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216 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. Which of the following are mounted on the airframe mounted gearbox?
a. Tach generator and T5 alternator. b. AC generator and oil pump. c. Hydraulic pump and oil pump. d. AC generator and hydraulic pump. |
d
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2. Electrical power for the T–38C is primarily supplied by
a. three DC generators. b. two AC generators. c. three transformer rectifiers. d. Both a. and b. above. |
b
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3. Which of the following sections houses most of the electrical equipment in the T–38C?
a. Engine bay section b. Nose section c. Cockpit section d. Fuel cell section |
b
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4. Which of the following is/are powered by both hydraulic systems?
a. Flight controls b. Speed Brake c. Wing flaps d. Landing gear |
a
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5. Which of the following components cannot be controlled from the rear cockpit?
a. Normal flaps b. Throttles (IDLE to MAX) c. Fuel boost pumps d. Crossfeed operation e. Engine shutdown f. Stability augmentor g. Speed brake h. Air–conditioning system |
c d e f h
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6. The T–38C requires an external source of low–pressure air to start the engines.
a. True b. False |
a
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7. If the engine–driven fuel pumps fail in the T–38C, gravity feed can sustain engine operation.
a. True b. False |
b
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8. The utility hydraulic system supplies power to the
a. nosewheel steering. b. wheel brake system. c. flaps. d. alternate gear extension |
a
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9. The rear cockpit pilot has the capability to shut down the engines.
a. True b. False |
b
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10. You are rolling out on the runway after a normal full–stop landing. When may you engage the nosewheel steering?
a. As soon as you want to b. When clear of the active runway c. When below 50 knots d. When below 65 knots |
d
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11. You are taxiing into a 20–knot headwind. How fast may you taxi with the canopy open?
a. 30 knots b. 45 knots c. 50 knots d. 65 knots |
a
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12. You are setting up for a chandelle (asymmetric maneuver) with 1,700 pounds of fuel. What will your positive G
limit be during this maneuver? a. +4.7 b. +5.0 c. +6.5 d. Unspecified |
a
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13. You are solo in the area doing continuous aileron rolls. Which of the following restrictions apply?
a. This is prohibited b. This is prohibited at load factors greater than 1.0G. c. This is prohibited at load factors less than 1.0 G. d. This is prohibited at less than ¾ stick travel. |
b c
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14. You are flying a zero–G pushover. Due to engine oil supply and pressure requirements, do not exceed ________ in
this attitude. a. 10 seconds b. 10 seconds at 10,000 feet c. 30 seconds d. 30 seconds at 30,000 feet |
a
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15. While flying solo you notice a fuel imbalance. This imbalance could lead to center of gravity (CG) problems if
a. the right system contains more than twice the left. b. the left system contains more than twice the right. c. you are flying a Block 30 aircraft or earlier. |
a
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16. In the overhead pattern, with 3,000 pounds fuel remaining, you take evasive action to avoid a midair collision.
Your G meter (on the MFD) reads –2.7 Gs. a. This is not an over–G. b. This is an over–G, only if the Gs were asymmetric. c. This is an over–G regardless of flight conditions. d. This indicates a system malfunction. |
c
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17. During a cold weather start you notice your oil pressure at 40 psi.
a. This is within the normal range. b. This is too high, shut down the engine. c. This is normal, oil pressure should return to operating limits within 6 minutes. d. This indicates an indicator malfunction. |
c
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18. While starting the #2 engine, the EGT reaches 850 oC. You should
a. do nothing; this is a normal indication. b. abort the aircraft; write it up in the AFTO Form 781. c. emergency ground egress. d. abort the start. |
d
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19. While starting the #1 engine, the EGT peaks out at 940 oC. You should
a. attempt another start. b. abort the aircraft. c. write the temperature reached and duration in the AFTO Form 781. d. accomplish b and c above. |
d
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20. During the engine run–up for takeoff, your right engine RPM reads 96%. You should
a. release brakes and see what it reads in MAX. b. recycle the throttles until you get a good reading. c. continue the takeoff. d. abort the aircraft. |
d
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21. While setting up for a loop, you notice your right hydraulic pressure is 1,500 psi. This is
a. the minimum of the normal range indications for flight. b. normal. c. abnormal, refer to your Checklist. |
c
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Normal (maximum continuous) thrust is thrust obtained at ________ RPM or ________ EGT, whichever occurs first.
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98; 630
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Military (MIL) thrust is the thrust obtained at ________ RPM without afterburner operation
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100
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Maximum (MAX) thrust is the thrust obtained at ________ RPM with the afterburner operating.
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100
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Afterburner range extends from minimum afterburner of approximately ________ percent augmentation above MIL
thrust to maximum afterburner, which is approximately ________ percent augmentation above MIL thrust |
5; 40
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Avoid taxi operations with an open canopy with a relative wind greater than _________ knots.
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30
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Fuel Imbalance (digital read out):
0 – 50 pound difference ________ display 60 – 190 pound difference ________ color display More than 200 pound difference ________ color display Crossfeed Indicator – connecting line is ________ (color) |
no display; white; red; magenta
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At ________ compressor inlet temperatures, military and afterburner EGT and RPM may be below normal
operating limits. |
low
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Nozzle position may be below ________ when operating the afterburner at less than MAX AB.
