Sea

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12500 lb

a third class medical certificate was issued to a 19 year old pilot on August 10th this year to exercise the privileges of a recreational or Private pilot certificate the medical certificate will expire at midnight on

August 31st five years later

a third class medical certificate is issued to a 36 year old pilot on August 10th this year to exercise the privileges of a Private pilot certificate the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

August 31st five years later

a third class medical certificate is issued to a 51 year old pilot on May 3rd this year to exercise the privileges of a Private pilot certificate the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

May 31st two years later

for Private pilot operations a second-class medical certificate issued to a 42 year old pilot on July 15th this year will expire at midnight on

July 31st two years later

for Private pilot operations a first class medical certificate issued to a 23 year old pilot on October 21st this year will expire at midnight on

October 31st five years later

to operate on basicmed the pilot in command must have completed a physical examination by state license physician within the preceding

48 months

For Private pilot operations on a basic med the pilot in command is allowed to fly with no more than

5 passengers

To maintain basicmed privileges you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist cmec every

48 months

what documents must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot-in-command of an aircraft

An appropriate pilot certificate in an appropriate current medical certificate if required

When must a current pilot certificate be in a pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft

Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewman

a recreational or Private pilot acting as pilot in command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member must have their personal possessions and readily accessible in the aircraft a current

Medical certificate is required and inappropriate pilot certificate

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any

Local law enforcement officer

to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding

24 calendar months

if recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met in the official sunset is 1830 the latest time passengers may be carried is

1929

To act as pilot in command of any aircraft carrying passengers the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category class and if a type rating is required of the same type within the preceding

90 days

Your cousin wants you to take him flying you must have made three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding

90 days

to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers the pilot must have made three takeoffs and 3 landings within the preceding 90 days and aircraft of the same

Category class and type if type rating is required

to meet The residency of experience requirements to act as pilot-in-command carrying passengers at night a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings With in the preceding 90 days in

The same category and class of aircraft to be used

If a recreational or Private pilot had a flight review on August 8th this year when is the next flight review required

August 31st two years later

Each recreational private pilot's required to have

A biennial flight review

the takeoffs and landings required to meet The recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane

Must be to a full stop

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower

before person holding a Private pilot certificate may act as private pilot in command of a high-performance airplane that person must have

Received ground and flight instructions from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses a person's log book

In order to act as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane a pilot must have

Received and logged ground in flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower

A certified Private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's log book a minimum of

100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category class and type if require that the pilot is using to tow a glider

To act as a pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months

At least three actual or simulated glider toes while accompanied by a qualified pilot

If a certified pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA airmen certification branch of the new address the pilot is entitled to exercise their privileges of the pilot certificate for a period Of only

30 days after the date of the move

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is

Pilot in command

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action the pilot in command May

Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of the deviation to the administrator

Upon request

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is and condition for safe flight

The pilot in command

Prior to take off briefing of passengers for a flight is the responsibility of

The pilot

Which pre-flight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight

Pre-flight actions as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport should include

An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned

In addition to other professions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport regulations specifically require the pilot in command to

Determine runway length at airport which intended use in the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

Takeoffs and landings

which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened

Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing

Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

Takeoffs and landings

which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew member are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened

Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while in route shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing

With respect to the passengers what allegation if any does a pilot in command have concerning the use of seatbelts

the pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of seatbelts and notify them to fasten your seatbelts during taxi takeoff and landing

Pre takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seatbelts for a flight is the responsibility of

The pilot in command

With certain exceptions seatbelts are required to be secured about passengers during

Taxi takeoff and landings

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which person in an aircraft and when

Passengers during taxi takeoff and landings only

under what condition if any May a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft

In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

.04% by weight or more alcohol in the body

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drug shall be reported to the FAA civil aviation security division

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic

Aircraft in distress

What action is required with two aircraft of the same category converge but not head

The aircraft on the left should give way

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed

A glider has the right of way over an airship airplane or rotorcraft

An airplane and an airship are converging if the airship is left of the airplanes position which aircraft has the right of way

