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644 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
When the body is in the anatomical
position, the thumbs point 1. medially 2. laterally 3. anteriorly 4. posteriorly |
2. laterally
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A person lying on his/her back is in what
position? 1. Prone 2. Erect 3. Supine 4. Lateral recumbent |
3. Supine
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The physical and chemical breakdown of
the food we eat is called 1. digestion 2. metabolism 3. anabolism 4. catabolism |
1. digestion
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The transfer of fluids across the plasma
membrane of a cell from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration is a process known as 1. infusion 2. diffusion 3. perfusion 4. osmosis |
2. diffusion
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Homeostasis is defined as
1. control of bleeding 2. absorption, storage, and use of food products 3. self-regulated control of the body’s internal environment 4. the power of voluntary movement |
3. self-regulated control of the body’s
internal environment |
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That portion of a cell containing all the
genetic material important in the cell’s reproduction is called the 1. plasma membrane 2. nucleus 3. cytoplasm 4. reticulated endothelium |
2. nucleus
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What type of tissue is known as the lining
tissue of the body? 1. Connective 2. Areolar 3. Sebaceous 4. Epithelial |
4. Epithelial
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The secretion of digestive fluids and the
absorption of digested foods and liquids is the chief function of which tissue? 1. Columnar 2. Osseus 3. Sercus 4. Squamous |
1. Columnar
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Because this tissue is continuous
throughout the body, if an infection were allowed to spread, it could reach every area of the body by moving through which of the following tissues? 1. Areolar 2. Adipose 3. Osseous 4. Fibrous |
1. Areolar
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Which of the following are the two most
prominent mineral elements of bone? 1. Ossein and calcium 2. Phosphorus and calcium 3. Sodium and phosphorus 4. Periosteum and ossein |
2. Phosphorus and calcium
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The bones of the wrist are classified as
which of the following bones? 1. Long 2. Short 3. Flat 4. Irregular |
2. Short
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Bones of the cranium include which of the
following? 1. Maxilla 2. Occipital 3. Atlas and axis 4. All of the above |
2. Occipital
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The appendicular skeleton is composed of
the bones of the 1. skull and vertebral column 2. thorax and vertebral column 3. pelvis and thorax 4. upper and lower extremities |
4. upper and lower extremities
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The upper three ribs on each side are
known as which of the following types of ribs? 1. True 2. False 3. Floating 4. Sternal |
1. True
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The head of the humerus is called the
1. scapula 2. acetabulum 3. glenoid fossa 4. epicondyle |
3. glenoid fossa
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The innominate bone is composed of three
parts that are united in adults to form a cuplike structure called the 1. glenoid fossa 2. acetabulum 3. symphysis pubis 4. obturator foramen |
2. acetabulum
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The prominences easily felt on the inner
and outer aspects of the ankle are called 1. medial and lateral malleolus 2. medial and lateral condyles 3. greater and lesser tuberosities 4. greater and lesser trochanters |
1. medial and lateral malleolus
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Bones that develop within a tendon are
known as which of the following? 1. Condyloid 2. Sesamoid 3. Vermiform 4. Falsiform |
2. Sesamoid
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Moving an extremity away from the body is
called 1. flexion 2. extension 3. abduction 4. adduction |
3. abduction
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The act of straightening a limb is known as
1. flexion 2. extension 3. abduction 4. adduction |
2. extension
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The primary function of the muscles
includes all of the following EXCEPT 1. providing heat during activity 2. maintaining body posture 3. producing red blood cells 4. providing movement |
3. producing red blood cells
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The ability of muscles to regain their
original form when stretched is known as 1. contractiblity 2. elasticity 3. extensibility 4. tonicity |
2. elasticity
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Actin and myosin are the two protein
substances involved in 1. muscle recovery 2. muscle nourishment 3. muscle contraction 4. rigor mortis |
3. muscle contraction
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Which of the following properties describes
the ability of muscles to respond to a stimulus? 1. Contractility 2. Irritability 3. Extensibility 4. Tonicity |
2. Irritability
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If a generally sedentary person in less than
good physical condition enters a marathon with intent to complete the race, which of the following outcomes can he/she be expected to encounter? 1. If the day is cool, there will be no significant risk 2. Any physical deficiency can be overcome with a carbohydrate-rich diet before the race 3. If stretching exercises are performed before the race, he/she will be ok 4. He/she runs the risk of muscle damage |
4. He/she runs the risk of muscle damage
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Intramuscular injections are frequently
given in which of the following muscles? 1. Trapezius 2. Pectoralis majoris 3. Deltoid 4. All of the above |
3. Deltoid
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Intramuscular injections are usually given
in which of the following muscles? 1. Quadriceps 2. Sartorius 3. Gastrocnemius 4. Gluteus maximus |
4. Gluteus maximus
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The body’s primary thermo-regulatory
action is a function of dilating and contracting blood vessels and the 1. stratum germinativum 2. sweat glands 3. sebaceous glands 4. melanin |
2. sweat glands
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The total blood volume in the average adult
is in what ranges? 1. 3 to 4 liters 2. 4 to 5 liters 3. 5 to 6 liters 4. 6 to 7 liters |
3. 5 to 6 liters
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A decreased red blood cell (RBC) count
could be the result of a medical condition affecting the 1. compact bone 2. periosteum 3. yellow marrow 4. red marrow |
4. red marrow
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Blood of the average female adult contains
(a) how many million RBCs per (b) what unit? 1. (a) 4.5 (b) mm3 2. (a) 6.0 (b) cm3 3. (a) 4.5 (b) 1 4. (a) 4.5 (b) low power field |
1. (a) 4.5 (b) mm3
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A white blood cell (WBC) count of 18,000
may indicate what condition? 1. Leukocytosis 2. Normalcy 3. Infection 4. Vetiligo |
3. Infection
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In an accident victim suffering from a
fibrinogen deficiency, the rescuer may have difficulty performing which of the actions listed below? 1. Controlling hemorrhage 2. Immobilizing a fracture 3. Supporting respiratory function 4. Reducing a dislocation |
1. Controlling hemorrhage
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In addition to preventing excessive blood
loss, the formation of a blood clot serves which, if any, of the following purposes? 1. To convert fibrinogen into blood serum to aid healing 2. To form the foundation for new tissue growth 3. To manufacture leukocytes 4. None of the above |
2. To form the foundation for new tissue
growth |
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The valves of the heart include all of the
following EXCEPT 1. atrial 2. mitral 3. tricuspid 4. pulmonary |
4. pulmonary
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Oxygenated blood is carried by which of
the following vein(s)? 1. Inferior vena cava 2. Superior vena cava 3. Portal 4. Pulmonary |
4. Pulmonary
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The contraction phase of the heart is
1. systole 2. tension 3. diastole 4. active |
1. systole
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The pulse pressure is the difference
between which of the following measurements? 1. Venous and arterial pressure 2. Resting and active pulse rate 3. Arterial and ventricular pressure 4. Systole and diastole |
4. Systole and diastole
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The venous system that carries digested
materials from the intestinal tract is called the 1. portal 2. pulmonary 3. abdominal 4. pelvic |
1. portal
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Lymph nodes participate in all of the
following functions EXCEPT 1. manufacture of white blood cells 2. filtration of bacterial debris 3. production of hormones 4. collection of large protein molecules |
3. production of hormones
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Windpipe is another term for
1. nares 2. larynx 3. trachea 4. pharynx |
3. trachea
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The primary muscle of respiration is known
as the 1. pleura 2. alveolus 3. diaphragm 4. mediastinum |
3. diaphragm
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Of the following nerves, which, if any,
controls the larynx during the process of breathing? 1. Phrenic 2. Intercostal 3. Vagus 4. None of the above |
3. Vagus
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A nerve cell, or neuron, is composed of all
of the following EXCEPT a/an 1. synapse 2. axon 3. cyton 4. dendrite |
1. synapse
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The impulse receptors of a nerve are called
1. dendrites 2. Schwann cells 3. ganglia 4. neurons |
1. dendrites
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The space through which a nerve impulse
passes from one neuron to another is called a/an 1. myelin sheath 2. synapse 3. axon 4. ganglion |
2. synapse
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Balance, coordination of movement, and
harmony of motion are functions of what part of the brain? 1. Cerebral cortex 2. Cerebellum 3. Pons 4. Temporal lobe |
2. Cerebellum
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Circulation and respiration are controlled
primarily from what area of the brain? 1. Medulla oblongata 2. Pons 3. Cerebellum 4. Cerebrum |
1. Medulla oblongata
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The meninges, membrane layers covering
of the brain and spinal cord, are composed of all of the following EXCEPT the 1. dura mater 2. pia mater 3. arachnoid 4. foramen magnum |
3. arachnoid
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In what part of the body is cerebral spinal
fluid produced? 1. Ventricles of the brain 2. Spinal cord 3. Meninges 4. Medulla oblongata |
1. Ventricles of the brain
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The 12 pairs of cranial and 31 pairs of
spinal nerves form what nervous system? 1. Peripheral 2. Central 3. Autonomic 4. Sympathetic |
1. Peripheral
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A. Facial
B. Trigeminal C. Hypoglossal D. Accessory IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-52 THROUGH 1-54, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE CRANIAL NERVE THAT PERFORMS THE FUNCTION LISTED IN EACH QUESTION. Controls the muscles of the tongue. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
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A. Facial
B. Trigeminal C. Hypoglossal D. Accessory IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-52 THROUGH 1-54, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE CRANIAL NERVE THAT PERFORMS THE FUNCTION LISTED IN EACH QUESTION. Transmits sensation of taste. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
The answer is Glossopharyngeal which is not given as an option in the question.