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50
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If oil pressure does not return
to operating limits within ________ minutes after engine start, shut down the engine. |
6 minutes
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To prevent fuel starvation and subsequent engine flameout, do not exceed the following:
1. MAX thrust dives with less than ________ pounds of fuel in either system. |
650 pounds
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To prevent fuel starvation and subsequent engine flameout, do not exceed the following:
2. MAX thrust power in zero–G flight or at negative load factors for more than ________ seconds at 10,000 feet or ________ seconds at 30,000 feet. With less than ________ pounds of fuel in either system, time for successful engine operation is further reduced. |
10s; 30s; 650 pounds
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Due to engine oil supply and pressure requirements zero–G flight is restricted to ________ seconds and negative–G
flight (any attitude) to ________ seconds. A momentary drop or loss of oil pressure may be experienced during negative–G or inverted flight. Engine oil venting overboard and/or low oil pressure may occur until positive–G loads are applied. |
10s; 30s
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, do not allow the ________ fuel system quantity to equal
more than twice the ________ fuel system quantity |
R; L
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Minimum Time Interval Between Full Stop Landings
Gear retracted in flight — ________ minutes. Gear extended in flight — ________ minutes. |
45 min; 15 min
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Landing should be made with as low a sink rate as practical. Do not exceed the following sink rate at touchdown:
________ feet per minute for a normal landing, ________ feet per minute for a crab landing with less than 1,700 pounds of fuel. ________ feet per minute for a normal landing, ________ feet per minute for a crab landing with full fuel. |
590; 395; (with less than 1700 pounds of fuel) 340; 200; (with full fuel)
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front cockpit only
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Weapon Systems — Master Arm switch, CMD switch
Avionics Controls/Displays — avionics activation panel, UHF, NAV, and TACAN backup control panels, comm antenna switch, magnetic compass, HUD and HUD control, UFCP on/off control, data transfer drive Flight Controls — auxiliary flap switch, rudder trim knob, and stability augmentor (yaw damper) Fuel System — fuel shutoff switches, fuel boost pump switches, crossfeed switch, and fuel/oxygen quantity check and gage test switch Lighting — all external lighting, position light switch, landing/taxi light switch, rotating beacon, and formation light switch (formation light switch is disabled) Engine — throttle gate, throttle fingerlifts (cutoff feature), and engine anti–ice switch Landing Gear — alternate gear extension and gear door switch Electrical System — battery and generator switches Air–Conditioning/Pressurization System — cabin altimeter (pressure indicator), cabin pressure (ram dump) switch, cabin air temp switch, pitot heat, and canopy defog |
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Rear Cockpit Only
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Take Command Switch — allows RCP to control displays and inputs on the MFD, UFCP
MFD Blanking Mode Selection — The Blanking function in either cockpit is inhibited if the Take Command switch is in the Override position. Boost Pump Indicator Panel — lights are illuminated when FCP boost pump switches are OFF and when Crossfeed switch is ON. Weight Off Wheels Switch — on left console. For maintenance use on the ground only. Video Tape Recorder Panel (Before TCTO 554) — on right console. Used only to insert/eject the tape. VTR function is controlled through either UFCP. Interseat Sequencing System (ISS) Selector Valve (After T.O. 1T-38C-546) — Attached to side of left console beside seat. |
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1. When you lose a generator in the T–38C
a. the other generator normally picks up the load. b. you normally lose the AC components powered by the failed generator. c. you should never try to reset the generator. d. you also lose the hydraulic system on the same engine. |
a
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2. The ________ normally supplies power to the DC busses when an engine is operating.
a. battery b. transformer rectifier units c. static inverter |
b
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3. If the left airframe mounted gearbox fails
a. the left generator light will illuminate. b. the utility hydraulic light will illuminate. c. you will have windmilling hydraulics for normal gear extension. d. both a and b are correct. |
d
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4. Which of the following are powered by the static inverter?
a. Left AC–powered engine instruments b. Flap position indicator c. Both fuel quantity indicators (on EED) d. Gear position lights |
c
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5. What must you do to extend and illuminate the landing–taxi light?
a. Turn on the position lights. b. Extend the gear. c. Turn on the landing light switch. d. a, b, and c are necessary. |
d
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6. If the MASTER CAUTION light and RIGHT GENERATOR light illuminate, how can you determine if the left
generator is not powering the right AC bus? (Select more than one answer.) a. Check for blank HUD. b. Check for OFF flag in the standby attitude indicator. c. Check for blank MFD. d. Check for FAIL indications on the right oil pressure and fuel flow indicators, and on all fuel quantity displays. |
a; d
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7. In the event of complete AC power failure,
a. there will be no interior lighting available. b. the flood lights will automatically illuminate. c. the flood lights will illuminate provided the BRIGHT/DIM switch is placed to DIM. d. the flood lights will illuminate provided the flood light control knob is out of the OFF position. |
d
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8. The Caution Light Panel lights operate in DIM providing (fill in the blanks):
a. the instrument light rheostat is out of the ________ position. b. the Caution light BRIGHT/DIM switch is moved momentarily to the ________ position. c. there is ________ power available. |
off; dim; ac
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9. The position lights may be operated in the BRIGHT or DIM position depending only on the setting of the position
BRIGHT/DIM switch and proper electrical power. a. True b. False |
a
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10. How is the aircraft electrical system (AC and DC) energized on the ground without the engines operating?
a. Battery power b. External power unit c. Both a and b are correct. |
b
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11. Identify the AC–powered instruments.
a. Oil pressure indicators b. Nozzle position indicators c. Fuel flow indicators d. Oxygen quantity indicator e. Flap position indicator f. Fuel quantity indicators g. EGT indicators h. Hydraulic pressure indicators |
a d c f h
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12. Which statements describe the purpose and operating characteristics of the static inverter? (Select more than one
answer) a. It can be used as an alternate source of DC power. b. It operates right AC–powered instruments during starting of the right engine. c. DC power is converted to AC power. d. It can be activated through the use of fuel/oxygen check switch. e. It can operate all AC–powered instruments. |
b c d
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13. At what engine RPM range should the generators come on line?
a. 22 – 25% RPM b. 25 – 30% RPM c. 38 – 42% RPM d. 43 – 48% RPM |
d
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14. Which of the following components would fail in the event of complete AC power failure? Select more than one.
a. Fuel boost pumps b. Crossfeed switch and valve c. Trim d. HUD e. Fire warning f. Wing flaps g. Mission Data Processor |
a c d f g
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15. What AC–powered equipment can be operated when both generators fail? (Select more than one answer.)
a. Left AC–powered engine instruments b. Right AC–powered engine instruments c. Fuel quantity indicators d. Left and right engine ignition |
b c d
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16. With no malfunctions, all DC and AC electrical components can be powered with only the right engine running?
a. True b. False |
a
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17. What is the primary cockpit indication if the left airframe mounted gearbox fails to shift?
a. MASTER CAUTION light flashes momentarily as RPM passes 65 to 75% b. LEFT GENERATOR, UTILITY HYDRAULIC, and MASTER CAUTION light illuminate c. LEFT GENERATOR and transformer rectifier unit lights illuminate as RPM passes 65 to 75% d. LEFT GENERATOR and MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate as RPM passes 65 to 75% |
d
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18. Which instruments will be operational with both generators inoperative? Select more than one.
a. Tachometer and fuel flow indicators b. Tachometer and nozzle position indicators c. EGT indicators and tachometers d. Nozzle position indicators and oil pressure indicators |
b c
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19. How are the Warning/Caution/Advisory System lights powered?
a. By the AC bus in DIM position and by the left essential DC bus in BRIGHT operation b. By the non–essential DC bus in DIM position and by the AC bus in BRIGHT operation c. By a AC bus in all conditions d. By a DC bus in all conditions |
a
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1. What is the approximate life of the battery after TRU failure?
a. 15 minutes b. 18 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 24 minutes |
a
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2. Which of the following statements best describe battery operation? (Select more than one answer.)