The airship

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed

An aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircrafts

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

At the lower altitude but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another

A seaplane and a motorboat are in a crossing course if the motor boat is to the left of the seaplane which has the right of way

The seaplane

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course

Both pilot should give way to the right

and approve chair type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

180 days

With certain exceptions when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute

When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more

when an ATC clearance has been obtained no pilot in command May deviate from the clearance unless amended clearance is obtained or a deviation in response to traffic the one exception to this regulation is

An emergency

As pilot-in-command of an aircraft under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance

In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance

Within 48 hours if requested by ATC

Why on a VFR cross-country in 9 contact with ATC what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency

121 .5 MHz

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere

An attitude allowing if a power unit fails an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface

except when necessary for takeoff relating what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested area

An altitude of 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2050 of the aircraft

except when necessary for takeoff or landing what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area

an altitude of 500 ft AGL except over open water or a sparsely populated area which requires 500 feet from any person vessel vehicle or structure

except when necessary for takeoff or landing an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person vessel vehicle or structure

500 ft

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1200 feet AGL the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirements for VFR flight is

2000 feet

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL

3 miles

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL

500 ft below 1000 feet above and 2000 feet horizontally

turn operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 ft AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum distance above cloud requirement for VFR flight is

1000 feet

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of

3 miles and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flight above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 ft AGL in controlled airspace is

5 miles

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 ft AGL the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required

1 mile

Turn off vibrations at altitudes of more than 1200 feet AGL in at or above 10,000 feet MSL the minimum distance above cloud requirements for VFR flight is

1000 ft

what minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in class g airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours

1 mi visibility and clear of clouds

during operations outside controlled airspace and altitude of more than 1,200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is

3 Mile

turn off vibrations outside controlled airspace altitudes of more than 1,200 ft AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight is

1 mile

during operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL the minimum distance below clouds requirements for VFR flight at night is

500 ft

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within class d airspace unless the

Ground visibility at the airports at least three mile

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within class d airspace

1000 ft ceilings and 3 miles visibility

a special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate via fire while with in class d airspace when the visibility is

At least one mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

What is the minimum weather conditions required for airplanes operating under special VFR in class d airspace

1 mile flight visibility

What are the minimum requirements for an airplane operations under special VFR in class d airspace at night

The pilot must be instrument rated in the airplane must be IFR equipped

No person may operate an airplane within class d airspace at night under special VFR unless the

Are planes equipped for instrument flight

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in class d airspace

Air traffic control tower

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight under magnetic 135°

Odd thousands plus 500 ft

Which VFR cruising altitude acceptable for a flight on a vector airway with a magnetic course of


175 °the terrain is less than 1000 feet

5500 feet

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3000 ft AGL on a magnetic course of 185°

4500 feet

each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude Sean maintain an odd thousand plus 500 ft altitude while on a

Magnetic course of 0 through 179°

With respect to the certification of aircraft which is a class of aircraft

Airplane rotorcraft glider balloon

Unless otherwise specifically authorized no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate

Over a densely populated area or in a congested airway

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft

Flight over a densely populated area

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

Except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft

Under what condition May objects be dropped from an aircraft

If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface

How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of a flight at a controlled airport

The pilot must close a flight plan with the FAA upon landing

unless otherwise authorized what is the maximum indicated AirSpeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL

250 knots

unless otherwise authorized to maximum indicated AirSpeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2500 ft AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of class c airspace is

200 knots

When flying in the airspace underlying class b airspace the maximum speed authorized is

200 knots

When flying and VFR corridor designated through class b airspace the maximum speed authorized is

200 knots

Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found

In the current faa-approved flight manual or proved manual material markings and place cards or any combination thereof

where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an experimental or special light sport airworthiness certificate

Attached to the airworthiness certificate

In addition to a valid airworthiness certificate what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight

