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356 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is the definition of a high-performance airplane
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An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower
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The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft
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Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12500 pounds
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A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10 this year To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate the medical certificate will be valid until
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midnight on August 31 3 years later
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Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of
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the Administrator the National Transportation Safety Board or any federal state or local law enforcement officer
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Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as
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altitude increases
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A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by
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slowing the breathing rate breathing into a bag or talking aloud
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Which would most likely result in hyperventilation
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Emotional tension anxiety or fear
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Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as
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hyperventilation
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What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying
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Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight
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What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight
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All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance
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No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with
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04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood
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Under what condition if any may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft
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In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care
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A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
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8 hours
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4 With respect to the certification of aircraft a class of aircraft is
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Airplane rotorcraft glider balloon
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With respect to the certification of airmen a category of aircraft is
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Airplane rotorcraft glider lighter-than-air
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With respect to the certification of aircraft a category of aircraft is
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Normal utility acrobatic
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With respect to the certification of airmen a class of aircraft is
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Single-engine land and sea multiengine land and sea
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What exception if any permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight
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If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight
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What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft
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An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required
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To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers the pilot must have made
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at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category class and if a type rating is required of the same type within the preceding 90 days
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If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of
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only 30 days after the date of the move
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If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8 this year when is the next flight review required
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August 31 2 years later
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Each recreational or private pilot is required to have a
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biennial flight review
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If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8 this year when is the next flight review required
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August 31 2 years later
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To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding
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24 calendar months
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The definition of nighttime is the time between the
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end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight
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If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830 the latest time passengers may be carried is
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1929
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The term 'angle of attack' is defined as the angle between the
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wing chord line and the relative wind
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The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
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remain the same regardless of gross weight
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One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
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increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
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What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane
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To control yaw
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What is the relationship of lift drag thrust and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight
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Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag
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The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are
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lift weight thrust and drag
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Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff
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VX
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After takeoff which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time
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VY
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Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed
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VA
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When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium
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During unaccelerated flight
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What force makes an airplane turn
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The horizontal component of lift
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Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight
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Turns
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The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon
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the speed of the airplane
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If an airplane weighs 2300 pounds what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude
|
4600 pounds
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Why is frost considered hazardous to flight
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Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings thereby decreasing lifting capability
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How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance
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Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing adversely affecting its lifting capability
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What is ground effect
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The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane
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What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted
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The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced
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What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane
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The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift
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An airplane said to be inherently stable will require
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less effort to control
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The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of
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the propeller blade descending on the right producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left
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When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left
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When at high angles of attack
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In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine airplane
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Low airspeed high power high angle of attack
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As altitude increases the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
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remain the same regardless of altitude
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During an approach to a stall an increased load factor will cause the airplane to stall at
|
a higher airspeed
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In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin
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Both wings are stalled
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What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction
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Annual and 100-hour inspections
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An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6-when is the next 100-hour inspection due
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1359.6 hours.
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Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1 1993
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The next inspection will be due no later than September 30 1995
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When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced
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When 50 percent of their useful life expires
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When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour
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When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour
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If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to
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being operated with passengers aboard
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An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on July 12 this year-the next annual inspection will be due no later than
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July 31 next year
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Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by an appropriate notation
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in the aircraft maintenance records
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No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding
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24 calendar months
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When activated an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
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121.5 and 243.0 MHz
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When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)
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After one-half of the battery's useful life
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When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested
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During the first 5 minutes after the hour
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Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated
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Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown
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Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft-what paperwork is required
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The signature certificate number and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records
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Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance
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Replenishing hydraulic fluid
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What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance
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14 CFR Part 43.7
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What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)
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They are mandatory
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May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)
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Yes if allowed by the AD
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Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive
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Aircraft maintenance records
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In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight
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Operating limitations and Registration Certificate
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Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight
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The pilot in command
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The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
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owner or operator
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Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with
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Owner or operator