a. The battery relay will close, and the battery will charge anytime external AC power is supplied to the aircraft. b. If only one Transformer Rectifier Unit fails, the battery picks up its load. c. If external power is connected, the battery should be turned ON. d. If the battery relay does not close, it is impossible for the battery to be charged. |
c d
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3. Which of the following statements describe a Transformer Rectifier Unit malfunction? (Select more than one
answer.) a. Failure of one Transformer Rectifier Unit will cause a partial DC electrical malfunction. b. Steady illumination of the XMFR RECT OUT caution light indicates that both Transformer Rectifier Units have failed. c. A faulty Transformer Rectifier Unit is indicated when the XMFR RECT OUT caution light illuminates momentarily as the wing flaps are being lowered. d. The battery will supply DC power to the essential busses when both Transformer Rectifier Units have failed. |
b d
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4. During normal operation, what is the primary DC power source?
a. Transformer rectifier units b. Battery c. Static inverter |
a
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5. Which of the following aircraft components are inoperative when there is complete DC electrical failure? (Select
more than one answer.) a. HUD b. Flight controls c. MFD d. Afterburner operation e. Crossfeed operation f. Fuel boost pumps g. Landing Gear Indicators (Bright Mode) h. Trim i. Fire warning lights j. EED |
c d e g i j
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6. How will you be warned when one Transformer Rectifier Unit fails?
a. The Transformer Rectifier Unit light will illuminate. b. The DC–powered equipment will be inoperative. c. The battery will take over the DC power load. d. AVIONICS alert message on the HUD/MFD and a PFL display. |
d
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7. When the external power unit is connected to the aircraft, all electrical busses are energized?
a. True b. False |
a
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8. The TRUs receive their power from the ________ busses and supply power to the ________ busses.
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ac; dc
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9. The battery must have ________ volts minimum to connect to the DC busses when placing the battery switch ON.
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18
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10. Anytime the MASTER CAUTION and XMFR RECT OUT caution lights blink, it is necessary to abort the
mission. a. True b. False |
b
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11. Which of the following is a DC–powered instrument?
a. Flap position indicator b. Oxygen quantity indicator c. HUD d. Hydraulic pressure indicators |
a
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12. With failure of both Transformer Rectifier Units and a dead battery
a. afterburner initiation is still possible. b. an airstart is not possible. c. gear must be lowered by the alternate system. d. Both b and c are correct. |
d
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13. If both TRUs fail (Battery in high state of charge),
a. DC power will be available indefinitely. b. the static inverter will not be available for airstarts. c. the XFMR RECT OUT caution light will not illuminate because the battery will power the DC busses. d. an airstart is possible with battery power only. |
d
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14. How can you check the battery to see if it is charged sufficiently?
a. Turn ON the battery switch prior to connecting the APU. b. Voltage can be checked anytime the battery switch is turned on. c. The battery must be checked by maintenance personnel during the preflight inspection. |
a
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15. Which of the following are true concerning a momentary blink of the XFMR RECT OUT caution light?
a. The battery voltage is momentarily overriding the DC busses voltage. b. This momentary condition is normal when operating high DC load equipment. c. Both a and b are correct. d. None of the above. |
c
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1. The UFCP is inoperative if the MDP fails or is off.
a. True b. False |
a
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2. What does the [] symbol indicate when it is displayed next to a window item?
a. The function/setting is active or selected. b. A menu page is below the current level which can be accessed by pressing the adjacent OSB. c. The selected item is toggled or cycled between options or settings by pressing the adjacent OSB. d. The item displayed in the window below can be selected by pressing the adjacent OSB. |
b
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3. The U BRT rocker switch on the UFCP controls the brightness of the panel window displays, LED, OSBs, and all
function and control keys. a. True b. False |
b
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4. In which of following cases must the ENT key on the UFCP be pressed to complete the data entry?
a. After the last character is entered filling a fixed length field. b. After the last character is entered filling a non–fixed length field. c. After the last character is entered and less than the entire non–fixed length field is filled. d. After the last character is entered in all cases regardless of the number of characters or type of field. |
c
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5. What is the indication that you have entered invalid data on the UFCP?
a. The invalid data display flashes. b. The data display will change to all dashes in the field. c. The last valid data will reappear and flash. d. The data will be erased from the window and the display will be blank. |
a
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6. If a typing error is made on the UFCP before all of the data has been entered, pressing ______________ will clear
the field and display dashes again for reentry of the correct data. a. the RTN key b. the ENT key c. any function key d. the adjacent OSB |
d
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7. Which of the following methods can be used to return from a function display’s primary page to the basic display?
a. Press the RTN key. b. Press the current function key again. c. Wait approximately 20 seconds, and return will be automatic from all function displays if no other inputs are made. d. Both a and b above. |
d
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8. The function displays are manually selected by pressing the applicable function key and are enabled regardless of
the current display or operating stage. a. True b. False |
a
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9. The normal ATC transponder code (IFF squawk) is set or changed on the ______________.
a. EGI function display b. SET function display c. IFF function display d. FPL function display |
c
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10. If the MDP is powered down and back up during flight due to an electrical malfunction, the current (barometric
pressure) altimeter setting will need to be reentered if it is other than the default setting of 29.92. a. True b. False |
b
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1. The primary flight display (PFR) can be selected directly from any MFD display using either the PFR/HSD/SIT
MOSB or Default Display Switch on the FCP control stick. a. True b. False |
a
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2. Which of following MFD controls/displays is used to select the course displayed in the CRS window?
a. Numeric menu display MOSBs b. Course menu display MOSBs c. Course select rocker d. Manual heading select rocker |
c
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3. Which of the following actions is the correct procedure for selecting the single letter “B” on the alphabetic menu?
(Refer to Figure 8-2) a. Press ML-1 once b. Press ML-1 once followed by MB-6 (NEXT) c. Press ML-1 twice delaying at least one second in between button depressions d. Press ML-1 twice without delaying in between button depressions |
d
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4. Which of the following methods can be used to clear/correct an invalid data entry or option selection that continues
to blink after the validity test? a. For cyclical option selections, press the MOSB again to select another (valid) option. b. For menu entries, press the adjacent MOSB again to restart the data entry process and then reenter valid data. c. Press one of the other active MOSBs, which will clear the selection/entry and display the last valid option/data. d. All of the above. |
d
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5. The “arm” extending from the Nadir and Zenith symbols on the EADI always point in the direction of the nearest
horizon, except at exactly 90° dive/climb angle when they point towards the ghost horizon line. a. True b. False |
a
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6. What do the minimum and maximum G values that are displayed with oversized ticks on the G meter scale
indicate for a clean aircraft? a. The absolute minimum/maximum G limits that remain unchanged during the flight. b. The current minimum/maximum G limits that are calculated and updated based on fuel quantity/maneuver. c. The current minimum/maximum Gs that have been obtained and recorded during the flight. d. The minimum/maximum G limits of the display scale. |
b
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7. Which type of intruder aircraft does the red square [ ■ ] symbol represent on the EHSI/HSD/SIT TCAS display?