Operating limitations and registration certificate

How long does the airworthiness certificate of an aircraft remain valid

As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal aviation regulations

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the

Owner or operator

The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a pre-flight inspection and a

Review of the maintenance records

the responsibility for ensuring that the maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for the return to service lies with the

Owner or operator

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service

Owner or operator

Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by

Inappropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance record

an aircraft and your condition inspection was performed on July 12th this year the next annual inspection will be due no later than

July 31st next year

To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection a person should refer to the

Aircraft maintenance records

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction

Annual condition and 100-hour inspections

No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding

24 calendar months

maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1st 2014 the next expection will be due no later than

September 30th 2016

Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft what paperwork is required

the signature certificate number and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance record

What regulations allow a Private pilot to perform preventive maintenance

14 CFR part 43.7

Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for service

Private or commercial pilot

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance

Replenishing hydraulic fluids

if an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft operation in flight the aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

With passengers aboard

Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably change its flight characteristics it must be flight tested by an appropriately rated pilot who holds at least a

Private pilot certificate

An aircraft has a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6 when is the next 100-hour inspection due

1359.6

A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours the 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours when is the next 100 inspection due

3402.5 hours

which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable airworthiness directive

Aircraft maintenance records

What should an owner operator know about airworthiness directives ad's

They are mandatory

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an airworthiness directive

Yes if allowed by the AD

Who is responsible for ensuring airworthiness directives are complied with

Owner or operator

FAA advisory circulars some free others at cost are available to all pilots and are obtained by

Ordering these desired from the government printing office

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically rated air main are issued under which subject number

60

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically rated to airspace are issued under which subject number

70

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to air traffic controller and general operations are issued under which subject number

90

if an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

Immediately

Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office

Flight control systems not function or failure

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office

An in-flight fire

Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office

An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident

May aircraft wreckage be removed prior to the time the NTSB takes custody

Yes but only to protect the records from further damage

The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days

10

the operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB

When requested

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-controlled airport

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

To enter 45° at the midpoint cover the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude

VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished

The same as during daytime

when approaching to land at an airport in a class g airspace that does not have light signals or other visual markings in airplane pilot must make

All turns to the left

Entries into traffic patterns while descending create specific collision hazards and

Should be avoided

Inbound to an airport with no tower FSS or you can caught in operation a pilot should self announce on multicom frequency

122.9

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

090° and 270° magnetic

The numbers 8 and 26 on an approach end of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

080°and 260°magnetic

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway what is the purpose of the tax rate directional sign

Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

The yellow demarcation bar marking indicates

A runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway

Who should not participate in the land and hold short operations program (lahso)

A student pilot

Who has the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance

Pilot in command

When should pilots decline a land and hold short clearance

When it will compromise safety

Where is the available landing distance data published for an airport that utilizes land and hold short operations

Special notices section of the chart supplement u.s.

What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short clearance

3 statute miles

When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines the pilot

Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

What is the purpose of the runway/runway holding position sign

Denotes intersecting runway

What does the outbound destination sign identify

Identify direction to take off runway

What is the purpose of the no entry sign

Identifies a paved area where aircrafts are prohibited from entering

Which approach and landing objective is shirred when pilot remains on the proper glidepath on a VASI

Safe obstruction clearance and the approached area

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

Pulsating red light

while operating in class d airspace each pilot on an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator shall (VASI)

Maintaining altitude at or above the glideslope until a lower altitude is necessary for safe landing

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator the pilot shall (VASI)

Maintaining altitude at or above the glideslope

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is (PAPI)

Three white lights and one red light

When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds which aileron positions should be used

Aileron's down on the side which the wind is blowing

Which a neuron position should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds

Aileron up on the side for which the wind is blowing

Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nose wheel equipped high wing airplane

Quartering tailwind

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown the pilot should keep the

Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion

Information concerning parachute-jumping sites may be found in the

Chart supplement U. S.

