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141 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Landing gear extension and retraction is operated by which aircraft system?
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Hydraulic
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Movement around the roll axis is controlled by which primary control surfaces?
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Ailerons
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What component of the ejection seat provides sufficient altitude for parachute deployment?
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Rocket motor
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t/f? In an emergency situation the aux bat will power the BFI for 15 minutes.
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False. The aux bat will power the BFI for 30 minutes
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Secondary aircraft electrical power is provided by what component?
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24v battery
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Which aircraft system provides automatic temp and pressurization control?
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Environmental control system
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Control of the transponder is provided by what component?
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Up Front Control Panel (UFCP)
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T/F? The canopy is hinged at the rear and opens up.
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False. The canopy is hinged along the right side and opens to that side.
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Which primary instrument provides primary attitude display?
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Attitude Direction Indicator
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In the event of inadvertent a/c contact with the ground, which component will be activated and generate a radio signal?
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The ELT senses impact loads and generates a signal on 121.5 & 243.0 MHz or 121.5 & 406.0 MHz.
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The primary aircraft flight controls consist of
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ailerons, elevator, and rudder
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Which of the following best describes the function of the aircraft's elevator?
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the elevator system is used to cause movement in the lateral or pitch access
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The aileron ground adjustable trim tabls are for mx use only and shold not be tampered with by the aircrew.
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TRUE
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Which statement best describes the purpose of the bobweight attached to the forward control stick?
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Provides higher stick forces and G-loading increases, helps prevent overstressing the airframe
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Which of the following in NOT included in the rudder control system?
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Bobweight
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T/F: Pilot control of aileron trim is accomplished by movement of an electromechanical trim tab installed on the right aileron.
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FALSE
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The Trim Aid Device (TAD) computer relays trim input to the ___.
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rudder trim tab actuator
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The TAD maintains a takeoff trim setting until ___ KIAS and no weight on the wheels.
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80
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A green TAD OFF advisory will illuminate when
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the TRIM AID switch is set to off
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The flight control gust lock is used to ___.
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prevent excess wear and damage to the primary flight controls
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The engine-driven pump pressurizes the hyd system to which of the following?
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3000 psi+/-120 psi
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The primary hydraulic system operates which of the following?
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Landing Gear, main gear inboard doors, flaps, nose wheel steering, and speed brake
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What is true about the power package reservior?
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A piston helps to step-down pressure to protect the pump
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the primary hyd system's selector manifold contains which of the following?
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electrical selector valves
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Two specific conditions in which the emergency hyd system is used are:
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Loss of engine power and the a/s < 120 KIAS
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The emergency hyd system specifically operates which of the following?
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Landing Gear, main gear inboard doors, and flaps
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The emergency package receives its pressure form which of the following?
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From the emergency accumulator
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Before lowering the gear using either the primary or emergency systems, ensure the ___
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a/s below 150 KIAS
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The amber EHYD PX LO advisory means which of the following?
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pressure in the emergency package is below 2870 psi
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The HYD FL LO advisory means which of the following?
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Reservoir fluid level is below 1 Qt
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When the power package slide valve closes, the hyd pump pressure is prevented from energizing any hydraulic components except for the ___.
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nose wheel steering actuator
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Which is true regarding the nose wheel steering system?
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the NWS is separate from the selector manifold
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Which is true regarding the NWS and emergency systems?
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The NWS will not operate if the primary hyd system fails.
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Which component specifically ensures the nose wheel is properly aligned before it is retracted or extended?
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Centering valve
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Engaging NWS at high speeds can result in ___.
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Directional control problems due to increasing sensitivity
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What are the functions of the speed brake?
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Decelerate, and increase descent rate without increasing airspeed
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Which is true regarding the speed brake?
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It will not oper4ate using the emergency system.
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Which of the following will NOT cause the speed brake to retract?
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The gear is retracted.
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If the flap indicator fails how can flap extension be confirmed?
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Observing a slight nose up tendency
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Which statement below is correct regarding flap operations?
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Emerg flap operation IS NOT available when the aux bat is the only source of electrical power.
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Which is true regarding the parking brake?
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The parking brake is applied by pushing on the toe brakes while simultaneously activating the handle.
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Before lowering the flaps, you should ensure your airspeed is less than which value?
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150 KIAS
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Which component is responsible for sending pressure to the main wheel brakes?
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Master cylinder
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The elevator controls the aircraft around what axis?
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The lateral (pitch) axis
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The ailerons move opposite each other to cause the aircraft to move about which axis?
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the longitudinal (roll) axis
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the rudder causes a yaw movement around the ___ axis.
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Vertical (yaw)
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A "ground-adjustable" trim tab is found on ___.
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the ailerons
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What are the factors used by the TAD computer to calculate proper rudder trim tab settings?
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engine torque, altitude, airspeed, pitch rate
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Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will make no further trim inputs until ___.
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the a/c accelerates to 80 KIAS and there is no weight on wheels
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The primary and emergency hydraulic systems are pressurized to what level?