a. Threat aircraft at RA level b. Threat aircraft at TA level c. Proximity aircraft d. Non–threat aircraft |
a
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8. Which of the following TCAS display scales (range in NM) is the default setting?
a. 2.5 NM b. 5.0 NM c. 10 NM d. 20 NM e. None of the above. |
c
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9. Which of following is true when a PFL failure is detected?
a. A flashing AVIONICS caution message is displayed on the HUD and MFD. b. The detected failure is recorded on both the PFL and MFL, which can be viewed via the MALF display. c. The detected failure will be removed from the PFL if it no longer exists, but it will remain on the MFL. d. All of the above are true. |
d
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10. Which of the following flight reference displays are available on the MFD backup display with MDP failure?
a. EADI and EHSI b. Indicated airspeed c. Pressure altitude d. All of the above |
a
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11. How many Training Zones can be downloaded from the DTC and available for display on the MFD HSD/SIT?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 40 |
b
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12. What information does the Divert modes Range (RNG) profile display?
a. The flight profile for an optimum climb/cruise best range airspeed and altitude to the currently selected steer point using minimum fuel. b. The flight profile intended to achieve maximum endurance at the current altitude and the time remaining to reach Bingo fuel. c. The flight profile intended to achieve maximum range at the current altitude and the time remaining to the current steer point. d. The flight profile intended to achieve maximum range at the current altitude and the estimated fuel remaining over the current steer point. |
d
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1. The TCAS switch on the AAP controls the transponder power for normal air traffic control functions.
a. True b. False |
a
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2. When the mode switch on the AAP is placed in the NORM position, which of the following is true?
a. NAV Backup Control Panel is active. b. UHF Backup Control Panel is active. c. UHF, VHF, VID, and TACAN systems are controlled by the MDP via the UFCP. d. All of the above. |
c
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3. The channel select button on the UHF Backup Control Panel _______________.
a. selects the next preset channel when depressed b. toggles between preset and manual frequency selection c. toggles between the Main and Both modes of operation d. alternately applies and removes squelch |
b
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4. Describe the steps to change the frequency associated with a channel on the UHF Backup Control Panel.
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(A. Press and hold the channel select button for
more than three seconds. B. Rotate the frequency/channel selector to the desired channel. The letter P will be displayed in front of the channel number to indicate that the program mode is active. C. Press the mode button which will cause the frequency row to start flashing. D. Enter the new frequency with the frequency/ channel selector knob. E. Momentarily press the mode button to set the new preset. Press the channel select button to exit the program mode.) |
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5. In the event of MDP failure, the NAV Backup Control Panel can be used to select any ______________
frequency. a. VOR or ILS b. VOR, ILS, or VHF c. VOR, ILS, or UHF d. VOR, TACAN, or NDB |
a
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6. When the ON/OFF switch on the NAV Backup Control Panel is in the BRG position, what information is
displayed? a. Displays bearing to the selected TACAN station. b. Displays bearing to the selected VOR station if received. c. Displays bearing to the selected ILS station if received. d. Both b and c above. |
b
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7. Placing the microphone switch on the rear cockpit audio panel to the HOT position enables hot mic for that cockpit
only. a. True b. False |
b
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8. Placing the TCAS SIL/ACT switch in the SIL position inhibits the aural traffic warning generated by the TCAS.
a. True b. False |
a
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9. To quickly return to the primary flight reference (PFR) display on the MFD in the Front Cockpit (FCP), press the
__________ on the HOTAS. a. Master Mode Switch (MMS) b. Weapon Mode Switch c. Default Display Switch (DDS) d. Nose Wheel Steering button (weight off wheels) |
c
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10. Pressing the PTT in both cockpits at the same time on different radios (i.e., UHF and VHF) will result in
transmissions from both pilots on the different frequencies simultaneously. a. True b. False |
a
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11. The standby instruments are provided for use as backup flight instruments if the primary flight reference system
malfunctions. a. True b. False |
a
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12. With power failure, the standby attitude indicator will provide a minimum of ___ minutes of useful attitude
information. a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 15 |
c
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13. Each functional display on the EED, such as the EGT indicator is formatted to include an analog scale, moving
pointer, digital readout, and color–coded range and limit markers. a. True b. False |
a
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14. If an internal failure is detected by the Master EED, EED FAIL is displayed in the EED message window and
_________ is displayed in the center of the failed gage or under the failed tape. a. 000 b. --- (dashes) c. FAIL d. OFF |
c
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15. When a RPM or EGT limit is exceeded on the EED, this will be indicated by __________. (Select more than one.)
a. the white pointer and display title turning red b. the individual display title flashing c. the center digital number turning red only on the EGT display d. the number exceeded turns red on the perimeter of the dial |
a c
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16. The VDTS will record the MFD, HUD or both when the following event occurs:
a. The CF card is inserted in the VDTS. b. Select the VTR page on the UFCP and toggle from STOP to FMFD, BMFD, HUD or CMB as desired. c. The landing gear lever is raised. d. The landing gear lever is lowered. |
b
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17. Which of the following is NOT a selectable VDTS recording mode?
a. HUD b. Front MFD c. Rear MFD d. Front and rear MFD combined |
d
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18. The Video and Data Transfer System (VDTS), consisting of the Data Transfer Drive (DTD) and Data Transfer
Cartridge (DTC), is used to upload/download mission data stored in the aircraft ________. a. Air Data Computer (ADC) b. Mission Display Processor (MDP) c. Unique Planning Component (UPC) d. Multi Function Display (MFD) |
b
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19. When loading data to or from the MDP and DTC via the DTS menus on the MFD, a data transfer failure is
indicated by: a. a red flashing “LOAD” title on the DTS display. b. a “NO TRANSFER” message on the DTS display. c. a flashing title for the applicable data item on the DTS display. d. a red title crossed out with a horizontal line for the applicable data item on the DTS display. |
d
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20. Initiation and termination of MDP data recording are normally automatic, but either crewmember can manually
select this option via the MFD. a. True b. False |
a
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1. In the NAV master mode with the landing gear retracted, you can change the F–16 HUD velocity scale and
indicator on the UFCP to display either GS, TAS, or CAS. a. True b. False |
a
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2. Which of the following statements is true regarding the F–16 HUD display when the landing gear handle is
lowered? a. The TD box is removed with destination point 326 selected. b. The AOA symbol, 2.5° pitch/dive line, and VVI are displayed. c. The velocity scale and indicator display CAS only. d. All of the above are true. |
d
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3. Which of the following statements is the best answer concerning the Commanded Airspeed Indications (CVI) on
the HUD? a. With the gear handle up, Divert Mode NOT selected, and a steer point selected with an associated TOT, the TOT CVI symbol (– TOT) as computed by the MDP indicates the commanded velocity to reach the steer point at the TOT. b. With the gear handle down, the manual CVI caret or “bug” symbol (<) indicates the MDP–computed airspeed for the approach based on the current fuel weight (“A” selected on the UFCP SET page), or indicates the speed manually set by the pilot on the UFCP SET page. c. The manual CVI caret or “bug” symbol (<), if displayed, always matches the green tic mark on the MFD airspeed display indicator. d. If either selected Commanded Airspeed Indication (CVI) (e.g., the – TOT or the < “bug”) is not within the limits of the velocity range scale, the symbol is fixed to the top or bottom of the scale nearest to the commanded airspeed. e. All of the above are correct. |
e
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4. The bearing arrow and radial readout on the F–16 HUD always display information to the selected VOR station
whenever a valid signaled is received. a. True b. False |
b
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5. What would be indicated by the value “B+1000” in the second row of the digital fuel data block on the HUD?
