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197 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Narrowed interpedicular distance on frontal radiograph?
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Achondroplasia.
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Triad of Meckel-Gruber syndrome?
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Polydactyly, encephalocele, cystic renal disease.
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Triad of McCune Albright syndrome?
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Cafe-au-lait spot, precocious puberty, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia.
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How to differentiate HIV Encephalitis from PML (JC Virus)?
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HIV Encephalitis spares subcortical u fibers and is usually symmetrical.
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How thick can a normal uterine junctional zone be on MR?
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12 mm
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Two pineal lesions known for "exploding" the pineal calcifications.
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Pineocytoma, Pineoblastoma.
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How often is calcification seen in the region of the pineal gland in children?
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Never under 6.5 years, 10% in children age 11-14.
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What is the peak age of occurrence for pineal region germinomas? Gender predilection?
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10-12 years. More common in males in the pineal region. However, slightly more common in females in the suprasellar region.
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Prostate cancer most common in which zone? BPH affects which zone?
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Cancer most common in peripheral zone (70%).
BPH arises in transitional zone. |
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Parotid gland lesion with strong smoking association? What is the typical MR signal of this lesion?
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Warthin tumor. Inhomogenous signal on T1 MR (vs. homogenously low T1, high T2 signal with Benign mixed tumor of the parotid, i.e. Pleomorphic adenoma)
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What features make a lung cancer unresectable?
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T4 (invasion of mediastinum, vertebral bodies, tumor nodules in different lobe of same lung)
N3 (scalene, supraclavicular, contralateral mediastinal or hilar nodes) Metastatic disease (including tumor nodules in other lung, malignant pleural effusions, pleural mets, distant mets) |
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Renal cell cancer in a sickle cell disease/trait patient?
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Medullary.
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Huge retroperitoneal lymph nodes in a young male (possibly with coarse testicular calcs)?
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Seminomatous germ cell tumor. Calcs may represent "burned out" seminoma. Non-seminomas yield smaller nodes.
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Well delineated, cystic cortical mass in a young patient with seizures? Typically do not enhance centrally, have cystic components.
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DNET
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Opacified sinus on CT with hyperdense contents is usually _____
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Benign (inspissated secretions, fungus, blood)
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Sinus fungal disease normally has >28% protein content and is thus ____ on T1 and ____ on T2.
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Hypointense on both. Can be mistaken for aerated sinus.
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Ovarian neoplasm most often presenting with hyperestrogenism (vaginal bleeding, endometrial hyperplasia, carcinom)?
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Granulosa Cell Tumor
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5 hypervascular tumors for the consideration of arterial phase imaging on Ab/Pel CT?
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Renal cell, pancreatic islet cell, melanoma, neuroendocrine tumor (carcinoid), thyroid
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Findings in heterotaxy syndrome with bilateral right-sidedness? (3)
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Asplenia, bilateral right lung lobation, severe congenital heart disease.
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Findings in heterotaxy syndrome with bilateral left-sidedness? (3)
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Polysplenia, bilateral left lung lobation, Azygous continuation of the IVC. Lesser association with congenital heart disease.
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Upper limits of normal for endometrial thickness in a postmenopausal patient on ultrasound?
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5 mm
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Expansile mass centered at the mandibular angle with enhancing soft tissue components?
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Ameloblastoma
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Do medulloblastomas diffusion restrict? Do pilocytic astrocytomas?
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Medulloblastomas do diffusion restrict. Pilocytic astrocytomas do not.
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What name is given to the variant of idopathic orbital inflammatory disease that involves the posterior orbital apex with extension to the cavernous sinus?
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Tolosa-Hunt Syndrome.
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Petrous apex lesion with high T1 signal?
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Cholesterol granuloma
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Hyperattenuating nodes in the setting of AIDS? (2)
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Kaposi sarcoma, Castleman's disease
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Ovarian neoplasm associated with virilization?
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Sertoli-Leydig
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Regional oligemia on a chest x-ray in a patient with acute chest pain?
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Westermark sign of pulmonary embolus.
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What is the appearance of ovarian Brenner tumor on MR?
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Low T2 signal secondary to abundant fibrous tissue.
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"Bubbly" brain tumor in young adults arising from septum pellicudum?
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Central neurocytoma.
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What muscle separates the sublingual space from the submandibular space?
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Mylohyoid
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Sinus disease involving unilateral frontal, maxillary, and anterior ethmoid air cells suggests obstruction of _____.
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The middle meatus.