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A. Facial
B. Trigeminal C. Hypoglossal D. Accessory IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-52 THROUGH 1-54, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE CRANIAL NERVE THAT PERFORMS THE FUNCTION LISTED IN EACH QUESTION. Receives sensory input from the face. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
2. voluntary and involuntary systems
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The autonomic nervous system is
composed of two main divisions: the 1. pons and medulla oblongata 2. voluntary and involuntary systems 3. sympathetic and parasympathetic systems 4. cerebrum and cerebellum |
3. sympathetic and parasympathetic
systems |
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Conservation and restoration of energy are
the result of nerve impulses arising from which, if any, of the following nervous systems? 1. Sympathetic 2. Parasympathetic 3. Voluntary 4. None of the above |
2. Parasympathetic
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A. Sympathetic
B. Central C. Peripheral D. Parasympathetic IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-57 THROUGH 1-60, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE NERVOUS SYSTEM THAT IS MOST RESPONSIBLE FOR THE SYMPTOM OR FUNCTION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. Increased heart rate. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
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A. Sympathetic
B. Central C. Peripheral D. Parasympathetic IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-57 THROUGH 1-60, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE NERVOUS SYSTEM THAT IS MOST RESPONSIBLE FOR THE SYMPTOM OR FUNCTION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. Vision. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
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A. Sympathetic
B. Central C. Peripheral D. Parasympathetic IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-57 THROUGH 1-60, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE NERVOUS SYSTEM THAT IS MOST RESPONSIBLE FOR THE SYMPTOM OR FUNCTION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. Decreases heart rate to normal. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
2. B
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A. Sympathetic
B. Central C. Peripheral D. Parasympathetic IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 1-57 THROUGH 1-60, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE NERVOUS SYSTEM THAT IS MOST RESPONSIBLE FOR THE SYMPTOM OR FUNCTION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. Reflex arc. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
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Hormones secreted by the endocrine system
are 1. secreted directly into the gland, tissue, or organ it influences 2. directed to the gland, tissue, organ by a duct system 3. secreted into the circulatory system 4. typically produced in large quantities |
3. secreted into the circulatory system
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The overproduction of which hormone
leads to acromegaly? 1. Somatotropin 2. Oxytocin 3. Gonadotropin 4. Thyroxin |
1. Somatotropin
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Which of the following diseases is
characterized by a deficiency of the antidiuretic hormone? 1. Myxedema 2. Diabetes insipidus 3. Hyperthyroidism 4. Addison’s disease |
2. Diabetes insipidus
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An insufficient secretion of thyroxin is
characterized by all of the following symptoms EXCEPT 1. weight gain 2. fatigue 3. profuse sweating 4. slowed heart rate |
3. profuse sweating
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Calcium levels in the blood are controlled
by which of the following hormones? 1. Thyroxin 2. Vasopressin 3. Oxytocin 4. Parathormone |
4. Parathormone
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Electrolyte balance is a function of the
hormone produced by the 1. posterior lobe of the pituitary gland 2. anterior lobe of the pituitary gland 3. cortex of the adrenal gland 4. medulla of the adrenal gland |
2. anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
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A metabolic response to epinephrine
includes which, if any, of the symptoms listed below? 1. Decreased heart rate 2. Increased blood pressure 3. Respiratory distress 4. None of the above |
2. Increased blood pressure
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What hormone is produced by the alpha
cells of the islands of Langerhans in the pancreas? 1. Glucagon 2. Insulin 3. Norepinephrine 4. Androgens |
1. Glucagon
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The cornea is part of the protective outer
layer of the eye called the 1. sclera 2. conjunctiva 3. choroid 4. crystalline body |
1. sclera
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The inner part of the eye derives its
nourishment primarily from the vascular structure of what tissue? 1. Conjunctiva 2. Sclera 3. Vitreous humor 4. Choroid |
4. Choroid
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Dilation of the pupil, a muscular response
of the iris, normally occurs as a result of what? 1. Increased intensity of light 2. Decrease intensity of light 3. Irritation to the sclera 4. Irritation to the conjunctiva |
2. Decrease intensity of light
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Of the elements listed below, which makes
seeing in the dark possible? 1. Rods 2. Cones 3. Iris 4. Choroid |
2. Cones
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By what process is three-dimensional
vision produced? 1. Accommodation 2. Convergence 3. Refraction 4. Stimulation |
2. Convergence
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The mechanical transmission of sound from
the tympanic membrane to the inner ear is a function of which of the following? 1. Auditory ossicles 2. Eustachian tube 3. Bony labyrinth 4. Organ of Corti |
1. Auditory ossicles
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What structure(s) of the inner ear
provide(s) neural stimuli used to maintain equilibrium? 1. Fenestra rotunda 2. Fenestra ovalis 3. Semicircular canals 4. Organ of Corti |
3. Semicircular canals
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The conversion of mechanical impulses
(sound waves) to neural impulses that can be interpreted by the brain is a function of the 1. endolymph 2. semicircular canals 3. organ of Corti 4. fenestra ovalis |
3. organ of Corti
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The enzymatic action of amylase results in
the chemical breakdown of 1. fats to fatty acids 2. starches to fats 3. starches to complex sugars 4. proteins to complex sugars |
3. starches to complex sugars
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Absorption of food occurs predominantly in
which of the following areas of the intestines? 1. Duodenum 2. Jejunum 3. Ileum 4. Cecum |
3. Ileum
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Of the organs listed below, which function
as the accessory organs of digestion for the small intestines? 1. Pancreas, liver, villae 2. Spleen, liver, gallbladder 3. Pancreas, pylorus, spleen 4. Pancreas, liver, gallbladder |
4. Pancreas, liver, gallbladder
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The gallbladder performs which of the
following purposes? 1. Stimulates the production of insulin 2. Stores bile 3. Metabolizes sugars 4. Produces antibodies |
2. Stores bile
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The functional unit of the kidney is called
the 1. nephron 2. Malpighian body 3. glomerulus 4. loop of Henle |
1. nephron
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Which of the following is/are (a)
function(s) of the kidneys? 1. To maintain acid-base balance 2. To remove certain toxic substances 3. To remove excess sugar 4. All the above |
4. All the above
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Blood concentration varies due to which, if
any, of the following factors? 1. Temperature 2. Water intake 3. State of health 4. None of the above |
2. Water intake
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What is the approximate total capacity of
the adult bladder? 1. 250 ml 2. 300 ml 3. 600 ml 4. 750 ml |
3. 600 ml
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Testosterone production is a function of
which of the following glands? 1. Cowper’s 2. Prostate 3. Testes 4. Bulbourethral |
3. Testes
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Which of the following is/are considered
the primary female reproductive organs? 1. Ovaries 2. Fallopian tubes 3. Uterus 4. Endometrium |
1. Ovaries
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Fertilization of an ovum normally takes
place in the 1. ovaries 2. fallopian tubes 3. uterus 4. vagina |
2. fallopian tubes
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The concepts of health include
1. the absence of disease or disability 2. soundness of mind, body, and spirit 3. both 1 and 2 above 4. a feeling of euphoria |
3. both 1 and 2 above
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Patient rights and responsibilities are
standards addressed by what organization? 1. Commander, Navy Medical Command (formerly Bureau of Medicine and Surgery) 2. American Medical Association (AMA) 3. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) 4. National League of Nursing (NLN) |
3. Joint Commission on Accreditation of
Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) |
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The limitations imposed upon a healthcare
provider are based on local regulations and which of the following elements? 1. The rating’s occupational standards 2. The rate training manual 3. The provider’s training and experience 4. All of the above |
3. The provider’s training and experience
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In the healthcare field, accountability
means that providers 1. are held responsible for their actions 2. must continue their education in the healthcare field 3. are bound by a code of ethics 4. all the above |
4. all the above
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A patient requests your advice or opinion
concerning the care or proposed care (s)he is undergoing. Which, if any, of the following is the appropriate response? 1. Answer honestly, to the best of your ability 2. Refer the patient to the nurse or physician responsible for his/her care 3. Say you'll ask your supervisor 4. None of the above |
2. Refer the patient to the nurse or
physician responsible for his/her care |
|
Personal and medical information learned
about a patient as the result of your position as a Hospital Corpsman is privileged and must not be divulged to unauthorized individuals. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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A. Learned and shared
behavior patterns and standards. B. How one responds to and regards others. C. Inherited characteristics. D. Belief system. TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-19 THROUGH 2-21, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE STATEMENT THAT MOST ACCURATELY DESCRIBES THE TERMS GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. NOT ALL STATEMENTS WILL BE USED. Interpersonal relations. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
2. B
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A. Learned and shared
behavior patterns and standards. B. How one responds to and regards others. C. Inherited characteristics. D. Belief system. TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-19 THROUGH 2-21, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE STATEMENT THAT MOST ACCURATELY DESCRIBES THE TERMS GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. NOT ALL STATEMENTS WILL BE USED. Culture. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
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A. Learned and shared
behavior patterns and standards. B. How one responds to and regards others. C. Inherited characteristics. D. Belief system. TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-19 THROUGH 2-21, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE STATEMENT THAT MOST ACCURATELY DESCRIBES THE TERMS GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. NOT ALL STATEMENTS WILL BE USED. Race. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
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A patient who is a professed atheist is
placed on the Very Serious List (VSL) with a poor prognosis for recovery. All of the following actions by the staff are considered appropriate and ethical EXCEPT 1. informing the rest of the staff of the patient’s nonreligious beliefs 2. informing the rest of the staff of the patient’s condition 3. informing pastoral services (chaplain) of the patient’s condition and nonreligious beliefs 4. attempting to convince the patient to accept a religious belief |
4. attempting to convince the patient to
accept a religious belief |
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The communication process takes place
only through the written or spoken word. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
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Communication barriers inhibit the flow of
information and may consist of which of the following factors? 1. Decreased auditory acuity 2. Age 3. Education 4. All the above |
4. All the above
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The most common cause of ineffective
communication and the most difficult obstacle to identify is which of the following barriers? 1. Psychological 2. Physical 3. Psychosocial 4. Spiritual or religious |
1. Psychological
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In the communication process, listening is a
critical skill and can be improved by developing which, if any, of the following attitudes and behaviors? 1. Anticipating what the patient will say 2. Minimizing distractions 3. Taking notes 4. None of the above |