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The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by
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a preflight inspection and a review of the maintenance records
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Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found
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In the current FAA-approved flight manual approved manual material markings and placards or any combination thereof
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How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid
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As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations
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Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition
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Owner or operator
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Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight
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Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight
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In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport regulations specifically require the pilot in command to determine
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runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft
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Preflight action as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport shall include
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an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned
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During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight
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The pilot in command
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How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day
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Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer
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Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during
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takeoffs and landings
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With certain exceptions safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during
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taxi takeoffs and landings
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Unless otherwise specifically authorized no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate over
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a densely populated area or in a congested airway
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No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when
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over any congested area of a city town or settlement
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What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight
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1500 feet AGL
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In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited
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Class E airspace below 1500 feet AGL
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No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is
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less than 3 miles
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What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine
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Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges
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One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
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improved engine performance
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During the run-up at a high-elevation airport a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check-under these circumstances what would be the most logical initial action
|
Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture
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The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
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decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density
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While cruising at 9500 feet MSL the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted-what will occur if a descent to 4500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture
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The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean
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The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
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a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM
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Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing
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Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity
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Generally speaking the use of carburetor heat tends
|
to decrease engine performance
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If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
|
loss of RPM
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Applying carburetor heat will
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enrich the fuel/air mixture
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The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the difference in air pressure at
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the venturi throat and the air inlet
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If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine it will most likely cause
|
detonation
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Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when the
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unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally
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If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff the initial corrective action to take would be to
|
lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed
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The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
|
pre-ignition
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What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating
|
Enrichen the fuel mixture
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What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb
|
Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed
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If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range the pilot may have been operating with
|
too much power and with the mixture set too lean
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Excessively high engine temperatures will cause
|
loss of power-excessive oil consumption and possible permanent internal engine damage
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|
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
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the oil level being too low
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For internal cooling reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
|
the circulation of lubricating oil
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Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges
|
Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating
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What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available
|
The next higher octane aviation gas
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On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used
|
In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails
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Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
|
prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks
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A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
|
avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM
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How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller
|
The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM
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What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller
|
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance
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Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine it is extremely important that a competent pilot
|
be at the controls in the cockpit
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Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport
|
An increase in ambient temperature
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Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value
|
At standard temperature
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What effect does high density altitude as compared to low density altitude have on propeller efficiency and why
|
Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes
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What is pressure altitude
|
The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92
|
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What is density altitude
|
The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature
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What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance
|
It reduces climb performance
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If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard the density altitude is
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higher than pressure altitude
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Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance
|
High temperature high relative humidity and high density altitude
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What effect if any does high humidity have on aircraft performance
|
It decreases performance
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What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane
|
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
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What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane
|
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
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Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by
|
the magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force
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In the Northern Hemisphere a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
|
a right turn is entered from a north heading
|
|
In the Northern Hemisphere if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated the magnetic compass will normally indicate correctly when on
|
a north or south heading
|
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During flight when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate
|
Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight
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In the Northern Hemisphere the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
|
the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading
|
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If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged which instruments would be affected
|
The altimeter airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator
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The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument
|
Airspeed indicator
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What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators
|
Maneuvering speed
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What is the maximum flaps-extended speed
|
100 MPH
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If an altimeter setting is not available before flight to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter
|
The elevation of the departure area
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If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96 what is the approximate change in indication
|
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower
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Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude
|
When standard atmospheric conditions exist
|
|
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
|
true altitude at field elevation
|
|
What is true altitude
|
The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level
|
|
What is absolute altitude
|
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface
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If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85 what change occurs
|
700-foot increase in indicated altitude
|
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Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude
|
When at sea level under standard conditions
|
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If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted the altimeter will indicate
|
lower than the actual altitude above sea level
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Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude
|
In colder than standard air temperature
|
|
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter
|
Increasing temperature will increase pressure
|
|
A turn coordinator provides an indication of the movement of the aircraft about the
|
yaw and roll axes
|
|
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of a
|
heat exchange
|
|
What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points
|
Unequal heating of the Earth
|
|
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level
|
15 °C and 29.92 inches Hg
|
|
The wind at 5000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to friction between the wind and the surface
|
The development of thermals depends upon solar heating
|
|
Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by
|
cool dense air moving inland from over the water
|
|
An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more is referred to as a
|
lenticular cloud
|
|
Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary lens-shaped clouds known
|
as standing lenticular clouds
|
|
Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when
|
winds of 40 knots or greater blow across a mountain ridge and the air is stable
|
|
What is meant by the term 'dewpoint'
|
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated
|
|
Clouds fog or dew will always form when
|
water vapor condenses
|
|
What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air
|
Evaporation and sublimation
|
|
The suffix 'nimbus' used in naming clouds means
|
a rain cloud
|
|
Clouds are divided into four families according to their
|
height range
|
|
What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1000 feet MSL is 70 °F and the dewpoint is 48 °F
|
6000 feet MSL
|
|
What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence
|
Towering cumulus clouds
|
|
What clouds have the greatest turbulence
|
Cumulonimbus
|
|
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm
|
Precipitation beginning to fall
|
|
The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are
|
a lifting action and unstable moist air
|
|
What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms
|
High humidity lifting force and unstable conditions
|
|
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts
|