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DDx for enhancing intradural, extramedullary mass in the spine? (3)
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Meningioma, Schwannoma, Mets
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Reversal of flow in the main portal vein is termed hepatofugal or hepatopedal?
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Hepatofugal- The flow is "Futile"
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What is a ranula? What are the two types?
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Retention cyst of the sublingual gland. Simple or plunging. Plunging extends beyond the sublingual space to the submandibular space either around or through the mylohyoid.
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The submandibular duct runs through what space?
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Sublingual.
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What American Spinal Injury Association classification indicates complete cord injury with no motor or sensory function at the sacral level? What class is normal?
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Complete injury = Type A
Normal = Type E |
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What three conditions are more likely to cause increased lung volumes in neonates?
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Transient tachypnea of the newborn, meconium aspiration, non-group B strep pneumonia.
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What conditions are more likely to cause decreased lung volumes on chest x-rays in neonates? (2)
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Surfactant deficiency, Group B Strep pneumonia.
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DDx for hyperechoic liver mets? (3)
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Colorectal cancer (mucinous), Carcinoid, Pancreatic neuroendocrine.
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True or false: Lymphoma tends to raise the aorta off of the spine, whereas retroperitoeal fibrosis does not.
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True.
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More likely to contain calcifications, Neuroblastoma or Wilms Tumor?
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Neuroblastoma (85% vs. 15% of Wilms)
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What fractures constitute a floating shoulder and how is this managed?
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Scapular body + Clavicle (or Acromion). Managed with ORIF.
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Diffuse, symmetric uptake in the thyroid gland on PET/CT suggests what?
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Hashimoto (chronic lymphocytic) thyroiditis.
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Inferior wall subendocardial delayed enhancement in a left dominant individual is consistent with what ischemic territory?
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Circumflex in left dominant system (but usually RCA in the typical right dominant system)
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What is the most common benign ocular lesion in adults?
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Orbital cavernous malformation. (not a true neoplasm, for the record).
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Which cranial nerve traverses foramen ovale and what motor innervation does it provide?
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V3 (Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve). Provides motor innervation to the muscles of mastication.
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Widening of the atlantodental interval is suggestive of injury to the ______ ligament.
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Transverse
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What are the benchmarks in positive predictive value and recall rate for mammography?
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PPV > 25%, Recall rate < 10%.
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What is considered severe stenosis on coronary CTA?
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> 70% in all coronary arteries except Left Main, where > 50% is considered severe.
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What is a type I endoleak?
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Blood flow into the aneurysm sac due to an incomplete seal or an ineffective seal at the end of the graft. Usually occurs early.
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What is a type II endoleak?
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Blood flow into the aneurysm sac due to blood flow from collateral vessels.
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What is a type III endoleak?
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Blood flow into the aneurysm sac due to inadequate or ineffective sealing of overlapping graft joints or rupture of the graft fabric.
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What is a type IV endoleak?
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Blood flow into the aneurysm sac due to the porosity of the graft fabric
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Two etiologies for the "ring of fire" in an ovary in a pregnant patient.
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Ectopic pregnancy, Corpus luteum
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Left to right shunt detected at several months of age most likely to be?
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VSD. PDA is within first week, ASD at several years.
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In which arthritis is "calcar buttressing" seen?
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Osteoarthritis. Superolateral migration of the femoral head increases stress on the medial cortex of the femoral neck.
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Where would an ectopic in a caesarian scar be expected to be seen?
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In the low anterior myometrium.
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Describe the Couinaud Liver segments.
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What is the hilum overlay sign?
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Ability to see the hilum through a mass... suggests that the mass is anterior or posterior mediastinal in nature.
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Theca lutein cysts are associated with _____. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome has similar ovarian features but an empty uterus.
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Molar pregnancy.
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Most common sites for Ewing metastases?
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Lungs and bones, equally common.
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What is a Fontan shunt?
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Connects the IVC to the Pulmonary Arteries.
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What is a bidirectional Glenn (or hemi-Fontan) shunt?
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Connection from the SVC to Pulmonary Arteries.
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What is the tiger stripe sign of tonsillar enhancement?
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Non-suppurative tonsilitis.
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Choroid plexus cysts on fetal ultrasound are a marker for?
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Trisomy 18
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Best diagnosis for a cystic mass with a solid enhancing nodule in a young patient with a history of epilepsy?
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Ganglioglioma
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What percent stenosis does a peak systolic velocity of 233 cm/sec in the ICA correlate to?
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>70% Stenosis.