2. Minimizing distractions
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The purpose of therapeutic communication
includes all of the following EXCEPT 1. assessing behavior and modifying if appropriate 2. educating a patient regarding health and health care 3. providing information on how to get to the appropriate clinic for treatment 4. obtaining information to determine a patient’s illness |
3. providing information on how to get to
the appropriate clinic for treatment |
|
A. Contact point
communication B. Therapeutic communication TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-28 THROUGH 2-31, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE TERM THAT MOST APTLY APPLIES TO THE REQUIREMENT PRESENTED. Developing a patient’s history of a complaint. 1. A 2. B |
1. A
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A. Contact point
communication B. Therapeutic communication TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-28 THROUGH 2-31, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE TERM THAT MOST APTLY APPLIES TO THE REQUIREMENT PRESENTED. Explaining the necessities and methods of personal hygiene to the parent of a young patient. 1. A 2. B |
1. A
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A. Contact point
communication B. Therapeutic communication TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-28 THROUGH 2-31, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE TERM THAT MOST APTLY APPLIES TO THE REQUIREMENT PRESENTED. Providing self-care instructions to a patient released to convalescent leave. 1. A 2. B |
1. A
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A. Contact point
communication B. Therapeutic communication TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-28 THROUGH 2-31, SELECT FROM THE LIST ABOVE THE TERM THAT MOST APTLY APPLIES TO THE REQUIREMENT PRESENTED. Directing the patient to the pharmacy to fill a prescription. 1. A 2. B |
2. B
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Which of the following are goals of patient
health education? 1. Promoting patient self-care 2. Promoting behavior modification 3. Influencing a patient’s attitude toward health and disease 4. All the above |
4. All the above
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Patient education is the responsibility of
1. the members of the command education and training department 2. only the physician and nurses for the patient 3. all members of the healthcare team 4. the outpatient staff and clinic supervisor only |
3. all members of the healthcare team
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Kind(s) of observation(s)
A. Subjective only B. Objective only C. Both subjective and objective TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-34 THROUGH 2-38, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE TYPE(S) OF OBSERVATION(S) THAT MOST ACCURATELY APPLY(S) TO THE SCENARIO DESCRIBED IN THE QUESTION. In the emergency room, you are examining a patient who suddenly vomits and tells you he has been feeling nauseous for the past several hours. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
3. C
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Kind(s) of observation(s)
A. Subjective only B. Objective only C. Both subjective and objective TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-34 THROUGH 2-38, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE TYPE(S) OF OBSERVATION(S) THAT MOST ACCURATELY APPLY(S) TO THE SCENARIO DESCRIBED IN THE QUESTION. A patient claims to have swallowed many pills and complains of sleepiness and nausea. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
1. A
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Kind(s) of observation(s)
A. Subjective only B. Objective only C. Both subjective and objective TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-34 THROUGH 2-38, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE TYPE(S) OF OBSERVATION(S) THAT MOST ACCURATELY APPLY(S) TO THE SCENARIO DESCRIBED IN THE QUESTION. An EKG performed on a patient is interpreted as normal and the patient’s breathing improves with oxygen therapy. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
2. B
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Kind(s) of observation(s)
A. Subjective only B. Objective only C. Both subjective and objective TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-34 THROUGH 2-38, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE TYPE(S) OF OBSERVATION(S) THAT MOST ACCURATELY APPLY(S) TO THE SCENARIO DESCRIBED IN THE QUESTION. A patient complains of chest pain and has difficulty breathing. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
3. C
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Kind(s) of observation(s)
A. Subjective only B. Objective only C. Both subjective and objective TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-34 THROUGH 2-38, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE TYPE(S) OF OBSERVATION(S) THAT MOST ACCURATELY APPLY(S) TO THE SCENARIO DESCRIBED IN THE QUESTION. When picking up a patient’s dinner tray, you notice that only the liquids have been consumed at this meal, although the patient has normally eaten full meals before this. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
2. B
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A medical patient is prescribed therapeutic
bed rest primarily for what reason? 1. To inhibit the development of circulatory problems 2. To prevent depression and apathy 3. To prevent further damage to body systems 4. To inhibit the development of respiratory problems |
3. To prevent further damage to body
systems |
|
A health care provider can reasonably
expect that all patients admitted for surgical procedures will exhibit which of the following characteristics? 1. Be very demanding 2. Be apathetic and passive 3. Exhibit violent behavior 4. Be fearful and anxious |
4. Be fearful and anxious
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SF 522, Request for Administration of
Anesthesia and for Performance of Operations and other Procedures, is normally signed by a parent, legal guardian, or spouse EXCEPT when the patient is 1. able to do so 2. over 16 years of age but under 18 3. over 18 years of age but under 21 4. a member of the Armed Forces |
4. a member of the Armed Forces
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When a regional anesthetic is administered,
the patient can expect what effect? 1. Motor, but not sensory perception will diminish 2. Pain will be reduced or eliminated in the body part injected or swabbed 3. Level of consciousness will decline 4. The entire body will become numb |
2. Pain will be reduced or eliminated in
the body part injected or swabbed |
|
In general anesthesia, a stimulation of vital
signs is evidence of what level of anesthesia induction? 1. Stage 1 2. Stage 2 3. Stage 3 4. Stage 4 |
2. Stage 2
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|
Dropping a metal basin on the operating
room floor may cause a violent response from a general anesthesia patient in what stage of anesthesia? 1. Stage 1 2. Stage 2 3. Stage 3 4. Stage 4 |
2. Stage 2
|
|
In the immediate postoperative recovery
phase, a patient’s skin color may be indicative of all of the following EXCEPT 1. the patient’s ability to recover from the anesthetic agent 2. postoperative hemorrhage 3. degradation of respiratory function 4. the development of shock |
1. the patient’s ability to recover from the
anesthetic agent |
|
When permitted, postoperative patients
should be encouraged to ambulate to improve the functions of which of the following physiologic systems? 1. Renal system 2. Digestive system 3. Cardiopulmonary system 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
When caring for a young, otherwise healthy
orthopedic patient requiring immobilization, the healthcare provider can anticipate all of the following EXCEPT 1. symptoms of emotional stress 2. frequent complaints of sore or aching pain 3. periods of dizziness associated with disorientation 4. a deterioration of skin tone and function |
3. periods of dizziness associated with
disorientation |
|
Unless otherwise directed by the physician,
when one is applying a cast to an arm, the patient’s wrists is generally in which of the following positions? 1. Extended about 10 degrees 2. In the neutral position 3. Flexed about 30 degrees 4. In any of the above; specific position is immaterial |
2. In the neutral position
|
|
A patient who has been fitted with a cast
should be instructed to return to the medical treatment facility as soon as possible under which of the following circumstances? 1. The cast becomes soiled 2. The extremity affected by the cast is numb 3. The itching becomes unbearable 4. The cast gets wet |
2. The extremity affected by the cast is
numb |
|
In the theory of death and dying, it is
suggested that most people exhibit five stages. The stage where the terminal patient becomes concerned about the state of his or her affairs and family members is known as the stage of 1. denial 2. acceptance 3. bargaining 4. depression |
4. depression
|
|
Patient falls may be avoided by taking
which of the following preventive measures? 1. Proper use of bed/gurney siderails 2. Keeping floors dry and uncluttered 3. Instructing patients on the proper use of walking aids (crutches, canes, etc.) 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Electrical and electronic equipment poses
significant injury hazards. Of the following, which is the authorized means of reducing this hazard? 1. Repairing frayed cords with electrical tape to prevent shock 2. Informing the staff of defective equipment 3. Having medical repair perform electrical safety checks on all equipment 4. Using only two-prong, nongrounded electrical plugs |
2. Informing the staff of defective
equipment |
|
Skin contact burns can be caused by
icebags or hypothermia blankets. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
During a fire evacuation, which of the
following procedures is NOT considered appropriate? 1. Immediately remove patients to safety 2. Close all windows and doors 3. Turn off all oxygen equipment not necessary to sustain life 4. Clear all possible exits |
1. Immediately remove patients to safety
|
|
Because of its nonstatic qualities, the most
acceptable material for use in the operating room is 1. wool 2. synthetic fabrics 3. untreated synthetic/cotton blends 4. 100% cotton |
4. 100% cotton
|
|
Documentation and analysis of all accidents
and injuries is provided for which of the following reasons? 1. To forestall negligence or malpractice suits 2. To identify and punish the responsible person(s) 3. To identify and correct safety deficiencies 4. All of the above |
3. To identify and correct safety
deficiencies |
|
Environmental hygiene is directed toward
producing a healthy environment and includes such practices as maintaining unit cleanliness and 1. providing for adequate ventilation 2. limiting noise levels 3. proper disposal of soiled articles 4. all of the above |
4. all of the above
|
|
What source is considered the most
frequent reservoir of infectious agents pathogenic to man? 1. Soil 2. Animals 3. Man 4. Plants |
3. Man
|
|
A. Corpsman’s hands
B. Patient C. Abdominal wound D. Furuncle TO ANSWER ITEMS 2-59 THROUGH 2-62, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE SITUATIONAL ELEMENT THAT MOST CLOSELY MATCHES THE CHAIN OF INFECTION LINK GIVEN IN THE QUESTION AS IT APPLIES TO THE FOLLOWING SCENARIO. A corpsman assists a medical officer to perform incision and drainage of a furuncle on a patient’s leg. After the I&D procedure, the corpsman changes a postsurgical abdominal dressing on the same patient. A few days later, the surgical wound appears red and swollen and a culture reveals a significant staphylococcal infection. Reservoir of the infectious agent. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
2. B
|
|
A. Corpsman’s hands
B. Patient C. Abdominal wound D. Furuncle TO ANSWER ITEMS 2-59 THROUGH 2-62, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE SITUATIONAL ELEMENT THAT MOST CLOSELY MATCHES THE CHAIN OF INFECTION LINK GIVEN IN THE QUESTION AS IT APPLIES TO THE FOLLOWING SCENARIO. A corpsman assists a medical officer to perform incision and drainage of a furuncle on a patient’s leg. After the I&D procedure, the corpsman changes a postsurgical abdominal dressing on the same patient. A few days later, the surgical wound appears red and swollen and a culture reveals a significant staphylococcal infection. Mode of transmission. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
A. Corpsman’s hands
B. Patient C. Abdominal wound D. Furuncle TO ANSWER ITEMS 2-59 THROUGH 2-62, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE SITUATIONAL ELEMENT THAT MOST CLOSELY MATCHES THE CHAIN OF INFECTION LINK GIVEN IN THE QUESTION AS IT APPLIES TO THE FOLLOWING SCENARIO. A corpsman assists a medical officer to perform incision and drainage of a furuncle on a patient’s leg. After the I&D procedure, the corpsman changes a postsurgical abdominal dressing on the same patient. A few days later, the surgical wound appears red and swollen and a culture reveals a significant staphylococcal infection. Portal of entry. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
|
|
A. Corpsman’s hands
B. Patient C. Abdominal wound D. Furuncle TO ANSWER ITEMS 2-59 THROUGH 2-62, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE SITUATIONAL ELEMENT THAT MOST CLOSELY MATCHES THE CHAIN OF INFECTION LINK GIVEN IN THE QUESTION AS IT APPLIES TO THE FOLLOWING SCENARIO. A corpsman assists a medical officer to perform incision and drainage of a furuncle on a patient’s leg. After the I&D procedure, the corpsman changes a postsurgical abdominal dressing on the same patient. A few days later, the surgical wound appears red and swollen and a culture reveals a significant staphylococcal infection. Susceptible host. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
2. B
|
|
One essential practice of medical asepsis is