Dissipating
|
|
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
|
mature stage
|
|
Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are
|
squall line thunderstorms
|
|
A nonfrontal narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is a known as a
|
squall line
|
|
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm
|
Continuous updraft
|
|
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm
|
Lightning
|
|
The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a
|
front
|
|
One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is
|
a change in temperature
|
|
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is
|
a change in the wind direction
|
|
Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
|
stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
|
|
What are characteristics of a moist unstable air mass
|
Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation
|
|
What are characteristics of unstable air
|
Turbulence and good surface visibility
|
|
A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic
|
Smooth air
|
|
Moist stable air flowing upslope can be expected to produce
|
stratus type clouds
|
|
If an unstable air mass is forced upward what type clouds can be expected
|
Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence
|
|
What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere
|
Actual lapse rate
|
|
What would decrease the stability of an air mass
|
Warming from below
|
|
What is a characteristic of stable air
|
Stratiform clouds
|
|
A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition
|
An increase in temperature as altitude is increased
|
|
The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
|
terrestrial radiation on a clear relatively still night
|
|
Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high
|
Smooth air poor visibility fog haze or low clouds
|
|
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion
|
A stable layer of air
|
|
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog
|
Warm moist air over low flatland areas on clear calm nights
|
|
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form
|
An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
|
|
Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog
|
Steam fog
|
|
What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist
|
Advection fog and upslope fog
|
|
Upon encountering severe turbulence which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain
|
Level flight attitude
|
|
Where does wind shear occur
|
At all altitudes in all directions
|
|
When may hazardous wind shear be expected
|
In areas of low-level temperature inversion frontal zones and clear air turbulence
|
|
A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2000 to 4000 feet above the surface is at least
|
25 knots
|
|
If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach
|
Wind-shear turbulence
|
|
One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
|
visible moisture
|
|
In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate
|
Freezing rain
|
|
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there is a
|
temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude
|
|
For aviation purposes ceiling is defined as
|
the height above the Earth's surface of the lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration
|
|
From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast
|
Area Forecast
|
|
To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states the pilot should refer to
|
Aviation Area Forecasts
|
|
The section of the Area Forecast entitled 'VFR CLDS/ WX' contains a general description of cloudiness and weather significant to flight operations broken down by
|
states or other geographical areas
|
|
To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft the pilot should refer to the
|
Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories
|
|
AIRMET's are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than Sigmets and are intended for dissemination
|
to All pilots
|
|
Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms
|
SIGMET
|
|
SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft
|
All aircraft
|
|
What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms
|
Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers
|
|
What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET
|
Tornadoes embedded thunderstorms and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter
|
|
When the term 'light and variable' is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast the coded group and windspeed is
|
9900 and less than 5 knots
|
|
What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts
|
True direction and knots
|
|
Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate
|
location of precipitation along with type intensity and cell movement of precipitation
|
|
What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts
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Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms
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What does the heavy dashed line that forms a large rectangular box on a radar summary chart refer to
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Severe weather watch area
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To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight a pilot should monitor a
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Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB or a VOR facility
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Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source
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Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB)
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Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB's) may be monitored by
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tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain VOR and NDB frequencies
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What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station
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Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route
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How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station and what service would be expected
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Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route
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What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information
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Identify themselves as pilots
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A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is
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an outlook briefing
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When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information pilots should state
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the aircraft identification or the pilot
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To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight the pilot should request a
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standard briefing
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Which type weather briefing should a pilot request when departing within the hour if no preliminary weather information has been received
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Standard briefing
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Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data
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An abbreviated briefing
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An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight-If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits how much fuel should be drained
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18.4 gallons
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Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft
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Unusable fuel and undrainable oil
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An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit-one undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be
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difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition
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Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be
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less stable at all speeds
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Unless otherwise authorized two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for
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landings or takeoffs at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions
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Prior to starting each maneuver pilots should
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visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance
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Except in Alaska during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft
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Sunset to sunrise
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What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway
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Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace
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Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
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all pilots
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The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use a
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series of short regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector
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Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight
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Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals
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How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft
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There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft
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During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1200 feet AGL the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
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2000 feet
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In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited
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Class A
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An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace
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Class A Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport) and Class C
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An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in
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Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport
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What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace
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Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements
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An ATC clearance provides
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authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace
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What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace
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Two-way radio communications equipment a 4096-code transponder and an encoding altimeter
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Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace
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Class C
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Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace
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Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency
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Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace
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The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff
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All operations within Class C airspace must be in an aircraft equipped with
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a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability
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The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is
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20 nautical miles
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The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
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4000 feet AGL
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Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only when
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the associated control tower is in operation
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No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless
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the ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles
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Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least
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1000 feet and 3 miles
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A non-tower satellite airport within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport requires
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radio communications be established and maintained with the primary airport
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The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on the
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instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established
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What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10000 feet MSL
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3 miles
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When requesting weather information for the following morning a pilot should request
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an outlook briefing
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The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10000 feet MSL is
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500 feet below 1000 feet above and 2000 feet horizontally
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The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10000 feet MSL and more than 1200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
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5 miles
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Unless otherwise specified Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
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1200 feet above the surface up to and including 17999 feet MSL
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The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is
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4 nautical miles
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Outside controlled airspace the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1200 feet AGL and below 10000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
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1 mile
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What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours
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1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
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During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet AGL but less than 10000 feet MSL the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
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3 miles
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During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet AGL but less than 10000 feet MSL the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
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500 feet
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What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours
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1 mile visibility and clear of clouds
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Outside controlled airspace the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1200 feet AGL and below 10000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
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1 mile
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What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night
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The pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped
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A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is at least
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1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds
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What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace
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Air Traffic Control Tower
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What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)
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Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted
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Under what condition if any may pilots fly through a restricted area
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With the controlling agency's authorization
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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere
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An altitude allowing if a power unit fails an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface
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Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°
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Odd thousandths plus 500 feet
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The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
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090° and 270° magnetic
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When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance
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When it will compromise safety
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Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance
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Pilot-in-command
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Where is the 'Available Landing Distance' (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) published
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Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)
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Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program
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Student pilots
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What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance
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3 statute miles
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Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed
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Glider
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What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge but not head-on
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The aircraft on the left shall give way
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A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses-if the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane which has the right-of-way
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The seaplane
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Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic
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An aircraft in distress
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When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace the maximum speed authorized is
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200 knots
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When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace the maximum speed authorized is
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200 knots
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Unless otherwise authorized what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10000 feet MSL is
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250 knots
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A lighted heliport may be identified by a
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green yellow and white rotating beacon
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A military air station can be identified by a
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rotating beacon that emits two quick white flashes between green flashes
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An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is
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below basic VFR weather minimums
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How can a military airport be identified at night
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Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes
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Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall maintain an altitude
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at or above the glide slope
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An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is an
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amber light signal
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A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
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pulsating red light
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An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a
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green light signal
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A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a
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red light signal
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VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished the
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same as during daytime
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A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
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three white lights and one red light
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To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity the pilot should
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click the microphone seven times then click it five times
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Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
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blue omnidirectional lights
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What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight
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Scan slowly to permit off center viewing
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During a night flight you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude-what is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft
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The other aircraft is crossing to the left
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During a night flight you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude-what is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft
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The other aircraft is approaching head-on
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The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to
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look to the side of the object and scan slowly
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The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use
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peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing
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During a night flight you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude-what is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft
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The other aircraft is flying away from you
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Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport
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Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport
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What action if any is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority
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File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility if requested
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If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9 the pilot may
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proceed via taxiways and across runways to but not onto Runway 9
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Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is
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the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas
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After landing at a tower-controlled airport when should the pilot contact ground control
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When advised by the tower to do so
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When flying HAWK N666CB the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is
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'MC ALESTER RADIO HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC OVER
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The correct method of stating 4500 feet MSL to ATC is
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'FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
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The correct method of stating 10500 feet MSL to ATC is
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'ONE ZERO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED'
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From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations
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Ground control on initial contact
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TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides sequencing and separation for
|
participating VFR aircraft
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Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
|
safety alerts traffic advisories and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
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A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is
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a signal that the pilot is cleared to land
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If the aircraft's radio fails what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport
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Observe the traffic flow enter the pattern and look for a light signal from the tower
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When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance
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When it will compromise safety
|
|
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance
|
Pilot-in-command
|
|
Where is the 'Available Landing Distance' (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) published
|
Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)
|
|
Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program
|
Student pilots
|
|
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance
|
3 statute miles
|
|
When activated an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
|
121.5 and 243.0 MHz
|
|
When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested
|
During the first 5 minutes after the hour
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|
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated
|
Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown
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When making routine transponder code changes pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes
|
7500 7600 7700
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When operating under VFR below 18000 feet MSL unless otherwise authorized what transponder code should be selected
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1200
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Unless otherwise authorized if flying a transponder equipped aircraft a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code
|
1200
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If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace the transponder should be set to code
|
1200
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When departing behind a heavy aircraft the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by
|
maneuvering the aircraft above and upwind from the heavy aircraft
|
|
When landing behind a large aircraft the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
|
above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point
|
|
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
|
sink below the aircraft generating turbulence
|
|
Wingtip vortices are created only when
|
an aircraft is developing lift
|
|
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
|
heavy clean and slow
|
|
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a
|
light quartering tailwind
|
|
When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
|
sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence
|
|
Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area a pilot should
|
contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories
|
|
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace
|
Class D
|
|
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than
|
2000 feet AGL
|
|
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number
|
90
|
|
FAA advisory circulars (some free others at cost) are available to
|
all pilots and are obtained by ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office
|
|
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number
|
70
|
|
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number
|
60
|
|
When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using
|
a VOR test signal (VOT) the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read 0° FROM or 180° TO regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT
|
|
How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System (GPS)
|
24
|
|
What is the minimum number of Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on earth
|
5
|
|
How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to yield a three dimensional position (latitude longitude and altitude) and time solution
|
4
|