a. The total fuel remaining is 1000 pounds. b. The BINGO fuel setting is 1000 pounds. c. The amount of fuel remaining above BINGO is 1000 pounds. d. The estimated fuel remaining upon landing is 1000 pounds if recovery is initiated at BINGO. |
c
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6. Which of following conditions would result in a blank RALT display on the HUD?
a. The RALT system is OFF. b. A malfunction of the RALT system. c. The aircraft altitude is out of the RALT limits. d. Any of the above conditions may result in a blank RALT display. |
d
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7. Which of the following is true about the CDI display on the HUD?
a. A maximum of two dots are displayed at any time. b. No dots are displayed when the deviation is less than one–half dot. c. For a deviation greater than two dots, the CDI arrow is fixed in a position equal to 2.4 dots. d. All of the above are true |
d
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8. Which of following is true about the visual WARNING, CAUTION and ADVISORY alerts displayed in the HUD
message window? a. All alert messages are displayed boxed and flashing on the HUD for 15 seconds and then are removed. b. If more than one alert is activated simultaneously, each alert is displayed for 15 seconds beginning with the highest priority alert. c. Priority warning alerts can only be removed from the HUD by eliminating the cause for the alert. d. Alert messages are removed from the HUD when the cause of the alert is eliminated or the ACK button is pressed on the UFCP. |
d
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9. When the declutter function is selected with the DCL key on the UFCP, on which of the following displays will
the preselected items be removed from? a. HUD only b. MFD only c. HUD and MFD d. HUD, MFD, and EED |
a
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10. The RA symbol generated by the TCAS on the HUD, displays the vertical zone that the pilot needs to enter to
avoid the traffic conflict (i.e., climb/descend so that the FPM is inside the displayed zone). a. True b. False |
b
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1. Which of the following statements is true about the T–38C warning/caution/advisory system when the MDP fails
or is OFF? a. The warning/caution/advisory system would not be affected at all. b. The entire warning/caution/advisory system would be inoperative. c. The warning/caution/advisory system would operate normally, but the ACK button on the UFCP would be inoperative so you would not be able to remove the alert indications. d. The visual/aural alerts would be inoperative since they are MDP–generated, but the existing caution and warning system (MASTER CAUTION light and caution light panel) would still operate normally. |
d
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2. The visual ALTITUDE, FIRE, and GEAR warnings displayed on the HUD/MFD are also accompanied by voice
messages. a. True b. False |
a
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3. Which of the following statements is true about the visual and aural GEAR warning indications when activated?
a. All landing gear warning indications can be removed by pressing the silence button next to the gear handle. b. All landing gear warning indications can be removed by pressing the ACK button on the UFCP. c. Only the aural gear warning tone is removed by pressing the silence button next to the gear handle. d. Only the aural gear warning tone is removed by pressing the ACK button on the UFCP. |
c
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4. A blinking CAUTION appears on the HUD and MFD whenever the MASTER CAUTION light illuminates, and is
removed when the MASTER CAUTION light is pressed. a. True b. False |
a
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5. Which of the following EGI advisory messages on the HUD is displayed during a GC alignment on the ground to
indicate the EGI is still in the coarse alignment phase, and that the aircraft should not be moved? a. WAIT b. ATT c. DEGRADED d. LEVEL |
a
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6. Only the most recent alert is displayed on the HUD/MFD when there is more than one alert activated at a time.
a. True b. False |
b
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7. After all electrical equipment/switches have been turned OFF for an electrical fire, which of the following switch
configurations would be correct if you want to operate the UHF radio only? a. Turn battery switch ON, AAP mode switch to UHF B/U position, and UHF backup panel knob to ON. b. Turn battery switch ON, ACP audio amplifier switch to B/U, and UHF backup panel knob to ON. c. Turn right generator switch ON, AAP mode switch to NORM, UFCP ON/OFF button to ON, and press UHF function key on UFCP. d. Turn right generator switch ON, AAP MDP switch to ON, and UHF backup panel knob to ON. |
a
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8. With just battery (DC) power (i.e., AC generators and transformer rectifier units are inoperative), electrical
components on the non–essential DC bus are not powered, to include both UFCPs. a. True b. False |
a
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9. Which of the following key avionics components are inoperative with a total MDP failure?
a. HUD and UFCP b. MFD c. EED d. All of the above. |
a
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10. Which of the following statements is true when the RPM or oil pressure exceeds the operating limits or the EGT
displays an overtemperature? a. The MASTER CAUTION light is illuminated and an avionics alert is activated on the HUD/MFD. b. The pointer on the applicable EED display turns red. c. An ENGINE caution is generated on the HUD / MFD and an “ENGINE, ENGINE” voice message is transmitted in the headset. d. The ACK button can be pressed to remove the red pointer or title exceedance indications on the EED. e. b. and c. above. f. All of the above. |
e
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1. What is the center of gravity restriction for a fuel imbalance during solo flight?
a. The left system cannot exceed 200 pounds more than the right system. b. The right system cannot exceed twice the amount of the left system. c. The right system cannot exceed the left system. d. No restriction on solo flight fuel management exists other than the 200 pounds imbalance. |
b
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2. In the event of AC power failure, how could you check your fuel quantity?
a. Hold the fuel/oxygen check switch in the QTY CHECK position. b. Hold the fuel/oxygen check switch in the GAGE TEST position. c. Activate either start button. d. All of the above are correct. |
d
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3. When will the fuel quantity low–level (FUEL LOW) caution light illuminate?