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What constitutes the deep layer of the medial collateral ligament?
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The meniscofemoral and meniscotibial ligaments.
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What is the most common extremity soft tissue malignancy in teenagers and young adults?
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Synovial sarcoma.
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Tracheal mural thickening with sparing of the posterior membranous trachea?
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Tracheopathia Osteochondroplastica
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Holoprosencephaly is associated with which aneuploidy?
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Trisomy 13
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Nodules in a cirrhotic liver that ar T1 low or iso, T2 low?
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Regenerative nodule.
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Nodule in cirrhotic liver that is T1 bright, T2 bright?
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HCC
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Nodule in cirrhotic liver that is T1 bright, T2 low or iso?
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Dysplastic nodule.
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Infrascapular or subscapular, often bilateral, benign masses seen primarily in older females?
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Elastofibroma
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What percentage of submandibular gland lesions are benign? What is the most common benign lesion? The most common malignant?
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50%. Benign mixed tumor. Adenoid cystic carcinoma.
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Describe the relative positioning of the brachial plexus branches relative to the clavicle.
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The rami/trunks are supraclavicular, the divisions are retroclavicular, and the cords/terminal branches are infraclavicular
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Most common thoracic presentation of Sjogren's syndrome?
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LIP
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Hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy and small nodules along bronchovascular bundle and fissures (lymphatic distribution).
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Sarcoidosis.
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Focal smooth thickening of interlobular septa in a patient with known malignancy. Tends to be more focal.
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Lymphagitic carcinomatosis.
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Smooth septal thickening and ground-glass opacity in a gravity dependent location in a patient with cardiomegaly and pleural fluid.
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Cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
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Centrilobular nodules of ground-glass opacity or mosaic pattern in farmer or bird fancier.
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Hypersensitivity pneumonitis.
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Bilateral peripheral consolidations with upper lobe predominance in a patient with eosinophilia.
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Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia.
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Basal and peripheral reticular opacities, honeycombing, and traction bronchiectasis.
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UIP (Usual interstitial pneumonia)
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Name given to UIP without a known cause.
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Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.
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Basal ground-glass opacities, traction bronchiectasis in advanced disease.
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NSIP (Nonspecific interstitial pneumonia)
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What must NSIP be differentiated from for prognosis?
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UIP
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Patchy peripheral or peribronchovascular consolidation with bronchial thickening and/or ectasia.
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Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia.
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Centrilobular nodules with ground glass opacities in upper lobes in a symptomatic smoker?
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RB-ILD (respiratory bronchiolitis associated interstitial lung disease)
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Numerous cysts evenly spread throughout the lungs in premenopausal women.
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Lymphangiomyomatosis
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Diffuse consolidation and ground-glass with rapid progression to fibrosis. Similar to ARDS.
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AIP (Acute Interstitial Pneumonia)
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Groundglass opacities in addition to lung cysts. Uncommon.
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Lymphocytic interstitial pneumonitis.
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Nodules or bizarre shaped cysts in upper and middle zones in a smoker.
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Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
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Small well-defined nodules (2-5mm) in both lungs in a centrilobular and subpleural distribution, upper lobe predominance, irregular conglomerate masses (progressive massive fibrosis), masses may calcify or cavitate. +/- lymphadenopathy.
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Silicosis/CWP
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Thoracic cavitary nodules and masses in an AIDS patient?
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Cryptococcosis
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Which typically shows T2 Hyperintensity, Endometrioma or hemorrhagic cyst?
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Hemorrhagic cyst. Endometrioma is typically darker on T2.
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Describe a mesenchymal hamartoma.
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Large, multiseptated cystic liver mass in an infant.
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Ddx for dense metaphyseal bands in a child? (3)
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Lead poisoning, hypervitaminosis D, growth arrest lines.
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What is a Page kidney?
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Subcapsular renal hematoma which does not resorb, resulting in long-term compression of the kidney and resultant hypertension, renal insufficiency.
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Are closed spinal dysraphisms (such as lipomyelomeningocele) associated with Chiari II?
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No... only open spinal dysraphisms are associated with Chiari II.
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What is the most common site for a capillary telangiectasia in the brain?
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Pons.
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3 S's of non accidental trauma.
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Scapular fracture.
Spinous fracture. Sternal fracture. |
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Hypocalcemia in the newborn?
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DiGeorge Syndrome
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Hepatic vein pressure gradient (HVPG) greater than ____ indicates a risk of variceal bleeding and is an appropriate indication for TIPS.