Hypoxia

A state of oxygen deficiency impairs functions of the brain and other organs

Hyperventilation

A deficiency of carbon dioxide within the body

Carbon monoxide

A colorless odorless and tasteless gas contained in exhaust fumes

when operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitude above 12500 ft MSL up to and including 14,000 ft MSL supplemental oxygen shall be used during

That flight times in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes

unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen no person may operate a civil aircraft of us. Registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of

15000 ft MSL

Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in

Loss of muscular power

it probably experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in his body by

Slowing the breathing rate breathing into a paper bag or talking aloud

Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as

Altitude increases

The dangers of spatial disorientation during flight and poor visual conditions may be reduced by

Having faith in your instruments rather than taking a chance on the scenery organs

A lack of orientation with regards to the position altitude or movement of the aircraft and space is defined as

Spatial disorientation

Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if

Visual Hughes are taken away as they are and instruments meteorological conditions

if a pilot experience is special disorientation during flight and a restricted visibility condition the best way to overcome this effect is to

Rely upon the aircraft instrument indications

what is often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities in the aircraft limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain and low visibility and ceiling

Scud running

What antidotal phrase can help preserve verse be hazardous attitude of entire story

Follow the rules

What an adorable phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity

Not so fast think first

Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time what are some of these hazardous attitudes

Anti-authority impulsivity macho resignation and invulnerability

In the aeronautical decision making (ADM)process what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude

Recognizing hazardous thoughts

risk management as part of the aeronautical decision making(ADM) process relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight

situational awareness problem recognition and good judgment

What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of invulnerability

It could happen to me

What an antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of macho

Taking chances is foolish

Which antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of resignation

I am not helpless

Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight even though he or she holds current medical certificate

The pilot

What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents

Human error

What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground obstacles on fine under visual flight rules VFR

Duck under syndrome

What is the one of the neglected items when I pilot relies on short and long-term memory for repetitive tasks

Checklist

a pilot and two passengers landed on a 2100 foot East-West gravel strip with an elevation of 1800 ft the temperature is warmer than expected and after computing the density altitude it is determine the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle is 1980 ft the airplane is 75 lb under gross weight what would be the best choice

Wait until the temperature decreases and recalculate the takeoff performance

Most mid-air collision accident occurred during

Clear days

Prior to starting each maneuver pilot should

Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

What effects does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight

All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance

To scam properly for traffic a pilot should

Use a series of short regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field

Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should

Not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least one second

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight

Systemically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft

There would be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft in the other aircraft

What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying

Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight

What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight

Scan slow leader permit off center viewing

The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to

Look at the side of the object and skin slowly

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during night time hours is to use

Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing

Except in Alaska during what time. Should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft

Sunset to sunrise

pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 ft day or night and when operating within

10 miles of any airport

The aeronautical information manual aim specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 ft day or night and especially when operating

In conditions of reduced visibility

during a night flight you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude what is the general direction of movement of the aircraft

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

during a night flight you observe a study white light and a flashing red light that had at the same altitude what is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft

The aircraft is flying away from you

During a night flight you observe steady red and green lights ahead at the same altitude what is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft

The other aircraft is approaching head-on

The winds at 5000 ft AGL is South Westerly while the surface when is southerly this difference in direction is primarily due to

Friction between the wind and the surface

Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by

Cool dense are moving inland from over the water

When there is a temperature inversion you would expect to experience

An increase in temperature as altitude increases

Air circulates in a clockwise direction around a high

M

Air circulates in a counterclockwise direction around a low

M

The closer the isobars are together the stronger the wind speed

M

The most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

Terrestrial radiation on a clear relative still night

What is meant by the term dew point

The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the

Air temperature

Clouds fog or do will always form when

Water vapor condenses

What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air

Evaporation and sublimation

if the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing the temperature is 62° Fahrenheit what type of weather is most likely to develop

Fog or low clouds

Ridge

Elongated area of high pressure

Trough

Elongated area of low pressure

A cold front

The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass

Frontal waves and cyclones

Areas of low pressure usually form on a slow-moving cold front or stationary fronts