a. Whenever the fuel level in either tank is below 300 pounds. b. Within 1 minute after both indicators show 275 to 225 pounds remaining. c. Within 7.5 seconds after either indicator reads below 250 pounds remaining. d. Within 7.5 seconds after the fuel level in either system goes below 275 pounds. |
c
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4. While flying in the traffic pattern, what procedure is recommended to balance the fuel?
a. Use crossfeed operation. b. Land as soon as possible. c. Use differential power settings. |
c
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5. With 1,000 pounds of fuel in each system, the right engine flamed out and will not restart. All other systems are
operating normally. After 10 minutes of single–engine flight, the left fuel system drops down to 750 pounds while the right fuel system remains at 1,000 pounds. How can the fuel switches be set up to guarantee the use of the fuel in the right fuel system? a. Use crossfeed operation with both boost pumps operating. b. Use crossfeed operation with the left boost pump OFF. c. This fuel cannot be used; land as soon as possible. |
b
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6. Select the four steps in the procedure to crossfeed from the left system (right system is low) and then return to
normal operation. Number them in order. a. Crossfeed switch ON. b. Crossfeed switch OFF. c. Left boost pump switch ON. d. Left boost pump switch OFF. e. Right boost pump switch ON. f. Right boost pump switch OFF. |
a f e b
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7. Complete the following statements concerning the gravity feed limitations for the T–38C fuel system during the
afterburner operation. a. It is possible to use gravity feed up to ________ feet altitude. b. Specifications guarantee gravity feed operation only to an altitude of ________ feet. c. Flameouts have occurred as low as ________ feet altitude. |
25,000; 6,000; 7,000
|
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8. The fuel crossfeed allows you to
a. Transfer fuel from one system to the other. b. Feed both engines from either system. c. Feed either engine from both systems. d. Both b. and c. are correct. |
d
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9. Which of the following statements describes the operation of the FUEL PRESS caution lights?
a. Illumination of the light indicates a loss of fuel pressure and possible boost pump failure. b. The FUEL PRESS lights only indicate the position of the boost pump switches in the front cockpit. c. The light indicates failure of the respective engine driven pump. |
a
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10. The fuel (JP–8) capacity of the T–38C with single–point refueling is
a. 3,790 pounds usable fuel. b. 3,941 pounds usable fuel. c. 3,906 pounds usable fuel. d. 4,084 pounds usable fuel. |
c
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11. During flight, your right boost pump is inoperative. The right system contains 1,500 pounds of fuel and the left
system 1,200 pounds. Which of the procedures below would correctly allow you to balance the system? a. Crossfeed ON, left and right boost pumps ON b. Crossfeed ON, left and right boost pumps OFF c. Crossfeed ON, right boost pump OFF, left boost pump ON d. Differential power settings |
d
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1. What purpose do the variable inlet guide vanes and air bleed valves serve?
a. Allow the bleed air to be used for air–conditioning, anti–ice, and other systems. b. Reduce the possibility of compressor stalls. c. Warm the fuel prior to injection into the engine. |
b
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2. The T–38C anti–ice system prevents ice from forming on:
a. the leading edge of the wings. b. the inlet guide vanes and bullet nose. c. the leading edge of the inlet ducts. d. Both b and c are correct. |
b
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3. How will the anti–ice system be affected with an AC power failure?
a. Anti–ice will be inoperative. b. Anti–ice will be fully effective on any engine above 80% RPM. c. Anti–ice is available on both engines if one is above 80% RPM. d. Effective anti–ice will be available at any RPM. |
b
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4. What is the purpose of the variable exhaust nozzle?
a. Maintains maximum thrust efficiency while controlling EGT. b. Maintains a constant thrust. c. Maintains the most efficient EGT and engine RPM. |
a
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5. Under what atmospheric conditions should you use the anti–ice system?
a. When temperature is near or below 32 °F. b. When flying at an altitude above FL290. c. In visible moisture or conditions of high humidity. d. Both a and c are correct. |
d
|
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6. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the T–38C anti–ice system?
a. Fail safe system with 80% RPM minimum for effective anti–ice. b. Requires AC power for use and no thrust loss during operation. c. Requires DC power for use with 80% RPM necessary for effective anti–ice. d. Fail safe system with no minimum RPM necessary for effective anti–ice |
a
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7. The primary advantage of using an afterburner in engine design is
a. high specific fuel consumption. b. high weight for high thrust. c. high thrust for low weight. d. compressor section supplies more air. |
c
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8. Which of the following statements are correct for engine operation? (Select more than one)
a. The throttle position closes the nozzles as RPM is increased up to approximately 97%. b. The T5 system opens the nozzles to maintain EGT between 630–650 °C in MAX power. c. The throttle position controls the nozzles at all power settings. d. The T5 system only operates to maintain EGT within proper limits. e. The T5 system controls the nozzles at all power settings. |
a b d
|
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9. How can you be relatively sure the T5 system on a particular engine is working? (Select more than one)
a. Check to see the nozzles open as the throttle is retarded to IDLE. b. Observe EGT indications between 630–650 °C in MAX power. c. Check to see the nozzles open while advancing the throttle from 97% RPM to MIL power. d. Check to see the nozzles close as the throttle is advanced from idle to 95% RPM. |
b c
|
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10. What electrical source is required to operate the T5 system?
a. Right AC power b. DC power c. AC power through a DC–controlled solenoid d. An independent AC T5 alternator |
d
|
|
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11. What is the correct nozzle position for military power?
a. 0 to 20% b. 50 to 85% c. 77 to 92% d. 97 to 100% |
a
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12. What are the nozzle limits in maximum afterburner in flight?
a. 0 to 20% b. 50 to 85% c. 77 to 92% d. 97 to 100% |
b
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13. If a sudden change of ________ psi or greater in oil pressure indication occurs at any stabilized RPM, follow the
engine oil system malfunction procedures in Section III of the T–38C Checklist. |
10
|
|
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14. During the lineup check at military power, which of the following engine instrument indications would be
incorrect and unacceptable? a. RPM — 100% b. Oil pressure — 25 psi c. EGT — 640 °C d. Nozzle — 25% |
d
|
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1. How is the engine rotated for starting during a ground start?
a. Electrically by DC power b. High–pressure air c. Low–pressure air d. Both a and c are correct |
c
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2. In the event of an engine oil system malfunction,
a. retard throttle to OFF if 0 to 20 psi cannot be maintained. b. retard throttle to OFF if 5 to 55 psi cannot be maintained. c. you may restart the engine at a later time. d. Both b and c are correct. |
d
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3. Which of the following is true of the main engine fuel system components?
a. The main fuel control positions the inlet guide vanes and bleed ports. b. The main fuel control computer schedules the variable geometry system. c. Main engine and afterburner fuel flow are indicated on the fuel flow indicators on the EED. d. Both a and b are correct. |
d
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4. What happens if one afterburner blows out during takeoff, just prior to liftoff?