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3000+/-120 psi
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What is the function of the hydraulic system engine-driven pump?
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It creates hyd pressure that is transferred to the primary system and to the emergency accumulator
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The emergency hydraulic system services which aircraft components?
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Landing gear, main gear inboard door & flaps, for a one-time extension
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When extending the landing gear, which gear door ultimately closes as part of the extension sequence?
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main gear inboard doors
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What does the red light in the landing gear selector handle indicate when illuminated?
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The gear doors are not closed, or PCL is approaching idle with gear
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What happens to nose wheel steering if the hyd system fails?
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NWS will not operate because it is services by primary hyd system?
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What happens to the speed brake if the hyd system fails?
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Speed brake will not operate
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The flaps should not be operated above airspeed?
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150 KIAS
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When completing a sharp turn, how should nose wheel steering be used?
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NWS should be turned off prior to turn since NWS will try to limit NW caster
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what causes the EHYD PX LO CAS advisory to illuminate?
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If emerg accum pressure is less than 2400 psi +/- 150 psi
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Will you have use of the speed brake with the emergency hydraulic system?
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No. Emergency system services only gear, main gear inboard doors & flaps
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Can you expect to use the wheel brakes if operating with a failure of the primary hydraulic system?
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Yes. Wheel brake system is separate from primary & emergency hyd systems.
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All of the following statements are true. Which one best describes the purpose of the UFCP?
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The UFCP provides data entry functionality and control of a wide variety of dispalys and subsystems
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the data entry knob on the lower panel
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increments numerical values (clockwise rotation); decrements numerical values (ccw); is used to select alpha characters; has a push-to-select function
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The Priority Function Buttons (PFB's), located ___ provide control of ___ and include the CLR, ENT, RTN and DIR hardkeys.
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on the right side of the upper panel; the major functions of the FMS
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A left-facing filed triangle left justified in a data display window indicates the window ___.
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is active for data entry
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From the persistent display the ___ cn be viewed or changed.
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UHF, VHF COMM, VHF NAV, XPNDR mode and code
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Pressing the ___ priority function button (PFB) toggles through the available NAVAIDS.
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NAV TUNE
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There are ___ levels of systems (SYS) pages. The ___ page provides access to TCAS and declutter settings.
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three; display
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The following statements describle MFD/UFCP functionality. Which statement is false?
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When REPEAT is selected in the forward cockpit, the PRT FWD status advisory appears in the crew alerting system (CAS) display.
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The RPT ERR status advisory appears in the Crew Alerting System (CAS) display. This means ___.
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the REPEAT switch is in the REPEAT position but the UFCP and MFDs are not in the repeat mode.
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A yellow UFCP 1 FAIL caution advisory appears in the CAS display. This means the forward UFCP:
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is not communicating with IAC1 or IAC2, or the unit has failed.
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Which system is NOT integrated with the T-6B integrated avionics system?
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Backup Flight Instrument (BFI)
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T/F: The Primary Flight Display (PFD) contains all of the instruments required for the primary instrument scan.
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TRUE
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The primary pitot probe at the right wingtip and primary static ports on the sides of the aft fuselage provide necessary pressure ot the ___.
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Air Data Computer (ADC)
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How do you slected declutter level 1 (DCLTR 1)?
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Use the UFCP
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The altimeter barometric setting data can be set in which format(s)?
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Inches of Hg and Millibars
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What are the two main sections of the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?
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Primary flight instruments; Horizontal Situation Indicator
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The Backup Flight Instrument (BFI) includes which one of the following indications?
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Airspeed indicator
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When the navigation source is selected to FMS, the course deviation indicator shows deviation from the ___.
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desired track
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What are the three phases of flight generated by the FMS?
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Enroute, terminal, approach
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Which radio navigation system transmits a unique pulse-pair signature that is received by a ground station and is then retransmitted back to the aircraft?
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DME
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The "G" meter gauge and pointer indicates instantaneous normal acceleration in the range from ___ .
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-4.0g to + 7.5g
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To perform a count up with the digital clock, the display must be set to the ___ function.
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elapsed time
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The annunciator placarded FDR near the firewall shutoff handle in the front cockpit will light MAINT in the upper half or ___ in the lower half.
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FAIL
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AoA information is provided on the AoA indexer when
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the landing gear is down and locked.
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When a flashing master caution or master warning switchlight is reset, the associated msg in the CAS on the IICAS display will ___ for as long as the malfunction or failure condition persists.
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remain steady
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Which is the default MFD with the a/c on the ground (weight on wheels), avionics master switch off, and the battery switch on?
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EICAS
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Warning tones generated by the Audio Management Unit (AMU) are routed to the ___.
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helmet audio connections
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The white triangle at 4.9 units on the AOA indicator designates
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max range angle of attack
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The dta transfer module (DTM) is a ___ used for digital information storage, loading, and retrival.
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portable memory cartridge
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A slow approach speed is indicated by the ___.
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upper green chevron on the AOA indexer
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The master mode primarily used for flight data, steering, navigation, landing, and advisory information is the ___ mode.