One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across the front is

A change in temperature

One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the

Wind direction

which weather condition should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high

Smooth airport visibility fog Haze or low clouds

What measurements can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere

Actual lapse rate

What would decrease the stability of an air mass

Warming from below

What is a characteristics of stable air

Stratiform clouds

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion

A stable layer of air

What are the characteristics of a moist unstable air mass

Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation

What are the characteristics of unstable air

Turbulence and good surface visibility

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristics

Poor surface visibility

Cumuliform clouds

Are the billowy type clouds having considerable vertical development which enhances the growth of rate of precipitation

Stratiform clouds

Clouds are flat evenly based clouds formed in a stable condition

Cirrus clouds

High clouds mainly of ice crystals

When warm moist able air flows upslope it

Produces Stratus type clouds

If an unstable air mass is forced upwards what type of clouds can be expected

Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence

Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of

Stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence

The conditions necessary for formation of a cumulonimbus cloud are the lifting action and

Unstable moist air

What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature is at 1,000 feet MSL is 70° Fahrenheit and the dew point is 48° Fahrenheit

6000 feet MSL


Subtract the surface temperature from the dew point divide the enter by 4.4 then multiply that by1000


And add the field elevation

at approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of a cumulus cloud if the surface air temperature is 82° Fahrenheit and the dew point is 38° Fahrenheit

10000 ft AGL


Subtract surface temperature from dew point divided answer by 4.4 them multiply 1000

The suffix nimbus used in naming clouds means

A rain cloud

Clouds are divided into four families according to their

Height range

What clouds have the greatest turbulence

Cumulonimbus

an almond or lens shaped clouds which appears stationary but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more is referred to as

A lenticular cloud

Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary lens shaped clouds known as

Standing lenticular clouds

What cloud type would indicate convective turbulence

Towering cumulus clouds

Possible mountain Wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow

Across the mountain ridge and they are stable

Upon encountering severe turbulence which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain

Level flight attitude

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm

Continuous updraft

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm

Precipitation beginning to fall

What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms

High humidity lifting force and unstable conditions

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts

Dissipating

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

Mature stage

Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

Squall line thunderstorms

The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins with

The start of precipitation

A non frontal narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop the head of a cold front is known as a

Squall line

If there is a thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport I wish you plan to land which hazards atmospheric phenomenon might be expected in the landing approach

Wind shear turbulence

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm

Lightning

Where does wind shear occur

At all altitudes in all directions

When may hazardous windshear be expected

In areas of low-level temperature inversions frontal zones and clear air turbulence

a pilot can expect a wind shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the wind speed at 2000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least

25 knots

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there

Is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude

One in flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

Visible moisture

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate

Freezing rain

Turn a cross-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is half an inch thick on the leading edge of the wings you're not below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching our destination airport under VFR visibility under the cloud is more like than 10 miles wins at the destination airport eight knots right down the runway and the surface temperature is 3° c you decide to

Use a faster than normal approach and landing speed

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog

Warm moist air over low flat land areas on clear calm nights

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form

An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter

What type of fog depend upon win in order to exist

Advection fog and upslope fog

Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of

Steam fog

Which condition results in the formation of Frost

The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dew point of the adjacent air and the dew point is below freezing

How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff

Frost May prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed

How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance

Also disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing adversely affecting its lifting capabilities

Why is Frost considered hazardous to flight

Frost poems of smooth flow of air over the wings thereby decreasing lifting capabilities

For aviation purposes ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the

Lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obstruction

To best determine general forecast weather conditions covering a flight information region the pilot should refer to

Graphical forecast for aviation GFA

What values are used four winds aloft forecast

True direction and knots

When the term light and variable is used in reference to a winds aloft forecasts the coded group and wind speed is

9900 and less than 5 knots

What is indicated when a current convective sigmet forecasts thunderstorms

Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers

What information is contained in a convective sigmet

Tornadoes invaded thunderstorms and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter

Sigmet are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft

All aircraft

Which in flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms

Sigmet

Airmets are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities then sigmets and are intended for dissemination to

All pilots

When telephoning a weather briefing facility for PreFlight weather information pilot should state

Whether they intend to fly VFR only

To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight the pilot should request

A standard briefing

Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement Mass disseminated data

An abbreviated briefing

To update a previous weather briefing a pilot should request

An abbreviated briefing

a weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the purposed departure time is

An Outlook briefing

When requesting weather information for the following morning a pilot should request

An Outlook briefing

What should pilots State initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for PreFlight weather information

The intended route of flight and destination

What should pilots State initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for PreFlight weather information

Identify themself as pilots

When telephoning a weather briefing facility for PreFlight weather information pilots should state

The aircraft identification or the pilot's name

When speaking to a flight service weather briefer you should state

Whether the flight is VFR or IFR

Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft

Unusable fuel and untrainable oil

Pilotage

is the use of visible landmarks to maintain a desired course and it is basic form of navigation for the beginning pilot operating under VFR

Longitude

Meridians of longitude are drawn from pole to pole

Latitude

Meridian's lines of latitude run parallel to the equator

Which statement about longitude and latitude is true

Lines of longitude cross the equator at right angles

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on sectional aeronautical charts

Airports with control towers underlying class b c d and e airspace are shown in blue

Class a airspace

Extends from 18000 feet MSL up to and including fl600


No VFR allowed

Class b airspace

Consists of controlled airspace extending upward from the surface or higher to specified altitudes outlined in blue


Class c airspace

Has the same dimensions with minor variations two circles centered on primary airport

Class d airspace

Extends upward from the surface to approximately 2500 ft AGL 4 nautical miles in radius shape is depicted by a blue dash line and a number showing the top

Class e airspace

Magenta shading starting at 750 a GL and no shading or blue if next to class g airspace identifies class e airspace starting at 1200 ft AGL

Class g airspace

class g airspace is air space within which air traffic controller has neither The authority nor responsibility to exercise any control over air traffic extends from surface to the base of the overlying controlled class e airspace normally 702 1200 ft AGL

What minimum pilot certification is required for operations within class b airspace

Private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within class b airspace

Private pilot certificate or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsement

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operations within class b airspace

Two-way radio communication equipment a 4096 code transponder and an encoding altimeter

A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts which class airspace

Class d

Air space in an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as class d airspace only

When the associated control tower is in operation

The lateral dimensions of class d airspace are based on

Instrument procedures for which the control air spaces established

when a control tower located on an airport within class d airspace ceases operation for the day what happens to the airspace designation

The airspace reverse to class e or combination of class e and g airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation

a non tower satellite airport within the same class d airspace as a designated for the primary airport requires radio communication be established and maintained with the

Primary airports control tower

two-way communication must be established with the air traffic controller facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace

Class c

Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering class c airspace

Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency

The vertical limit of class c airspace above the primary airport is normally

4000 ft AGL

The radius of the procedural outer area of class c airspace is normally

20 nautical miles

The radius of the procedural outer area of class c airspace is normally

20 nautical miles

All operations within class c airspace must be in

An aircraft equipped with a 4096 code transponder with mode c encoding capabilities

All operations within class c airspace must be in

An aircraft equipped with a 4096 code transponder with mode c encoding capabilities

Under what conditions may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within class c airspace

The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within class c airspace

Two-way radio communication equipment a 4096 code transponder and encoding altimeter

Normal VFR operations in class d airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least

1000 ft and 3 Mile

Unless otherwise authorized two-way radio communication with air traffic control are required for The landings or takeoffs

A tall tower controlled airport regardless of weather conditions

Unless otherwise specified Federal airways include that class e airspace extend upward from

1200 feet above the surface up to and including 17999 ft MSL

With certain exceptions class e airspace extends upward from either 700 ft or 1200 feet AGL to but does not include

18000 ft MSL

Under what conditions if any May pilots fly through a restricted area

With the controlling agencies authorizations

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

Received prior authorization from the controlling agency

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a military operations area moa

Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

Responsibility for collision avoidance is in an alert area rests with

All pilots

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

2000 feet AGL

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited

Class a airspace

When flying hawk n666 CB the proper phraseology for initial contact with Mcalester flight services is

MC alester radio hawk 666 Charlie bravo receiving ardmore vortec over

The correct method of stating 4500 feet MSL to ATC is

Four thousand five hundred

The correct method of stating 10,500 ft MSL to ATC

One zero thousands five hundred

When should pilots State their positions on the airport when calling the tower for take-off

When departing from a runway intersection

a standard operating practice all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of

10 miles

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an atis broadcast indicates that

The ceiling is at least five thousand feet and visibility is 5 miles or more

Automatic terminal information service atis is it continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning

Non control information and selected high activity terminal areas

Select the unicorn frequencies are normally assigned to stations at landing areas used exclusively as heliports

123.05 and 123.075 mhz

After landing at a tower controlled airport went to the pilot contact ground control

When advised by the tower to do so

If instructed by ground control to taxi to runway 9 the pilot May proceed

To the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required

A steady green light signal directed from control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot

Is cleared to land

Alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to

Exercise extreme caution

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot a taxi

Flashing green

if the control tower uses light signals to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling the light will be

Steady red

A flashing white light signal from the control tower to taxi aircraft is an indication to

Return to the starting point on the airport

while on final approach for landing and alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower under these circumstances of pilot should

Exercise extreme caution in abandoned the approach realizing the airport is unsafe for landing

If the aircraft radio fails what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport

Observe the traffic flow into the pattern and look for the light signal from the tower

Why should you file a VFR flight plan with the FAA

To provide search and rescue in the event of an emergency

When the air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock the reference the controller uses the aircrafts

Ground track

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°


"Traffic 3 o clock 2 miles westbound"where should the pie look for this traffic

South

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot on a heading of 360


"Traffic 10 o clock 2 miles south bound

Northwest

Trsa service in the terminal radar program provides

Sequence and separation for participating VFR aircraft

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight


"Traffic 2 o clock 5 miles northbound


Where should the pilot look for this traffic

Between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right

An ATC radar facility issues of following advisory to a pilot flying North in a calm wind


"Traffic at 9 o clock 2 miles southbound


Where should the pilot look for this traffic

West

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

Safety alerts traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations

Ground control on initial contact

Inoperable 4096 car transponder whether encoding altimeter is required in which airspace

Class a class b and within 30 miles of class b primary airport and class c

Inoperable 4096 code transponder and mode c encoding altimeter are required in

Class b airspace in within 30 miles of class b primary airport

When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL unless otherwise authorised what transponder code should be selected

1200

When operating the transponder on the VFR code 1200 what is a minimum of the transponder must be in

Modi

if air traffic controller advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing class c airspace the transponder should be set to code

1200

with certain exceptions all aircraft within 30 miles of class b primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

An operable transponder having either mode s or 4096 code abilities with mode c automatic altitude reporting capabilities

When making routine transponder code changes pilots should avoid inadvertent section of which codes

7500 7600 7700

When making routine transponder code changes pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of the which code

7500

Unless otherwise authorized if flying a transponder equipped aircraft they probably should squawk which VFR code

1200

When activated an emergency locator transponder elt transmits on

406 MHz

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter elt be replaced or a charge if rechargeable

When the LT has been in use for more than one cumulative hour

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter elt required to be replaced

When 50% of their useful life expires

When must have batteries in an emergency locator transmitter elt be replaced or recharged if battery is rechargeable

After 1/2 the batteries useful life

When may an emergency locator transmitter elt be tested

During the first five minutes after the hour

Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter elt has not been activated

Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown

How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller

the throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM

What regulations allow a Private pilot to perform preventative maintenance

14 CFR part 43.7

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of a

Heat exchange

When requesting weather information for the following morning a pilot should request

An Outlook briefing