washing your hands before and after changing a patient’s dressing(s). 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Minimizing the spread of an infectious
disease can be accomplished by the use of isolation techniques that may include 1. limiting patient contact 2. establishing physical barriers 3. concurrent and terminal disinfection 4. all of the above |
4. all of the above
|
|
The sterilization method of choice for most
articles used in surgery is 1. dry heat 2. steam under pressure 3. ethylene oxide gas 4. soaking in glutaraldehyde |
2. steam under pressure
|
|
Which of the following is an important step
in using ethylene oxide gas for sterilization? 1. Providing protective masks to the operators 2. Providing an aeration period 3. Including surgical blades and sutures in the pack 4. Ensuring adequate steam pressure in the chamber |
2. Providing an aeration period
|
|
Sterilization of individual strands of suture
is acceptable for which of the types listed? 1. All absorbable suture material 2. All nonabsorbable suture material 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Stainless steel sutures only |
4. Stainless steel sutures only
|
|
Which of the following rubber products
may be resterilized after use? 1. Disposable surgeon’s gloves 2. Latex surgical drains 3. Surgical suction tubing 4. Disposable urinary catheters |
3. Surgical suction tubing
|
|
While adding items to a sterile field, you
think you may have dragged the corner of a wrapper across part of the field. What should your course of action be? 1. Do nothing. Wrappers are considered clean 2. Tell the scrub technician so he or she can avoid that part of the field 3. Say nothing and continue with what you are doing 4. Dismantle the field and set up a new field |
4. Dismantle the field and set up a new
field |
|
When setting up a minor surgery case, you
notice that the instrument pack is outdated, What should you do? 1. Unwrap and inspect the pack and if usable, resterilize 2. Resterilize the pack without unwrapping 3. Return it to the shelf and let someone else take care of it 4. Use the pack; only the outside is not sterile |
1. Unwrap and inspect the pack and if
usable, resterilize |
|
The surgical hand scrub is performed to
1. chemically sterilize the hands and forearms 2. remove all bacteria from the hands and forearms 3. reduce bacterial to a minimum on the hands and forearms 4. remove obvious dirt and grime from the hands and forearms |
3. reduce bacterial to a minimum on the
hands and forearms |
|
Transient and resident bacteria are easily
removed from the skin by the friction created during the surgical hand scrub. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
What is the preferred method of cleaning an
operating room floor between operations? 1. Sponge and disinfectant 2. Broom 3. Mop 4. Wet vacuum |
4. Wet vacuum
|
|
For effective sterilization of
microbiological infectious waste, the temperature of the sterilizing steam must be maintained at _____ for at least _____, at _____ per square inch of gauge pressure. 1. 121° F, 45 minutes, 15 pounds 2. 121° C, 90 minutes, 10 pounds 3. 250° F, 90 minutes, 15 pounds 4. 250° C, 45 minutes, 10 pounds |
3. 250° F, 90 minutes, 15 pounds
|
|
In first aid situations, the ability to
improvise is a highly desirable personal characteristic for a Corpsman. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
A typical ambulance emergency bag does
NOT contain which of the following items? 1. Toomey Syringe 2. Atropine 3. Airways 4. Trach Adaptor |
2. Atropine
|
|
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat D. Four-tailed IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH 3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE, MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST COMMONLY APPLIED. Axilla. 1. A 2. B 3. F 4. G |
3. F
|
|
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat D. Four-tailed Ear. 1. C 2. D 3. E 4. G IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH 3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE, MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST COMMONLY APPLIED. |
4. G
|
|
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat D. Four-tailed IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH 3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE, MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST COMMONLY APPLIED. Head. 1. F 2. D 3. B 4. A |
1. F
|
|
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat D. Four-tailed IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH 3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE, MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST COMMONLY APPLIED. Elbow. 1. A or B 2. C or F 3. E 4. G |
1. A or B
|
|
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat D. Four-tailed IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH 3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE, MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST COMMONLY APPLIED. Ankle. 1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A |
3. B
|
|
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat D. Four-tailed IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH 3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE, MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST COMMONLY APPLIED. Calf. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
|
|
A. Spica E. Barton
B. Figure-eight F. Triangular C. Spiral reverse G. Cravat D. Four-tailed IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-3 THROUGH 3-9, REFER TO THE LIST ABOVE, MATCHING THE TYPE OF BANDAGE WITH THE BODY PART TO WHICH IT IS MOST COMMONLY APPLIED. Chin. 1. C or A 2. D or E 3. F or G 4. G only |
2. D or E
|
|
The oxygen breathing apparatus (OBA) is
a valuable adjunct in rescue operations for what reason? 1. It can be connected directly to an external air source 2. It provides positive pressure ventilation for the wearer 3. It neutralizes or filters toxic gasses 4. It generates its own oxygen |
4. It generates its own oxygen
|
|
When, if ever, should an oxygen source be
connected to an air line mask? 1. When entering a carbon dioxide filled compartment or void 2. When entering a compartment or void with fuel oil vapors 3. After the couplings have been cleaned of all oil or grease 4. Never |
4. Never
|
|
The standard gas mask provides effective
protection against 1. carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide 2. low oxygen concentrations 3. both 1 and 2 above 4. chemical and biological warfare agents |
4. chemical and biological warfare
agents |
|
When using a lifeline to raise an
unconscious person from a compartment, the lifeline should be attached to the victim in what manner? 1. Around the waist and to the belt 2. Around the chest and under the arms 3. Around the hips and the wrists 4. Around the arms and the legs |
2. Around the chest and under the arms
|
|
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-14 AND 3-15,
REFER TO THE FOLLOWING SCENARIO. Several Sailors have just been reached. Two are unconscious, badly burned, and pinned under an empty wall locker. One is dead. 1. First and third phases/first stage 2. Second phase/third stage 3. Third phase/third stage 4. First and last phases/first stage DETERMINE THE PHASE OF RESCUE OPERATIONS, STAGE OF EXTRICATION, AND/OR RESCUE PROCEDURE INDICATED BY THE QUESTION. 3-14. Several Sailors have just been reached. Two are unconscious, badly burned, and pinned under an empty wall locker. One is dead. 1. First and third phases/first stage 2. Second phase/third stage 3. Third phase/third stage 4. First and last phases/first stage 3-15. A Sailor is injured and trapped under a fallen metal beam that is wedged tight by a buckled bulkhead. After unsuccessful efforts to move the beam, special cutting and lifting equipment is called for. 1. First phase 2. Second phase 3. Third phase 4. Last phase Scenario There has been a fire and explosion aboard ship and approximately 30 Sailors are trapped below deck. To get to the trapped Sailors, bulkheads are being breached and a large section of the damaged deck is being cut away. Firefighting teams are still fighting a large out of control fire near where you will be working. Passageway ventilation systems are working to remove dense, acrid smoke. Everyone is wearing OBA. Several steam lines have been ruptured and live electrical lines are sparking throughout the area. The DCO has determined that rescue attempts can be conducted. |
2. Second phase/third stage
|
|
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-14 AND 3-15,
REFER TO THE FOLLOWING SCENARIO. DETERMINE THE PHASE OF RESCUE OPERATIONS, STAGE OF EXTRICATION, AND/OR RESCUE PROCEDURE INDICATED BY THE QUESTION. 3-14. Several Sailors have just been reached. Two are unconscious, badly burned, and pinned under an empty wall locker. One is dead. 1. First and third phases/first stage 2. Second phase/third stage 3. Third phase/third stage 4. First and last phases/first stage 3-15. A Sailor is injured and trapped under a fallen metal beam that is wedged tight by a buckled bulkhead. After unsuccessful efforts to move the beam, special cutting and lifting equipment is called for. 1. First phase 2. Second phase 3. Third phase 4. Last phase Scenario There has been a fire and explosion aboard ship and approximately 30 Sailors are trapped below deck. To get to the trapped Sailors, bulkheads are being breached and a large section of the damaged deck is being cut away. Firefighting teams are still fighting a large out of control fire near where you will be working. Passageway ventilation systems are working to remove dense, acrid smoke. Everyone is wearing OBA. Several steam lines have been ruptured and live electrical lines are sparking throughout the area. The DCO has determined that rescue attempts can be conducted. A Sailor is injured and trapped under a fallen metal beam that is wedged tight by a buckled bulkhead. After unsuccessful efforts to move the beam, special cutting and lifting equipment is called for. 1. First phase 2. Second phase 3. Third phase 4. Last phase |
3. Third phase
|
|
Five burned Sailors walked out of a
smoldering compartment. You are administering first aid and transporting them to sickbay. 1. First and second stages 2. Second stage only 3. First and third stages 4. Second and final stage |
4. Second and final stages
|
|
A Sailor whose clothes are on fire runs
toward you. A small canvas tarp is nearby. Which of the following actions should you take? 1. Throw the victim to the deck and cover the victim head to foot with the tarp 2. Beat out the flames from the head downward to the feet 3. With the victim wrapped in the tarp, roll the victim over very quickly 4. With the victim standing, wrap the victim in the tarp and beat the flames out with your hands |
1. Throw the victim to the deck and
cover the victim head to foot with the tarp |
|
The ventilators suddenly shut down and
sparking has ceased. Rescuers are to enter a darkened compartment. The DCO is supervising the rescue effort. The rescuers should take which of the following precautions? 1. Check for oxygen, gasses, and explosive vapors 2. Wear a lifeline 3. Carry and wear only nonsparking equipment 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Which of the stretchers listed below is
considered most practical when lifting a casualty from an engine room? 1. Stokes stretcher 2. Army litter 3. Miller Board 4. Improvised blanket and line stretcher |
3. Miller Board
|
|
Which of the following pieces of rescue
equipment should be used to carry a person with a suspected back or neck injury? 1. Army litter 2. Spineboard 3. Either 1 or 2, depending on the circumstances 4. Improvised stretcher |
3. Either 1 or 2, depending on the
circumstances |
|
Probably the easiest way to carry an
unconscious person is called the 1. fireman’s carry 2. tied-hands crawl 3. blanket drag 4. chair carry |
1. fireman’s carry
|
|
The tied-hands crawl is the most useful
when the victim 1. is too heavy to lift 2. must be move long distances 3. is seriously injured 4. must be moved under low structures |
4. must be moved under low structures
|
|
What is the most distinct advantage of the
chair carry? 1. The ease of transporting heavy casualties 2. The ease of negotiating stairs 3. Its safety in transporting neck or back injuries 4. Its safety in transporting pelvic injuries |
2. The ease of negotiating stairs
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a factor the
Corpsman considers in deciding whether or not to recommend using a helicopter for evacuating patients? 1. The victim's overall condition 2. The tactical situation 3. The affect of pressure changes in flight 4. Cost |
4. Cost
|
|
The primary purposes of first aid include
all the following EXCEPT to 1. provide definitive medical treatment 2. preserve resistance and vitality 3. save life 4. prevent further injury |
1. provide definitive medical treatment
|
|
At what point should the preliminary
examination of a casualty be done? 1. In the hospital 2. In the ambulance 3. After making the victim comfortable 4. Before moving the casualty |
4. Before moving the casualty
|
|
In a combat scenario, a casualty sustaining
numerous superficial shrapnel wounds should be triaged into which of the following groups? 1. Class I 2. Class II 3. Class III 4. Class IV |
3. Class III
|
|
In a trauma related incident where a patient
has multiple injuries, you should treat which of the following first? 1. Fractures 2. Most obvious injury 3. Most lift-threatening condition 4. Most painful condition |
3. Most lift-threatening condition
|
|
For warfare in the future where helicopter
evacuation may not be viable, personnel in which of the following treatment categories will receive evacuation triage? 1. I and II 2. II and III 3. I and IV 4. III and IV |
2. II and III
|
|
What is the basic concept of triage?
1. To sort casualties into treatment categories for transportation 2. To prioritize treatment categories for surgery 3. To save the maximum number of personnel possible 4. To assist medical personnel in saving time and supplies |
3. To save the maximum number of
personnel possible |
|
What is the purpose of field assessments?