a. Complete loss of thrust on that engine. b. The engine will roll back and subsequently flameout. c. The nozzle will close and that engine will revert to MIL power. d. The afterburner will automatically relight. |
c
|
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5. Maximum fuel flow for start prior to ignition is:
a. 150 pph. b. 200 pph. c. 250 pph. d. 360 pph. |
d
|
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6. Where is the fuel flow stopped when the engines are shut down after a normal flight?
a. Fuel shutoff valve. b. Main fuel control. c. Boost pump shutoff valve. d. Both a and b are correct. |
d
|
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7. What conditions must exist before fuel will flow to the afterburner pump? (Select more than one.)
a. The throttle must be placed in the MAX range. b. Stabilized EGT. c. Stabilized fuel flow. d. Stabilized RPM at MIL. |
a d
|
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8. During engine start, abort the start if EGT reaches ________ to prevent exceeding temperature limits of ______.
a. 630 °C, 825 °C b. 825 °C, 930 °C c. 845 °C, 925 °C d. 925 °C, 945 °C |
c
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9. How are the fuel shutoff valves controlled?
a. Through the use of the fuel shutoff switches b. Fuel shutoff switch position and the throttles c. Throttle movement from out of cutoff |
b
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10. To obtain ignition during a ground start (no APU), you must have the battery switch ON, push the start button, and
place the throttle in IDLE. a. True b. False |
a
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11. A compressor stall is defined as the disruption of airflow through the compressor and can be caused by ice
ingestion, bird ingestion, or afterburner initiation out of the engine envelope. a. True b. False |
a
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12. While flying at FL390, you advance the throttles and encounter a compressor stall.
a. Quickly retard the throttle(s) to IDLE, push the start button, and then re–advance the throttle slowly while increasing airspeed. If engine damage is suspected, advance the throttle above idle only if required. b. Retard throttle(s) to below 75% RPM and then re–advance the throttle slowly while increasing airspeed. c. Stop throttle movement and increase airspeed. |
a
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13. What is the recommended altitude and RPM for a successful airstart with JP–8 fuel?
a. Below 25,000 feet with 12% RPM minimum b. Below 26,000 feet with 19–24% RPM c. Below 30,000 feet with 12% RPM minimum |
a
|
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14. During an alternate airstart, how long does ignition occur?
a. Continuously while in maximum throttle position. b. 15 seconds while in maximum throttle position. c. 30 seconds while in maximum throttle position. d. 45 seconds while in maximum throttle position. |
c
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15. If the left engine is restarted first after dual–engine flameout, what is the first indication of a start?
a. Nozzle opening b. EGT increasing c. RPM increasing d. Fuel flow increase |
c
|
|
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16. With complete electrical failure (battery dead), which engine instruments provide accurate information?
|
none. tachometer sensors are independent, but EED is blank with DC power failure
|
|
|
17. What would be the most likely malfunction when you observe the following conditions at MIL power: RPM
decreasing to zero, oil pressure decreasing to zero, nozzle position zero, EGT at 650 °C, and fuel flow within limits? |
oil pump drive shaft has failed
|
|
|
18. Why is it unnecessary to wait 30 seconds between air–starting the right and left engines?
|
ram air is providing windmilling RPM to both engines simultaneously. the static inverter will provide ignition to both simultaneously
|
|
|
1. Why does the T–38C aircraft have two hydraulic reservoirs?
a. To provide a reserve supply of hydraulic fluid b. To allow for two independent hydraulic systems c. So one system can supply fluid to the other if the other gets low |
b
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2. Indicate whether the following hydraulic components are powered by the flight control system, utility system, both
systems, or another source. a. ________ Speed brake b. ________ Ailerons c. ________ Nosewheel steering d. ________ Landing gear e. ________ Rudder f. ________ Stability augmentor g. ________ Stabilizer h. ________ Wheel brakes |
u; u and f; u ; u ; u and f; u; u and f; independent
|
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3. What are the minimum, normal range, and maximum hydraulic system pressure limitations?
|
1,500; 2,850-3,200; 3,200
|
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3. What are the minimum, normal range, and maximum hydraulic system pressure limitations?
4. When will the hydraulic caution light illuminate? a. When the hydraulic pressure drops below 1,500 psi b. When the hydraulic pressure drops below 1,800 psi c. When the hydraulic pressure rises above 3,200 psi d. When the hydraulic pressure is above or below the normal operating range |
a
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5. Can you maneuver the T–38C with the left engine frozen and the right gearbox failed?
a. Yes, but a controlled ejection is recommended if not at a low altitude. b. Yes, but a landing cannot be made. c. No, immediate ejection is recommended |
c
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6. Which of the following statements about the airframe mounted gearbox are true? (Select more than one.)
a. If the left hydraulic and left generator lights illuminate at the same time, this probably indicates gearbox failure. b. If only a generator light illuminates while advancing the throttle from IDLE to MIL, this probably indicates gearbox failure. c. If the gearbox fails to shift, you lose hydraulic pressure and AC generator on that side. d. If the gearbox fails to shift, you lose the generator on that side only. |
a d
|
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7. If the left airframe mounted gearbox shaft shears,
a. windmilling RPM will provide normal utility hydraulic pressure. b. the UTILITY HYDRAULIC and MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate as pressure decreases below 1,800 psi. c. the gear must be lowered with the alternate system. d. Both a and c are correct. |
c
|
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|
1. Use of which of the following requires the stability augmentor system to be on?
a. Stabilizer trim b. Rudder trim c. Aileron trim |
b
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2. Which of the following statements are true regarding the hydraulic system? (Select more than one)
a. Nosewheel steering is available only with downside hydraulic pressure. b. Normal gear extension requires DC and utility hydraulic pressure. c. Speed brake requires DC and utility hydraulic pressure. d. Wing flaps require DC and utility hydraulic pressure. |
a b c
|
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3. What are the conditions that activate the landing gear up warning system when the gear is not down and locked?