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12 mmHg
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What are the three subsites of the hypopharynx?
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Pyriform sinus, Posterior hypopharyngeal wall, and Postcricoid region.
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What two nerves pass through the annulus of Zinn?
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Oculomotor (CN3) and Abducens (CN6)
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What is the classic appearance of a lipofibromatous hamartoma?
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Coaxial cable appearance of a peripheral nerve.
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What is the most common cardiac tumor? Benign tumor? Malignant?
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Most common- Mets
Benign- Myxoma Malignant- Angiosarcoma |
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What primary is most associated with pseudomyxoma peritonei?
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Appendiceal carcinoma.
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Where is a juvenile angiofibroma centered?
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Sphenopalatine fossa, extending into the nasal cavity, nasopharynx, and pterygopalatine fossa.
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What two muscles originate from a "conjoint tendon" at the ischial tuberosity?
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Semimembranosus, biceps femoris.
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What is the leading cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy in the western world?
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Amyloid.
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What free radical is the most commonly damaging in the body after ionizing radiation?
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Hydroxyl (formed from the ionization of water)
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What condition is caused by an allele that leads to deficient double strand DNA break repair and thus an increase propensity to develop cancer from radiation exposure?
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Ataxia-Telangiectasia
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Which cell survival curve has an initial shoulder, x-ray/gamma ray or alpha particle?
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Xray/Gamma Ray due to ability of cells to repair damage at lower doses. Alpha particles are more universally destructive, overwhelming cellular defenses at lower doses.
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During which two phases are cells most susceptible to radiation damage?
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Mitosis (M) phase most sensitive.
G2 phase second most sensitive. |
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Which phase of the active cell cycle is most resistant to radiation damage?
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S phase.
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What is the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau?
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The sensitivity of cells to radiation damage is directly proportional to their reproductive activity and inversely proportional to their degree of differentiation.
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Which cells are the biggest exception to the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau? These are also used to triage the severity of acute radiation exposure.
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Peripheral lymphocytes. Though well differentiated and not dividing, they are very radiosensitive.
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At what levels of radiation exposure are the following Acute Radiation Syndromes expected to occur?
1. Bone Marrow Syndrome. 2. Gastrointestinal Syndrome. 3. Central Nervous System Syndrome. |
1. > 2 Gy
2. > 8 Gy 3. > 20Gy |
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What is the LD 50/60 for humans in regards to radiation exposure?
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Between 3.5 and 7 Gy.
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What is the relationship between kV and skin injury for a given radiation dose?
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Inversely proportional (i.e. higher kV yields less skin injury)
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Discuss the deterministic skin effects at different radiation doses.
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Discuss the deterministic effects of gonadal radiation are varying radiation doses.
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What is a stochastic effect?
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Probabilistic, i.e. the probability of developing a complication increases with increasing dose although the degree of the complication is independent of dose.
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What is a deterministic effect?
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Have a dose threshold above which the effect will occur and the severity of the effect increases with dose.
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What is the current ICRP dose threshold for the lens of the eye?
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0.5 Gy for acute and chronic exposure with latent period inversely related to dose.
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What ovarian follicles are most susceptible to radiation?
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The intermediate follicles. Both primordial and mature follicles are relatively resistant to radiation effects. This explains the delayed presentation of temporary female sterility.
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What cancers are most commonly associated with radiation exposure? (5)
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Leukemia, Thyroid, Breast, Lung, GI Tract
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What is the effect of radiation during the pre-implantation stage of pregnancy (days 1-9)?
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All of nothing effect... either radiation kills enough cells and the pregnancy is terminated or the pregnancy develops normally.
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What is the effect of radiation during the organogenesis phase of pregnancy (weeks 2-8)?
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Highest susceptibility to radiation damage, most commonly to the CNS as this develops for the longest time during this phase.
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What is the effect of radiation during the fetal growth stage (weeks 8-delivery)?
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Low risk of death or congenital malformation. Still some susceptibility to functional CNS defects or growth retardation at high doses. Most sensitive period is from 8-15 weeks.
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At what dose does the NCRP suggest risk of fetal effects?
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0.15 Gy (most radiology exams are below 0.05 Gy)
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What is a "doubling dose"? And what is this amount for humans?
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The dose required per generation to double the incidence of spontaneous mutations. The doubling dose for low-dose rate radiation in humans is 1 Gy.
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Which radiation associated cancer has the shorter latency period?
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Leukemia.
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What is the exposure-to-mAs ratio benchmark for radiographic systems?