1. To detect and treat life threatening conditions for immediate care 2. To conduct a subjective interview and an objective examination 3. Both a and b, above 4. To identify needed equipment and supplies |
3. Both a and b, above
|
|
At an emergency scene, you should
immediately take which of the following actions? 1. Inform the person in charge that medical personnel have arrived 2. Ensure that someone begins triage, if needed 3. Review patient emergency assessment procedures 4. Make sure the scene is safe for self and patients |
4. Make sure the scene is safe for self
and patients |
|
Which of the following actions are a main
focus of conducting a primary survey? 1. Making a status decision and formulating priorities 2. Formulating a treatment plan and making a status decision 3. Formulating priorities and making a transport decision 4. Making a status decision and a transport decision |
1. Making a status decision and
formulating priorities |
|
At the emergency scene, you should delay
giving emergency care to life-threatening problems until you have conducted a thorough field assessment of the patient and the environment. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
At an emergency scene, which of the
following is a purpose for conducting a subjective interview? 1. To gather information from relatives or bystanders 2. To gather information from the patient 3. To reduce patient fear and promote cooperation 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
What pupillary sign is an indication of a
central nervous system disorder? 1. Unequal pupils 2. Dilated pupils 3. Constricted pupils 4. Dull and unfocused pupils |
2.Constricted pupils
|
|
On examination of the chest, you detect
distinct "crackling" sounds. What condition should you immediately suspect? 1. Flail chest 2. An obstruction 3. A punctured lung 4. An illness involving the respiratory system |
4. An illness involving the respiratory
system |
|
An absent pedal pulse could be caused by
all of the following conditions EXCEPT 1. a broken or dislocated bone 2. delayed capillary refill 3. spints or bandages being placed too tightly 4. a pinched or severed major artery |
2. delayed capillary refill
|
|
Evaluation of diagnostic vital signs
includes all of the following EXCEPT 1. blood pressure 2. rhythm/regularity of pulse 3. profuse perspiration 4. level of consciousness |
3. profuse perspiration
|
|
What term identifies the pressure of the
pulse wave as it expands the artery? 1. Pulse rhythm 2. Pulse character 3. Tachycardia 4. Pulse force |
4. Pulse force
|
|
What condition or observation may
indicate a patient is going into shock? 1. Systolic pressure below 90 mm Hg 2. Hypertension 3. Erratic breathing 4. A sudden rise in blood pressure |
1. Systolic pressure below 90 mm Hg
|
|
What is the universal distress signal
indicating an obstructed airway? 1. Spasmodic coughing 2. Clutching at the throat 3. Hyperventilation 4. Cherry-red coloration of the skin or nail beds |
2. Clutching at the throat
|
|
To open a partially obstructed airway of a
victim with a cervical spine injury, which of the following is considered the safest method? 1. Jaw thrust 2. Head tilt 3. Abdominal thrust 4. Chest thrust |
1. Jaw thrust
|
|
Symptoms of foreign-body airway
obstruction include which of the following? 1. Victim stops breathing 2. Victim starts turning blue 3. Victim loses consciousness for no apparent reason 4. All the above |
4. All the above
|
|
Artificial ventilation is indicated in which
of the following situations? 1. To assist ventilation in partial airway obstruction 2. In carbon monoxide poisoning 3. In lack of respiratory effort 4. In cyanosis |
4. In cyanosis
|
|
Dilated pupils in a patient receiving
artificial ventilation is an indication of 1. overventilation 2. adequate ventilation 3. insufficient ventilation 4. hypovolemia |
3. insufficient ventilation
|
|
Artificial ventilation of a patient with a
badly displaced mandibular fracture is best given 1. by mouth-to-mouth ventilation 2. by mouth-to-nose ventilation 3. with an oxygen mask 4. by the back-pressure arm-lift method |
2. by mouth-to-nose ventilation
|
|
The major problem you should anticipate
when relieving gastric distention is which of the following? 1. Reduced lung volume 2. Internal bleeding 3. Vomiting 4. Cardiac arrest |
3. Vomiting
|
|
When ventilating an adult using the mouthto-
mask method, how do you best obtain an airtight seal? 1. By fitting the apex of the mask over the bridge of the nose 2. By fitting the apex of the mask over the chin 3. By compressing the collar of an adult mask 4. By attaching an oxygen line |
1. By fitting the apex of the mask over
the bridge of the nose |
|
What is the first step in preparing to
perform CPR? 1. Check vital signs 2. Determine unconsciousness 3. Locate the sternum 4. Establish a patent airway |
2. Determine unconsciousness
|
|
The best place to find the pulse of an
unconscious patient is in which of the following arteries? 1. Pulmonary 2. Carotid 3. Apical 4. Radial |
2. Carotid
|
|
A fracture of the xiphoid tip of the sternum
during CPR may cause significant damage to the 1. rib cage 2. lungs 3. spleen 4. liver |
4. liver
|
|
In one-rescuer CPR, the proper
compression to ventilation ratio is 1. 30 to 2 2. 15 to 1 3. 1 to 5 4. 5 to 1 |
1. 30 to 2
|
|
When properly performing CPR on an
adult, the depth of compressions is 1. 0.5 to 1.0 inches 2. 1.0 to 1.5 inches 3. 1.5 to 2.0 inches 4. 1.5 to 2.5 inches |
3. 1.5 to 2.0 inches
|
|
Which of the following is a physiologic
result of shock? 1. Increased cardiac output 2. Hypoxia 3. Hyperperfusion of organs 4. Increased urine output |
2. Hypoxia
|
|
The signs and symptoms of shock include
1. hot and dry skin, dilated pupils, weak and rapid pulse 2. hot and dry skin, constricted pupils, strong and rapid pulse 3. cool and moist skin, dilated pupils, weak and rapid pulse 4. cool and moist skin, constricted pupils, strong and rapid pulse |
3. cool and moist skin, dilated pupils,
weak and rapid pulse |
|
Oligemic shock is another name for
1. cardiogenic shock 2. neurogenic shock 3. septic shock 4. hypovolemic shock |
4. hypovolemic shock
|
|
An oral electrolyte solution can be made
from a liter of water and what other components? 1. 1.0 teaspoon of sugar + 0.5 teaspoon of baking powder 2. 0.5 teaspoon sugar + 1.0 teaspoon baking powder 3. 1.0 teaspoon salt + 0.5 teaspoon baking soda 4. 0.5 teaspoon salt + 1.0 teaspoon baking soda |
3. 1.0 teaspoon salt + 0.5 teaspoon
baking soda |
|
Treatment for shock may include all of the
following EXCEPT 1. opening and maintaining an airway 2. oxygen therapy 3. intravenous fluid therapy 4. keeping the victim cool |
4. keeping the victim cool
|
|
Which of the following is a
contraindication for the use of Medical Anti-Shock Trousers (MAST)? 1. Pelvic fracture 2. Pulmonary edema 3. Fractured femur 4. Depressed skull fracture |
2. Pulmonary edema
|
|
When should Medical Anti-Shock
Trousers (MAST) be removed from a patient? 1. When blood pressure reaches 100 mm Hg systolic 2. When intravenous fluids are started 3. In a medical treatment facility under a medical officer’s supervision only 4. When the patient is in the ambulance and stabilized |
3. In a medical treatment facility under a
medical officer’s supervision only |
|
Which of the following is/are a
limitation(s) on the use of the bag-valve mask ventilator? 1. Should be used only by experienced individuals 2. Is hard to clean and reassemble 3. Seal at the face is hard to maintain 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Which of the following is/are an
advantage(s) of using the pocket face mask as opposed to the bag-valve mask? 1. Acts as a barrier device 2. Provides greater air volume 3. Achieves higher oxygen concentrations 4. 1 and 2 only |
4. 1 and 2 only
|
|
Cricothyroidotomy is the process or
technique of 1. hyperextending the neck 2. creating an opening to the trachea 3. suctioning the trachea 4. inserting an esophageal obturator airway |
2. creating an opening to the trachea
|
|
An avulsion injury is defined as a
1. traumatic removal of a limb 2. piercing injury that closes over 3. clean surgical cut 4. traumatic removal of tissue |
4. traumatic removal of tissue
|
|
In most situations, what is the best and first
method to control hemorrhage? 1. Direct pressure 2. Pressure point 3. Elevation 4. Tourniquet |
1. Direct pressure
|
|
The following information about pressure
points is correct EXCEPT 1. Pressure points are ideal when bleeding must be controlled for extended periods of time 2. Pressure is applied to the pressure point nearest to but proximal to the wound 3. Use of pressure point and elevation can slow hemorrhage until a tourniquet can be applied 4. Use of pressure point and elevation can slow hemorrhage until a direct pressure dressing can be applied |
1. Pressure points are ideal when
bleeding must be controlled for extended periods of time |
|
If one is applying a tourniquet to a
traumatic amputation of the hand, where should the tourniquet be applied? 1. Just above the wrist 2. Just below the elbow 3. Just above the elbow 4. Across the biceps at the thickest part |
1. Just above the wrist
|
|
When a tourniquet is used to control
bleeding, which of the following procedures should be followed? 1. Use narrow material so the band bites into the skin 2. Loosen the tourniquet every 15 minutes to allow blood flow 3. Tighten it only enough to stop arterial bleeding 4. Ensure both the wound and tourniquet are covered by the dressings |
3. Tighten it only enough to stop arterial
bleeding |
|
Production of bright red blood during
coughing is called 1. hematemesis 2. hemoptysis 3. hematochezia 4. epistaxis |
2. hemoptysis
|
|
In treating patients with suspected internal
injuries, prime consideration should be given to all of the following EXCEPT 1. oral fluids in all cases 2. treating for shock 3. supplemental oxygen therapy 4. transporting to a medical facility as soon as possible |
1. oral fluids in all cases
|
|
To grow and multiply, anaerobic bacteria
require 1. hemolytic action 2. increased levels of oxygen 3. normal levels of oxygen 4. absence of oxygen |
4. absence of oxygen
|
|
The body’s physiologic response to an
irritation or inflammation is characterized by which, if any, of the following symptoms? 1. Redness, warmth, and swelling 2. Redness, coolness, and discomfort 3. Blanching, coolness, and swelling 4. None of the above |
1. Redness, warmth, and swelling
|
|
A single pus-filled cavity in the true skin
of the nape of the neck would be classified as a 1. carbuncle 2. furuncle 3. lymph node 4. phagocyte |
2. furuncle
|
|
Which of the following is proper action to
take if a metal splinter is embedded in the left eye? 1. Remove the foreign body with sterile forceps 2. Remove the foreign body with a dry cotton swab 3. Patch the left eye and transport to a medical treatment facility 4. Patch both eyes and transport to a medical treatment facility |
4. Patch both eyes and transport to a
medical treatment facility |
|
Appropriate treatment for a sucking chest
wound includes all of the following EXCEPT 1. giving oral fluids 2. administering oxygen therapy 3. treating for shock 4. placing the victim on the injured side |
1. giving oral fluids
|
|
Of the following, which is an appropriate
treatment for a protruding abdominal wound? 1. Giving oral fluids 2. Replacing the intestines in the abdominal cavity 3. Applying a dry compress 4. Treating for shock |
4. Treating for shock
|
|
Which of the following statements is true
about the viral disease known as rabies? 1. It is found only in household pets 2. It is usually fatal in man 3. It is treatable with standard antibiotics 4. It is transmittable only through animal bites |