(Select more than one) a. Airspeed 210 KCAS or less b. Airspeed 250 KCAS or less c. Both throttles below 96% RPM d. Either throttle below 96% RPM e. Altitude 10,000 feet or below f. Altitude below 23,000 feet MSL |
a c e
|
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|
4. What are the conditions that activate the landing gear down warning system? (Select all that apply.)
a. All gear are up and locked c. 210 KCAS or less b. All gear are down and locked d. 230 KCAS or more |
b d
|
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5. What are the limits of rudder deflection under the following conditions?
a. Nose gear extended ¾ or less – ________________________________ b. Nose gear extended more than ¾ – _____________________________ |
6 (deg); 30 (deg)
|
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6. How is control of the speed brake transferred from one cockpit to the other? (Select more than one)
a. Control automatically reverts to the front cockpit to prevent creeping. b. The rear cockpit can take control any time the rear switch is actuated. c. The front cockpit can take control any time the front switch is actuated. d. The front cockpit switch must be momentarily returned to neutral (OFF) to regain control. |
b d
|
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7. If the gear is lowered by the alternate release handle with the landing gear handle in the LG UP position, there will
be a red light in the gear handle without the audible tone. This: a. is a proper indication. b. indicates the gear are not down and locked. c. indicates the gear doors are open. d. Both a and c are correct. |
d
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8. Select the true statement below concerning a practice alternate gear extension.
a. To ensure hydraulic pressure on the gear after alternate extension, cycle the gear handle with the alternate release handle lanyard fully extended. b. Do not move the gear handle until the alternate release handle lanyard is fully stowed. c. Wait until the gear are down and locked before stowing the alternate release handle. |
b
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|
9. If you have AC electrical failure, will this affect the flight controls? If so, why?
|
yes trim is ac powered
|
|
|
10. What hydraulic operations are no longer available if the alternate gear extension is used?
|
NWS (also ldg gr doors remain open)
|
|
|
11. The left engine is flamed out and frozen. Can rudder trim be used during the single–engine approach?
|
no (rudder trim requires stab-aug ON which requires utility hydraulics)
|
|
|
12. Which of the following best describes the T–38C wheel brake system?
a. Interconnected to utility hydraulic system b. Independent, self–contained hydraulic system c. Interconnected with flight control hydraulic system d. A system of mechanical cables, pulleys, and bell cranks |
b
|
|
|
13. Because of utility hydraulic failure, the gear has been lowered by the alternate gear release. What is still available
to the pilot? a. Nosewheel steering b. Downside hydraulic pressure c. Speed brake d. Wheel brakes |
d
|
|
|
14. How are aerodynamic forces transmitted from the flight control surfaces to the pilot?
a. Hydraulic pressure feedback valves b. Hydraulic servo valves through the flight hydraulics c. Aerodynamic forces are simulated by artificial feel d. Direct linkage through the flight control cables |
c
|
|
|
15. Which statement describes the operation of the red light in the gear handle?
a. The light is on any time the gear are not down and locked. b. In the up position, the light is a function of the gear doors, and in the down position, the light is a function of the gear position. c. Any time the light in the gear handle is on, you will hear the gear tone (provided the silence button has not been pushed). d. Both b and c are correct. |
b
|
|
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16. The takeoff trim button
a. trims the horizontal tail, rudder, and ailerons for takeoff. b. trims only the rudder and turns on the green light when the button is pressed. c. trims ailerons, horizontal tail, and turns on the green light when the button is pressed. d. trims only the horizontal tail, and the takeoff trim light illuminates only when the button is pressed and the horizontal tail is trimmed for takeoff. |
d
|
|
|
17. Which of the following are true concerning the flaps? (Select more than one.)
a. If one flap motor fails, that flap will not extend. b. If either flap motor fails, both flaps should extend because of the interconnecting rotary shaft. c. If you lose the utility hydraulic system, the flaps will be inoperative. d. The flaps require both AC and DC power to operate. |
b d
|
|
|
18. How does AC and DC power failure affect flap operations?
a. They will be inoperative only with AC power failure. b. They will be inoperative only with DC power failure. c. They will be inoperative only if both AC and DC power fail. d. Both a. and b. are correct. |
d
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19. What would happen on an aircraft if the flap–slab interconnect failed while the flaps were full down?
a. The aircraft would have a definite pitchup. b. The aircraft would have a definite pitchdown. c. The aircraft would have a gradual pitchup once the flaps are raised. d. The aircraft would have a definite rolling tendency. |
a
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1. What systems are deactivated when the cabin pressure switch is in the RAM DUMP position? (Select more than
one). a. Canopy defog b. Cabin pressurization and air–conditioning c. Canopy seal d. Anti–G suit |
a b c d
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2. Compute the normal cabin pressure altitude for each of the pressure altitudes given below.
a. 8,000 feet b. 31,000 feet c. 35,000 feet d. 40,000 feet |
8000+-1000; 12,500+-2000; 14500+-2000; 17000+-2000
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3. The canopy defog control affects the
a. temperature of the defog air. b. volume of the defog air. c. temperature and volume of the defog air. |
b
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4. Assuming you have complete AC power failure, which of the following are true concerning T–38C air–
conditioning and pressurization? (Select more than one.) a. You cannot change the ram dump valve position. b. You automatically lose all cabin pressure. c. You cannot defog. d. Your G–suit is inoperative. e. You cannot control the temperature of the cabin air. |
a e
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5. How is ice removed from the air–conditioning system?
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de-ice control valve (opens automatically when ice forms in the AC system, allowing hot air to pass through the moisture separator where the ice has formed)
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6. How do you eliminate smoke and fumes from the cockpit?
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RAM DUMP (below 25000 ft if possible)
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7. You have just started a go–around when you hear a loud fluttering noise. This is the pressure relief valve in the
moisture separator. What would you do to prove that the noise is from the relief valve and not from an engine compressor stall? |
( check engine instruments for normal indications. increase temperature control to stop the fluttering of the temp control valve)
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8. How can you help prevent the canopy from fogging up during a descent from high altitude?
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(blow all the moisture out of the system at low altitude by turning the cabin temp controls to the full hot position. prior to descent, preheat the canopy using the canopy defog)
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9. Which of the following is true if you ram dump while flying enroute to the area?
a. Engine anti–ice will still work. b. Hydraulic pressure reservoirs will remain pressurized. c. Canopy defog will still work. d. Both a and b are correct. |
d
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10. Cabin temperature and canopy defog controls are
a. AC and DC electrically powered. b. pneumatically powered. c. AC electrically powered. d. AC electrically and pneumatically powered. |
d
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11. The cabin pressurization and air–conditioning controls are in
a. the front cockpit. b. the rear cockpit. c. both cockpits. |
a
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12. What will occur in the cockpit concerning the air-conditioning and pressurization system with dual–generator
failure? a. Immediate loss of cabin pressurization b. Loss of canopy defog c. Everything remains as it is except you cannot ram dump or change the cabin temperature d. Both a and b are correct |
c
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13. Below what altitudes must you descend for oxygen and pressure failure?
a. 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude and 30,000 feet cabin pressure altitude respectively b. 10,000 feet cabin pressure altitude and 25,000 feet cabin pressure altitude respectively c. 15,000 feet cabin pressure altitude and 24,000 feet cabin pressure altitude respectively d. 24,000 feet cabin pressure altitude and 30,000 feet cabin pressure altitude respectively |
b
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