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NAV
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Which HUD symbol is your best indication of where the aircraft is actually going?
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FPM
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When will the glideslope and localizer reference be displayed?
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When ILS freq is selected; when the nav source is ILS; when the master mode is NAV
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Bank angle reference marks on the HUD are located at ___ degrees.
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10, 20, 30 and 45
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When will the Climb Dive Marker (CDM) align with the center tick mark of the AOA bracket?
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When AOA is optimal for landing; when the landing gear is down
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The audio control panel is located in the ___ in each cockpit.
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front lower panel, between the pilot's legs
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The ground crew indterphone is activated ___.
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when the bat switch in either cockpit is switched on.
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The UFCP controls the UHF and VHF as follows:
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UHF (COM 1 button); VHF (COM 2 button)
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Where is the standby VHF radio located?
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right console in the ront cockpit
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When you select COM1 on the UFCP, which of the windows allows you to select T/R, TR+G, or G for the UHF radio?
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W3
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UHF radio direct tuning is accomplished by ___ .
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pressing th W2 arrow key, then using the UFCP DATA ENTRY knob to scroll through the frequencies.
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The FMS allows the T-6B aircraft to store up to ___ presets in the COM library for the VHF or the UHF radios.
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99
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Which of the following units control the tuning of the UHF, VHF and VOR?
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UFCP
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The UHF squelch setting is normally ___ (initial and cold start default value).
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ON
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How is the standby VHF radio channel tuned?
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Normally 5 kHz (US) or 5 KHz and 8.33 kHz tuning (aircraft deployed overseas).
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What is the main operational difference between the UHF radio and the VHF radio?
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The VHF radio doesn't monitor guard; you must dial it up manually.
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What is the range of the XPNDR/IFF mode 3 code?
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0000-5555
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The DME system displays ___ from the aircraf to the ground station.
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slant range distance in nautical miles
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The LOC and GS deviation scales appear on the ADI when the Primary Flight Display source (PFD SOURCE) is set to LOC and ___.
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a LOC freq is tuned
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The 000 radial of each VOR station is oriented to ___.
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mag north
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Automatic altitude reporting is provided by transponder mode ___.
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C
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When you tune a LOC freq using the UFCP, the nav radio tuning system automatically set the associated ___.
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DME and GS frequencies
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The TCAS non-threat traffic symbol is a ___ and the traffic advisory traffic symbol is a ___.
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unfilled whte diamond; filled yellow circle
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The freq 110.__ is a LOC setting
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30
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Pressing the ___ button on the UFCP transmits a special pulse to aid in immediate ID on a controller's scope
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ID
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the TCAS detects and tracks other aircraft by interrogating their XPNDR's and then analyzing the replies to determine range, bearing and relative ___.
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altitude
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Read-only navigation chart information is stored in the FMS ___ database.
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navigation
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The FMS determines aircraft position by combining data from ___.
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GLS, IRS, and ADC true airspeed and altitude
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FMS dataa and management functions are controlled using the ___.
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UFCP and MFD FMS pages.
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What is the primary page used to display and modify the flight plan?
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LEGS
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Which page provdes access to communication and navigation radio system management?
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FREQ
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What are the three operational modes for the ADI and HSI?
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enroute, approach and composite
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The VSI displays vertical velocity from 0 to ___ feet per minute.
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+/- 6000
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From what component does the airspeed indicator receive its data?
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air data computer
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What indication on the UFCP will alert you to a possible failure of the transponder?
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an X displays in the first character position of the UFCP persistent display in W4.
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The Backup flight instruments are normally powered by the ___.
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battery bus
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When showing, what does the red indication in the standby turn and bank indicator mean?
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fail?
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When does the AOA amber donut illuminate?
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When you have achieved optimum angle of attack range for landing (on-speed).
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What is the purpose of the two resettable needles on the accelerometer?
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Record maximum deviation above and below +1G experienced during flight
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What is the first component you should check when you suspect an avionics failure?
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circuit breaker
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What happens anytime the FIRE warning annunciator illuminates?
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MASTER WARN switchlight flashes, MASTER WARN tone sounds
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What indications can be illuminated on the flight data recorder annunciator?
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MAINT (green) FAIL (yellow)
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What is the primary means of tuning VHF NAV and comm frequencies?
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primarily through the UFCP
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What are the four fields on the UFCP persistent page?
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UHF COMM, VHF COMM, VHF NAV, XPNDR
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What is the purpose of the ICS KEY/MUTE button?
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mutes all incoming audio while allowing inter-cockpit communication
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How is the range display changes on the NACWS fraffic display?
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UP/DN range LSK's on the NAV display
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where are the VOR antennae located on the T-6B?
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vert stab
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Which ILS component operates at 75 MHz and indicates your location along the approach path?
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Marker beacons
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What is the range of the DME?
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reliable up to 199 miels slant range depending upon aircraft altitude
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What should you do if the controller directs you to squawk altitude?
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Set the XPNDER to ALT on the UFCP and press the ID PFB
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