2. It is usually fatal in man
|
|
What procedure should be followed with
respect to an animal bite? 1. Cauterize to prevent infection 2. Close with nylon sutures 3. Clean with standard antiseptics 4. Clean with soap and water |
4. Clean with soap and water
|
|
Immediate suturing of a wound is
contraindicated if the wound has which of the following characteristics? 1. It is a puncture wound 2. There is edema and/or discharge 3. It is a deep or gaping wound 4. Any of the above |
4. Any of the above
|
|
An alternate name for an absorbable suture
material is 1. dermalon 2. gut 3. sick 4. nylon |
2. gut
|
|
In administering anesthesia, the preferred
method is to inject the agent directly into a vein or artery located within 1/2 inch of a wound. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
Which of the following is/are a
recommended step(s) in performing a delayed wound closure? 1. Use dressing forceps while suturing 2. Convert jagged edges to smooth before suturing 3 For best cosmetic effect, place sutures further apart 4. 1 and 3 only |
2. Convert jagged edges to smooth before
suturing |
|
Of the following statements concerning the
appropriate length for a splint, which is accurate? 1. A splint should be long enough to reach from the fracture to the joint below the fracture 2. A splint should be long enough to reach from the fracture to the joint above and below the fracture 3. A splint should be long enough to reach past the joints above and below the fracture 4. The length of a splint is immaterial |
3. A splint should be long enough to
reach past the joints above and below the fracture |
|
After applying a splint to a fractured
forearm, you notice the fingers develop a bluish tinge and are cool to touch. What should you do? 1. Elevate the arm 2. Apply warm compresses 3. Loosen the splint 4. Remove the splint |
3. Loosen the splint
|
|
What is the primary reason for splinting
fractures? 1. To prevent further injury 2. To control hemorrhage 3. To reduce swelling 4. To increase blood circulation |
1. To prevent further injury
|
|
To fit well and provide adequate
immobilization, a splint must have which of the attributes listed? 1. Be well padded at body contact areas 2. Be twice as wide as the injured limb 3. Be strong, rigid, and applied tightly 4. Be applied by two people |
1. Be well padded at body contact areas
|
|
The proper first aid treatment for a fracture
of the humerus near the shoulder is to 1. apply a splint to the outside and one to the inside of the upper arm, bandage the arm to the body and support the forearm in a sling 2. apply a splint to the outside of the arm, bandage the arm to the body, and support the forearm in a sling 3. place a pad or folded towel in the armpit, bandage the arm to the body, and support the forearm in a sling 4. splint the arm in the position you find it and bandage the arm securely to the body |
2. apply a splint to the outside of the arm,
bandage the arm to the body, and support the forearm in a sling |
|
When applying a splint to immobilize a
fractured patella, where should you place extra padding? 1. Around the knee and under the buttocks 2. Under the knee and above the heel 3. Under the knee and under the thigh 4. Around the knee and under the calf |
2. Under the knee and above the heel
|
|
What is the most important consideration in
treating a mandibular fracture? 1. Immediate immobilization 2. Ensuring a patent airway 3. Realignment of the jaw 4. Control of pain |
2. Ensuring a patent airway
|
|
Of the following actions, which is of prime
importance when dealing with a head injury? 1. Determine if the skull is fractured 2. Assume cervical spine damage 3. Administer pain medication 4. Remove impaled objects |
2. Assume cervical spine damage
|
|
How should a suspected spinal fracture
victim be transported? 1. Ensure immobilization on a rigid backboard 2. Place a pillow or adequate padding under the neck 3. Transport in the shock position 4. Do all of the above |
1. Ensure immobilization on a rigid
backboard |
|
Deformity at a joint, coupled with pain,
discoloration, and immobility of and around the joint, is characteristic of which of the following disorders? 1. Dislocation 2. Simple fracture 3. Compound fracture 4. Displaced fracture |
1. Dislocation
|
|
Of those listed below, which joints are the
most frequently dislocated? 1. Sternal ribs, finger, and jaw 2. Knee, hip, and elbow 3. Knee, hip, shoulder, and jaw 4. hip, shoulder, fingers and jaw |
4. hip, shoulder, fingers and jaw
|
|
To reduce a dislocated jaw, you should do
which of the following? 1. Pull the chin forward and down 2. Have a victim open his or her mouth several times to affect reduction 3. Grasp behind the front teeth and pull forward 4. Press down behind the last molars and lift the chin |
4. Press down behind the last molars and
lift the chin |
|
In general, sprains and strains are injuries
to 1. joints and muscles 2. nerves and blood vessels 3. bones and blood vessels 4. bones and nerves |
1. joints and muscles
|
|
A. 18%
B. 27% C. 31.5% D. 36% A steam burn to the face, chest, abdomen, and both arms. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 4-23 THROUGH 4-25, USE THE “RULE OF NINES” AND FIGURE 4-48 IN THE TEXT TO DETERMINE THE EXTENT OF INJURY BY BODY SURFACE AREA, AND SELECT THE MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER FROM THE LIST ABOVE BASED ON THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. |
4. D
|
|
A. 18%
B. 27% C. 31.5% D. 36% IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 4-23 THROUGH 4-25, USE THE “RULE OF NINES” AND FIGURE 4-48 IN THE TEXT TO DETERMINE THE EXTENT OF INJURY BY BODY SURFACE AREA, AND SELECT THE MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER FROM THE LIST ABOVE BASED ON THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. A sunburn to the back of both legs, both arms, and the back. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D A. 18% B. 27% C. 31.5% D. 36% |
4. D
|
|
A. 18%
B. 27% C. 31.5% D. 36% IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 4-23 THROUGH 4-25, USE THE “RULE OF NINES” AND FIGURE 4-48 IN THE TEXT TO DETERMINE THE EXTENT OF INJURY BY BODY SURFACE AREA, AND SELECT THE MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER FROM THE LIST ABOVE BASED ON THE INFORMATION GIVEN IN THE QUESTION. A thermal burn to the left arm and front of the left leg. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
First-aid treatment for extensive second
degree burns should include which of the following treatments? 1. Anesthetic ointments and transport only 2. Debridement of the wound and dry dressings 3. Intravenous infusion and analgesia 4. Anesthetic ointments and analgesia |
3. Intravenous infusion and analgesia
|
|
Morphine is an acceptable analgesic in
patients with which of the following symptoms? 1. Head injuries 2. Profound respiratory distress 3. Advanced shock 4. Painful skin burns |
4. Painful skin burns
|
|
The usual treatment for chemical burns is to
flush with copious amounts of water. The two exceptions to this rule are in the case of which of the following chemicals? 1. Phosphoric acid and lye 2. White phosphorus and carbolic acid 3. Dry lime and carbolic acid 4. Sulfuric acid and carbolic acid |
3. Dry lime and carbolic acid
|
|
A dilute solution of which of the listed
substances will neutralize alkali burns to the skin? 1. Alcohol 2. Phenol 3. Vinegar 4. Baking soda |
3. Vinegar
|
|
First aid treatment of white phosphorus
burns with partially embedded particles includes 1. wet dressings of copper sulfate 2. superficial debridement while flushing with water 3. neutralization with a dilute vinegar solution 4. neutralization with a dilute solution of baking soda |
1. wet dressings of copper sulfate
|
|
Signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion
include a weak rapid pulse, nausea, headache, and 1. constricted pupils 2. greatly increased body temperature 3. cool, moist, and clammy skin 4. flushed, red face |
3. cool, moist, and clammy skin
|
|
The incidence of heat exposure injuries can
be minimized by all of the following EXCEPT 1. education of personnel 2. environmental monitoring 3. daily salt tablets 4. maintenance of exhaust blowers and vents |
3. daily salt tablets
|
|
What is the most effective method of
rewarming a victim of hypothermia? 1. “Buddy warming” 2. Covering the victim with blankets or a sleeping bag 3. Hot water bottles at the neck, armpits, groin, and the chest 4. Immersion in a tub of warm water |
4. Immersion in a tub of warm water
|
|
An antiseptic emollient cream should be
applied to which, if any, of the following cold injuries? 1. Chilblain 2. Immersion foot 3. All frostbites 4. None of the above. Cold injuries should be kept dry |
4. None of the above. Cold injuries
should be kept dry |
|
For which, if any, of the following reasons
should a frostbite injury remain frozen? 1. To minimize the severity of pain 2. Where there is a possibility of refreezing 3. To prevent shock 4. Never. Frostbite should always be rewarmed as quickly as possible |
2. Where there is a possibility of
refreezing |
|
Which of the following is/are a
recommended step(s) in treating deep frostbite? 1. Slowly rewarm frozen areas 2. Break blisters to speed healing 3. Gently rub injured areas to promote blood circulation 4. Comfort victim with hot tea or coffee |
1. Slowly rewarm frozen areas
|
|
Reversal of a syncopal episode can often be
accomplished by what action? 1. Sitting with the head between the knees 2. Sitting upright 3. Lying down with the head and shoulders slightly elevated 4. Lying down in the reverse shock position |
1. Sitting with the head between the
knees |
|
Which of the following methods is the
quickest and easiest way of determining if an unconscious person is a diabetic? 1. Check for signs of ketoacidosis 2. Determine blood sugar levels 3. Look for signs of insulin use 4. Search for a Medic Alert tag, bracelet, or card |
4. Search for a Medic Alert tag, bracelet,
or card |
|
Of the following actions, which is the
immediate treatment for insulin shock? 1. Administer an injection of insulin 2. Place sugar under the victim’s tongue 3. Start an intravenous solution of normal saline 4. Administer oxygen |
2. Place sugar under the victim’s tongue
|
|
In addition to monitoring vital signs and
making the patient comfortable, treatment for a stroke includes which of the following procedures? 1. Administering analgesics to relieve pain 2. Giving oxygen therapy 3. Giving a rapid infusion of a 5 percent dextrose solution 4. Giving a 0.3cc injection of epinephrine for vasoconstriction |
2. Giving oxygen therapy
|
|
Initial first aid treatment for an attack of
angina pectoris includes reassurance, monitoring of vital signs, and 1. initiating CPR 2. giving sublingual nitroglycerin 3. advise the patient to return to duty when pain abates 4. giving a 0.3cc of epinephrine IM to increase heart rate |
2. giving sublingual nitroglycerin
|
|
First aid treatment for acute myocardial
infarction without cardiac arrest includes all of the following EXCEPT 1. giving oxygen therapy 2. monitoring vital signs 3. starting an intravenous infusion of only normal saline 4. transporting to a medical treatment facility |
2. monitoring vital signs
|
|
Proper first aid treatment for a patient
suffering a convulsive seizure episode consists of which of the following procedures? 1. Protecting the victim from injury 2. Immediately starting CPR 3. Muscle massage during periods of rigidity 4. Injecting 75 to 100 mg of Demerol IM to effect relaxation |
1. Protecting the victim from injury
|
|
The most common psychiatric emergency