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10 mR/mAs
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Why do modern x-ray generators emit significantly less low-energy, dose-contributing x-rays?
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They have "low-ripple" voltage.
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What is the benefit of using mag mode on modern digital image receptors as opposed to conventional IIs?
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Conventional Image intensifiers required increase dose for mag... This is not true of digital receptors.
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What is the MQSA dose limit for a 4.2 cm compressed breast having a 50/50 glandular/adipose tissue composition?
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3 mGy per image.
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What is the name given to the technique of carefully selecting target-filter combinations in mammography?
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Spectral filtering.
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What is the skin dose considered to be a "sentinel event" by the joint commision?
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1500 rad (15 Gy). Greater than 100 minutes of fluoro time considered a proxy to this. The event is reportable and the hospital must convene a "root cause analysis" of the event with future prevention recommendations.
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Nausea and vomiting within three hours of acute radiation exposure means what?
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The mortality in this situation is very high... reflects high doses of radiation.
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What radiopharmaceutical is contraindicated in pregnancy in all its forms?
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I-131. The fetus begins concentrating iodine in the thyroid at 10 weeks... administration can result in severe hypothyroidism (cretinism).
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How long must most written documentation regarding radiopharmaceuticals be kept in nuclear medicine?
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3 years.
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What is the definition of a "low-dose"?
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Between 0.1 - 0.15 Sieverts.
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What is the most conservative (and thus widely used) model of radiation risk derived from high dose studies?
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The linear no-threshold model.
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Differentiate fibrolamellar HCC from FNH on the basis of calcification and the central scar?
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Fibrolamellar HCC often calcifies, FNH won't calcify.
Fibrolamellar HCC with t2 dark scar and no delayed full in. FNH with t2 bright central scar and delayed fill in. |
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What is the worst complication of a pyocele and what is the management of epididymoorchitis with pyocele?
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Can lead to Fournie's gangrene. Tx is with broad spectrum antibiotics and surgical drainage.
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What nerve innervates the muscles of mastication?
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Mandibular division of CN V (V3)
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When does the fetal vermis fuse? I.e. when can an ultrasound demonstrating an open vermis be considered abnormal?
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18 weeks
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What is the most common etiology of fetal hydrocephalus?
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Aquaductal stenosis
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When can the diagnosis of omphalocele be made in the fetus?
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After 12 weeks, when the normal herniation of midgut should have resolved.
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What is the upper limits of normal for endometrial thickness in a bleeding post menopausal woman? In the setting of unopposed estrogen (tamoxifen) therapy?
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5 mm for bleeding post-menopausal.
8 mm in setting if estrogen therapy. |
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What is the recommendation for a simple ovarian cyst that is less than 5cm? 5-7cm? > 7cm?
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Less than 5 cm do nothing.
5 - 7cm get yearly ultrasound > 7 cm surgical consult and/or MRI |
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Ddx for cardiomegaly and decreased pulmonary vascularity in a newborn?
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Ebstein anomaly, tricuspid atresia, pulmonic atresia.
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What is the appropriate dose of morphine administered to a patient in the setting of suspected acute cholecystitis on HIDA?
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0.04mg/kg over 2-3 minutes
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What are the five spaces of the infrahyoid neck?
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1. Visceral space.
2. Retropharyngeal space. 3. Carotid space. 4. Posterior cervical space. 5. Perivertebral space. |
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What normal structures are contained in the visceral space? (8)
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1. Larynx
2. Hypopharynx/esophagus 3. Trachea 4. Thyroid gland 5. Parathyroid/Thyroid 6. Embryological remnants (thyroglossal duct cyst, 3rd brancial cleft cyst) 7. Paratracheal lymph nodes 8. Recurrent nerve |
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A laryngocele is formed from what?
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Obstruction of the laryngeal ventricle, which sits between the true and false vocal cords.
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What structures are normally found in the carotid space? (6)
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1. Carotid artery
2. Internal jugular vein 3. Vagus nerve 4. Sympathetic plexus 5. Lymph nodes 6. Congenital remnants of second branchial cleft |
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What structures are normally located in the retropharyngeal space? (2)
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1. Fat
2. Suprahyoid lymph nodes |
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What fascia separates the retropharyngeal space from the danger space?