is probably the suicide gesture or attempt. Basic treatment consists of all of the following EXCEPT 1. presenting a calm and understanding presence 2. leaving the victim alone to reflect on his or her actions 3. assuming all suicide threats are real 4. treating self-inflicted wounds as any other wound |
2. leaving the victim alone to reflect on
his or her actions |
|
When, during childbirth, the baby’s head
presents, why should you apply gentle pressure to the head? 1. To prevent an explosive delivery 2. To avoid compressing the umbilical cord 3. To compress the cord to stimulate the infant’s vital function 4. To allow you time to suction the mouth and nose of the infant |
1. To prevent an explosive delivery
|
|
When should the infant’s mouth and nose
be suctioned? 1. If spontaneous respirations do not occur 2. When the chin clears the vaginal canal 3. After the child has completely emerged 4. After clamping and cutting the umbilical cord |
2. When the chin clears the vaginal canal
|
|
Emergency first aid treatment for a
prolapsed cord during childbirth includes all of the following EXCEPT 1. decompressing the cord as much as possible 2. giving oxygen therapy 3. placing the mother in the shock position 4. clamping and cutting the umbilical cord when it presents |
1. decompressing the cord as much as
possible |
|
If a prolapsed cord occurs, which of the
following actions should you take? 1. Give the mother oxygen 2. Place the mother in an extreme shock position 3. Get medical assistance 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Poisoning is defined as contact with or
exposure to a toxic substance. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
A patient presents with dilated pupils,
fever, dry skin, urinary retention, decreased bowel sounds, and increased heart rate. What toxidrome does this set of symptoms suggest? 1. Narcotic 2. Anticholinergic 3. Withdrawal 4. Non-syndrome syndrome |
2. Anticholinergic
|
|
Which of the following is the method of
choice for a Corpsman to use to induce vomiting? 1. 15-30 cc of syrup of Ipecac 2. 2 teaspoonfuls of dry mustard in water 3. 2 teaspoonfuls of an active charcoal slurry 4. To tickle the back of the victim’s throat |
1. 15-30 cc of syrup of Ipecac
|
|
Of the following, which is the most likely
area of damage in a victim who has ingested a strong alkali? 1. Stomach 2. Esophagus 3. Liver 4. Colon |
2. Esophagus
|
|
Treatment of a victim who ingested a
strong acid includes intravenous infusion therapy and 1. inducing vomiting 2. diluting the stomach contents with water 3. neutralizing the stomach contents with a weak sodium bicarbonate solution 4. gastric lavage |
2. diluting the stomach contents with
water |
|
Which of the following substances, upon
ingestion, poses a threat of chemical or aspiration pneumonia? 1. Acid compounds 2. Alkali compounds 3. Petroleum distillates 4. Any of the above |
4. Any of the above
|
|
If you are unable to reach the poison
control center or a physician for specific instructions, how should you treat a victim who has ingested turpentine? 1. Induce vomiting and observe 2. Give 1 to 2 ounces of vegetable oil orally 3. Neutralize the poison with vinegar and water 4. Give 1 to 2 tablespoonfuls of milk of magnesia |
2. Give 1 to 2 ounces of vegetable oil
orally |
|
Of the following, which, if any, is
considered the most common agent in inhalation poisoning? 1. Carbon dioxide 2. Carbon monoxide 3. Freon 4. None of the above |
2. Carbon monoxide
|
|
Treatment for an inhalation poisoning
victim includes all of the following EXCEPT 1. removal from the contaminated atmosphere 2. administration of oxygen 3. administration of stimulants 4. treatment for shock |
3. administration of stimulants
|
|
A patient presents exhibiting signs of
anaphylactic reaction to a bee or wasp sting. Of the following, which is NOT considered appropriate treatment? 1. Removal of patient’s jewelry 2. Subcutaneous injection of epinephrine 3. Warm packs over the sting site 4. Removal of the stinger by scraping with a dull knife |
3. Warm packs over the sting site
|
|
The victim of a scorpion sting may safely
be given any of the following pharmaceuticals EXCEPT 1. Demerol or morphine 2. Calcium gluconate 3. Valium 4. All the above are acceptable |
1. Demerol or morphine
|
|
Excision and corticosterod therapy is early
treatment for the bite of which of the following? 1. Scorpions 2. Black widow spiders 3. Brown recluse spiders 4. Snakes |
3. Brown recluse spiders
|
|
What is the key identifying feature of the
coral snake that distinguishes it from other snakes with similar markings? 1. The yellow band is always next to the red band 2. The red band is always next to the black band 3. It has a distinctive bite pattern 4. It has deep pits below the eyes |
1. The yellow band is always next to the
red band |
|
On patrol, a member of your unit receives a
rattlesnake bite just below the elbow. What first aid treatment should you perform? 1. Place a tourniquet 1 inch proximal to the bite site 2. Place a constricting band 2 inches proximal to the bite site 3. Place a constricting band 2 inches distal to the bite site below the elbow 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
2. Place a constricting band 2 inches
proximal to the bite site |
|
Jellyfish nematocysts can be neutralized
with which of the following substances? 1. Formalin 2. Dilute ammonia 3. Vinegar 4. Any of the above |
3. Vinegar
|
|
The most widely abused drug(s) is/are
1. ethanol 2. opiates 3. barbiturates 4. amphetamines |
1. ethanol
|
|
Signs and symptoms of stimulant
intoxication include all of the following EXCEPT 1. hyperactivity 2. increased appetite 3. dilated pupils 4. increased body temperature |
2. increased appetite
|
|
Marijuana falls into which of the following
categories of drugs? 1. Barbiturate 2. Physically addicting 3. Hallucinogen 4. Harmless |
3. Hallucinogen
|
|
Persons who regularly abuse inhalants risk
which of the following injuries? 1. Severe brain damage 2. Damaged internal organs 3. Death 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
In caring for drug-intoxicated persons, the
Corpsman should perform what actions as his/her first priority? 1. Check for an adequate airway 2. Keep the victim awake 3. Induce vomiting if the victim is awake 4. Transport to a medical facility |
1. Check for an adequate airway
|
|
Level Health Hazard
0 Little or none 1 and 2 Slight 3 Extreme 4 Deadly IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 4-72 AND 4-73, REFER TO THE TABLE ABOVE. MATCH THE TOXICITY LEVEL WITH THE PROTECTION LEVEL REQUIRED, AS DESCRIBED IN THE QUESTION. Full body protection and sealed equipment. 1. 0 2. 1 and 2 3. 3 and 4 4. 4 only |
3. 3 and 4
|
|
The Corpsman should give special attention
to which of the following requirements while working in the command sub-zone? 1. Work in low geographic areas to avoid toxic fumes 2. Decontaminate victims and equipment outside of the hazard zone 3. Stay upwind and upgrade of the incident site 4. Collect a sample of the hazardous material for later examination |
3. Stay upwind and upgrade of the
incident site |
|
What patient decontamination procedure is
the most frequently used? 1. Absorption 2. Chemical wash 3. Dilution 4. Disposal and isolation |
3. Dilution
|
|
The actual title of the “blue bible” of
pharmacology is 1. the Physicians’ Desk Reference 2. The United States Pharmacopoeia and National Formulary (USP-NF) 3. the Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics 4. Remington’s Pharmaceutical Sciences |
3. the Pharmacological Basis of
Therapeutics |
|
The most common factor influencing the
amount of drug given to a patient is 1. weight 2. gender 3. age 4. route of administration |
1. weight
|
|
What would be the proper dose in
milliliters of ampicillin for an 8-year old child if the adult dose is 15 ml? 1. 2 2. 6 3. 9 4. 15 |
3. 9
|
|
What is the name of the rule used to
determine appropriate dosage of medication based on a child’s weight? 1. Young’s Rule 2. Clark’s Rule 3. Rule of Nines 4. Minimum Rule |
2. Clark’s Rule
|
|
Determine the appropriate dose in
milligrams of medication for a child weighing 30 pounds if the average dose for an adult dose is 600 mg. 1. 50 2. 100 3. 120 4. 150 |
3. 120
|
|
In computing the amount of drug to be
given to an underweight female, what adjustments to the normal dosage would ordinarily be made? 1. Increase the dosage because of her weight and further increase because of her sex 2. Increase of dosage because of her weight but decrease because of her sex 3. Decrease of dosage because of her sex and further decrease because of her weight 4. Decrease of dosage because of her sex but an increase because of her weight |
3. Decrease of dosage because of her sex
and further decrease because of her weight |
|
A drug given repeatedly to a patient often
has to be increased in dosage to maintain the desired effect. The need for a larger dose is probably caused by 1. an acquired tolerance from habitual use 2. an abnormal sensitivity 3. a cumulative effect from habitual use 4. an individual idiosyncrasy |
1. an acquired tolerance from habitual
use |
|
The most common method of administering
medications is 1. orally 2. parentally 3. topically 4. intravenously |
1. orally
|
|
Which of the following is an example of a
drug injected intradermally? 1. Insulin 2. Procaine hydrocloride 3. Purified protein derivative 4. 2 or 3 above |
3. Purified protein derivative
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a way in
which drugs are grouped? 1. By chemical characteristics 2. By their brand names 3. By their source 4. By their action on the body |
2. By their brand names
|
|
Which of the following is a characteristic
side effect of antihistamines? 1. Nausea 2. Drowsiness 3. Uricaria 4. Tinnitis |
2. Drowsiness
|
|
Agents that inhibit the growth of
microorganisms without necessarily killing them are known as 1. germicides 2. fungicides 3. antiseptics 4. astringents |
2. fungicides
|
|
The drug group most often used to treat
dyspepsia is 1. emollients 2. astringents 3. antacids 4. adsorbents |
3. antacids
|
|
Patients sensitive to penicillin may also
exhibit sensitivity to cephalosporins. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Milk or milk products may interfere with
the absorption of which of the following drugs? 1. Cephalexin (Keflex) 2. Tetracycline hydrochloride 3. Streptomycin sulfate 4. Erthromycin |
2. Tetracycline hydrochloride
|
|
Macrolides are effective against which of
the following organisms? 1. Gram-positive cocci 2. Dermatophytes 3. Parasites 4. Gram-negative |
1. Gram-positive cocci
|
|
Supplemental potassium may be required
with which of the following categories of drugs? 1. Anti-inflammatories 2. Antidiahrreals 3. Antipyretics 4. Diuretics |
4. Diuretics
|
|
The two most important opium alkaloids
are morphine and 1. paraldehyde 2. codeine 3. meperidine 4. cocaine |
2. codeine
|
|
Water-soluable vitamins are not excreted in
the urine and are stored in the body in moderate amounts. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
As used in the Navy, what is the primary
purpose of biological agents? 1. Diagnosis 2. Resuscitation 3. Immunization 4. Pest control |
3. Immunization
|
|
Which of the following organizations is
responsible for the licensing of biological agents? 1. Secretary of the Navy 2. Public Health Service 3. American Medical Association 4. Secretary of the Treasury |
4. Secretary of the Treasury
|
|
With which of the following is the yellow
fever vaccine reconstituted? 1. Sterile water, USP 2. Triple distilled water, USP 3. Sterile, 5% dextrose in water, USP 4. Sterile sodium chloride injection, USP |
4. Sterile sodium chloride injection, USP
|
|
Which of the following vaccines should not
be administered to individuals who are sensitive to egg products? 1. Smallpox 2. Plague 3. Influenza 4. Anthrax |