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Alar fascia
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What structures are normally found in the infrahyoid posterior cervical space? (6)
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1. Fat
2. Accessory nerve XI 3. Brachial plexus 4. Lymph nodes 5. Primitive embryonic lymph sacs 6. Remnants 3rd brancial cleft |
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What structures are normally found in the perivertebral space? (4)
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1. Vertebra
2. Muscles 3. Brachial plexus 4. Vertebral artery and vein |
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What is the Ddx for radiolucent urinary tract stones? (4)
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SMUX
Struvite Matrix Urate Xanthine |
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Below what size will most urinary tract stones pass spontaneously?
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5 mm
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Ddx for hyperechoic, normal to large sized kidneys? (5)
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HIV Nephropathy
Acute glomerulonephritis Goodpasture's syndrome Lupus Diabetes |
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Vertebral disc calcifications in a young patient no history of trauma or manual labor?
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Ochronosis (ie Alkaptonuria)
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DDx for periosteal reaction in a child? (9)
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Physiologic (1-6 months)
Non-accidental trauma Caffey's (<6 months) Hypervitaminosis A Scurvy Osteogenesis Imperfecta Congenital Syphilis Leukemia Metastases |
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Syndrome with multiple non-ossifying fibromas and cafe-au-lait spots?
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Jaffe-Campanacci Syndrome
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DDx for "beak" or "hook" osteophytes at the MCP joints? (2)
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Hemophilia or CPPD
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How to differentiate congenitally absent pedicle from metastatic disease?
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Congenitally absent pedicle should transfer force to the contralateral side... therefore the opposing pedicle should be sclerotic.
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What is "Still's Disease"?
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Seronegative version of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis.
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Infection in children typically spares the _____.
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Epiphysis.
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How to differentiate primary from secondary hemochromatosis (hemosiderosis)?
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Primary deposits iron in the liver and pancreas. Secondary involves the reticuloendothelial system and deposits in the liver, spleen, bone marrow, and lymph nodes.
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Which is the eparterial bronchus?
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The right side bronchus.
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Fluid signal intramuscular mass with "flame-shaped" extensions along muscle fibers?
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Intramuscular myxoma.
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According to the NRC, how long are records of radiation dose to personnel maintained?
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Permanently
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How to differentiate multiple sclerosis of the spinal cord from neuromyelitis optica?
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MS lesions tend to be less than 1 vertebral body in length, whereas NMO lesions tend to be greater than 3 vertebral bodies in length.
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Diffuse hyperattenuation of the lung parenchyma with small, round cystic spaces (? in lower lung).
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Desquamative Interstitial Pneumonia
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DDx for solitary sacral mass in an adult? (3)
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Giant cell tumor, chordoma, plasmacytoma.
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How to differentiate CNS lymphoma from toxo in AIDS patients with nuclear medicine imaging?
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Toxoplasmosis will not be hot on Thallium but Lymphoma will be. May be performed in concert with Gallium study, for which most everything will be positive.
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What is the Michel deformity?
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Range of inner ear deformities ranging from total absence of inner ear structures (Michel aplasia) to abnormal cystic cochlea (Michel dysplasia).
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What of the semicircular canals is most likely to be deformed?
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Lateral... it is the last to form.
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Which cholesteatoma is the "classic" lesion that sits in Prussak's space with erosion of the scutum?
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Pars flaccida.
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Does cholesteatoma diffusion restrict?
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Yes.
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In the case of an aberrant ICA creating a pulsatile middle ear mass, what supplies the horizontal ICA portion?
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Ascending pharyngeal artery (branch from the external carotid).
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What is the typical appearance of a glomus tympanicum?
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Small soft tissue mass sitting on the cochlear promontory.
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Cystic, destructive, avidly enhancing tumor of the posterior temporal bone?
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Endolymphatic sac tumor (think VHL)
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What is schizencephaly most frequently associated with?
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Septo-optic dysplasia.
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What is a Mondini malformation? (3 parts)
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1. Abnormal cochlea
only 1.5 turns (instead of the normal 2.5 turns) normal basal turn with a cystic apex in place of the distal 1.5 turns 2. Enlarged vestibule with normal semicircular canals 3. Enlarged vestibular aqueduct containing a dilated endolymphatic sac. |
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Trigonoccephaly is closure of what suture?
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Metopic
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Brachycephaly is closure of what suture?
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Coronal
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Cloverleaf skull?
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Premature closure of bilateral coronal and lambdoidal sutures.
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Solitary sacral mass in an adult? (3)
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1. Chordoma (very high t2 signal)
2. Giant cell tumor 3. Plasmacytoma |
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Fibrous dysplasia of the pelvis is usually _____ in appearance.
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Bubbly.
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