3. Influenza
|
|
A poison that is introduced into the body in
one location and affects the body in another location is displaying what effect? 1. Local 2. Remote 3. Cumulative 4. Inhibiting |
2. Remote
|
|
The correct abbreviations for the metric
system of primary units of measure for weight, volume, and linear dimensions are 1. gr, 1, cm 2. gr, ml, m 3. g, 1, m 4. g, l, cm |
3. g, 1, m
|
|
Which of the following is equal to one onehundredth
of a liter? 1. Dekaliter 2. Deciliter 3. Centiliter 4. Milliliter |
3. Centiliter
|
|
The basic unit of weight in the apothecary
system is the 1. gram 2. grain 3. dram 4. milliliter |
2. grain
|
|
Of the following types of pharmaceutical
preparations, which incorporates finely powdered medicinal substances into a fatty base? 1. Lotion 2. Suspension 3. Ointment 4. Elixir |
3. Ointment
|
|
All pharmacies that dispense medications
are required to have what Class balance? 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
What drug incompatibility occurs when
agents antagonistic to one another are prescribed together? 1. Therapeutic 2. Physical 3. Chemical 4. 1 and 3 above |
1. Therapeutic
|
|
Eutexia is an example of what type of drug
incompatibility manifestation? 1. Chemical 2. Physical 3. Therapeutic 4. 2 and 3 above |
2. Physical
|
|
A properly administered drug dosage that
has an unintended and noxious effect on the patient is the definition of which of the following terms? 1. Contraindication 2. Drug interaction 3. Adverse reaction 4. Therapeutic incompatibility |
3. Adverse reaction
|
|
In the prescription block of DD 1289, what
part lists the names and quantities of the ingredients prescribed? 1. Superscription 2. Inscription 3. Subscription 4. Signa |
2. Inscription
|
|
If, in the course of filling a prescription,
you feel that there may be a discrepancy or incompatibility, you should take which of the following actions? 1. Let the patient know that you discovered an error and will be checking with the prescriber before filling the prescription 2. Consult the prescriber to verify the prescription 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Fill the prescription as written |
2. Consult the prescriber to verify the
prescription |
|
Which of the following is a schedule III
drug? 1. Marijuana 2. An antitussive 3. Amphetamines 4. Nonbarbiturate sedative |
4. Nonbarbiturate sedative
|
|
What schedule of drug can never be
ordered with refills? 1. II 2. III 3. IV 4. V |
1. II
|
|
Which of the following is a
bronchomucotropic agent? 1. Petrolatum 2. Guaifenesin 3. Benzoate 4. Phenol |
2. Guaifenesin
|
|
Aluminum acetate, an astringent, is often
used to treat which of the following conditions listed below? 1. Athlete’s foot 2. External otitis 3. Poison ivy 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
In conjunction with antacids, which of the
following is used to treat duodenal ulcers? 1. Dimenhydrinate 2. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride 3. Ranitidine 4. Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride |
3. Ranitidine
|
|
Which of the following drugs is
administered to control motion sickness? 1. Cimetidine 2. Meclizine hydrochloride 3. Chlorpheniramine maleate 4. Dephenhydramine hydrochloride |
2. Meclizine hydrochloride
|
|
In addition to being an antacid, magnesium
hydroxide may be used as a/an 1. emollient 2. laxative 3. demulcent 4. astringent |
2. laxative
|
|
Which of the following is an ideal
emollient to protect sensitive skin from the sun? 1. Theobroma oil 2. Lanolin 3. Zinc oxide ointment 4. Aluminum acetate |
3. Zinc oxide ointment
|
|
The standard by which all other antiseptics
are measured is 1. betadine 2. phenol 3. isopropyl alcohol 4. hexachlorophene |
2. phenol
|
|
An accidential spill of phenol can be
neutralized by 1. water 2. silver nitrate 3. hydrogen peroxide 4. alcohol |
4. alcohol
|
|
The primary pharmacological action of
sulfonimides is 1. viricidal 2. parasiticidal 3. bacteriostatic 4. fungistatic |
3. bacteriostatic
|
|
The most common use for systemic
sulfonamides is in the treatment of which of the conditions listed below? 1. Respiratory infections 2. Urinary tract infections 3. Viral infections 4. Furunculosis |
2. Urinary tract infections
|
|
Silver sulfadiazine is used almost
exclusively in the treatment of 1. surgical wound sepsis 2. burns 3. prostatitis 4. furunculosis |
2. burns
|
|
Which of the following is for parenteral
administration only? 1. Dicloxicillin 2. Ampicillin 3. Penicillin V 4. Penicillin G |
4. Penicillin G
|
|
The drug of choice for uncomplicated
group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis is 1. Penicillin V potassium 2. Nafcillin 3. Ampicillin 4. Dicloxicillin |
1. Penicillin V potassium
|
|
Severe colitis and diarrhea may be adverse
side effects of which of the following? 1. Neomycin sulfate 2. Gentamicin sulfate 3. Penicillin G benzathene 4. Clindamycin hydrochloride |
4. Clindamycin hydrochloride
|
|
Which of the following is an appropriate
substitute for penicillin when penicillin is contraindicated? 1. Doxycycline 2. Cephalexin 3. Erythromycin 4. Streptomycin |
3. Erythromycin
|
|
Of the following drugs, which was
developed with the sole purpose being the treatment of gonorrhea? 1. Penicillin G benzathene 2. Nitrofurantoin 3. Spectinomycin hydrochloride 4. Doxycycline hyclate |
3. Spectinomycin hydrochloride
|
|
Undeclyenic acid is used as a/an
1. disinfectant 2. antipyretic 3. analgesic 4. fungicide |
4. fungicide
|
|
In addition to the treatment of Phthirus,
which of the following is effective in the treatment of scabies? 1. Nystatin 2. Miconazole nitrate 3. Permethrin 4. Metronidazole |
3. Permethrin
|
|
Trichomonas vaginalis can be treated with
1. crotamiton 2. metronidazole 3. fansidar 4. mebendazole |
2. metronidazole
|
|
Drugs that destroy parasitic worms are
known as 1. ambecides 2. vermicides 3. germicides 4. bactericides |
1. ambecides
|
|
The drug of choice for the treatment and
management of grand mal seizures is 1. methylphenidate hydrochloride 2. phenobarbital 3. phenytoin sodium 4. any psychotropic agent |
3. phenytoin sodium
|
|
Prochlorperizine is used mainly to
1. treat symptoms of nausea and vomiting 2. alleviate symptoms of tension, agitation, and psychosis 3. counteract the effects of alcohol withdrawal 4. relieve respiratory distress |
1. treat symptoms of nausea and vomiting
|
|
Muscle relaxants include all of the
following EXCEPT 1. methocarbamol 2. diazepam 3. cyclobenzaprine hydrochloride 4. temazepam |
4. temazepam
|
|
Digitoxin increases the force of cardiac
contraction by acting on the 1. vagus nerve 2. valves of the heart 3. heart muscle 4. blood vessels |
3. heart muscle
|
|
Of the following, which is an appropriate
drug to administer to a patient suffering an asthma attack? 1. Amyl nitrite 2. Epinephrine 3. Phenylephrine hydrochloride 4. Atropine |
2. Epinephrine
|
|
The vitamin deficiency associated with
night blindness is 1. vitamin A 2. vitamin B6 3. vitamin Bl2 4. vitamin K |
1. vitamin A
|
|
A deficiency of which of the following
could lead to inflammation, cracking of the lips, or vision problems? 1. Retinol 2. Thiamine 3. Riboflavin 4. Ascorbic acid |
3. Riboflavin
|
|
Which of the following is the vitamin
involved in absorption and use of calcium and phosphorus? 1. Vitamin A 2. Vitamin B1 3. Vitamin C 4. Vitamin D |
4. Vitamin D
|
|
The agent used to treat pernicious anemia is
1. cyanocobalamin 2. ascorbic acid 3. vitamin D 4. vitamin K |
1. cyanocobalamin (AKA Vitamin B12)
|
|
The general anesthesia agent most
commonly used in dentistry is 1. halothane 2. nitrous oxide 3. lidocaine hydrochloride 4. procaine hydrochloride |
2. nitrous oxide
|
|
On what area of the body is proparacaine
hydrochloride most widely used as a topical anesthetic? 1. Nose 2. Ears 3. Eyes 4. Throat |
3. Eyes
|
|
Which of the following, if any, is
considered the most appropriate source for blood specimens obtained for clinical examination? 1. By venipuncture 2. By finger puncture 3. From an artery 4. None of the above |
1. By venipuncture
|
|
Using the steps below, determine the
correct sequence for obtaining blood by finger puncture. a. Clean finger b. Lance finger c. Milk finger d. Collect specimen e. Wipe away first drop |
1. a, b, c, e, d
|
|
When performing a finger puncture, the
first drop should be wiped away to avoid which of the following conditions? 1. Bacterial contamination 2. Clotting at the puncture site 3. Dilution of the specimen with alcohol 4. Dilution of the specimen with tissue fluids |
4. Dilution of the specimen with tissue
fluids |
|
How would a 5 ml blood specimen be
obtained from a patient with an intravenous antibiotic being given through the left arm and blood being received through the right arm? 1. Multiple finger punctures 2. Left arm 3. Right arm 4. Hand or foot |
4. Hand or foot
|
|
A tourniquet applied to the arm during
venipuncture should provide enough tension to compress the artery, but not the vein. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
The correct needle position for
venipuncture is (a) what degree angle and (b) with the bevel in what position? 1. (a) 15, (b) up 2. (a) 30, (b) up 3. (a) 15, (b) down 4. (a) 30, (b) down |
1. (a) 15, (b) up
|
|
A tourniquet is normally applied before and
to aid in the process of venipuncture. At what point in the venipuncture procedure should you remove the tourniquet? 1. Just before needle insertion 2. Just after needle insertion, but before vacutainer 3. Once all specimens have been collected 4. After needle removal |
2. Just after needle insertion, but before
vacutainer |
|
The part of the microscope on which the
prepared specimen is placed for examination is called the 1. arm 2. base 3. frame 4. stage |
4. stage
|
|
All of the following are components of the
microscope’s illumination system EXCEPT 1. internal light source 2. condenser 3. external light source 4. iris diaphragm |
3. external light source
|
|
The total magnification available by using
the lens color coded red is 1. 1000X 2. 450X 3. 100X 4. 10X |
1. 1000X
|
|
Light travels from the objective to the
ocular lens through what component of the microscope? 1. Body tube 2. Iris diaphragm 3. High-powered lens 4. Revolving nosepiece |
1. Body tube
|
|
What objective should be used for a
detailed study of stained bacterial smears? 1. Low power 2. High dry 3. Oil immersion 4. Either 2 or 3 above |
4. Either 2 or 3 above
|
|
If necessary, which, if any, of the following
substances may be used for cleaning the lenses on a microscope? 1. Alcohol 2. Bleach 3. Xylene 4. None of the above |
3. Xylene
|
|
A CBC includes which of the following?
1. Total RBC count 2. Hematocrit 3. Differential WBC count 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
The hemacytometer is designed primarily
for what purpose? 1. To differentiate between red blood cells and white blood cells 2. To count white blood cells 3. To count red blood cells 4. Both 2 and 3 |
4. Both 2 and 3
|
|
The main reason for using the cover glass
included with the hemacytometer instead of an ordinary cover glass is because the hemacytometer cover glass 1. is clearer 2. has an even surface 3. is thicker 4. is less likely to break |
2. has an even surface
|
|
A subnormal RBC count may indicate that
the patient has which of the following listed conditions? 1. Leukopenia 2. Anemia 3. Dehydration 4. Uremia |
2. Anemia
|
|
What is the total capacity of the capillary
pipette provided in a Unopette® for RBC count? 1. 0.5μl 2. 1.0μl 3. 10.0μl 4. 100.0μl |
3. 10.0μl
|
|
Which of the following conditions indicates
that the counting chamber is properly loaded? 1. There is a thin, even film of fluid under the coverglass 2. The fluid flows into the grooves at the edges of the chamber 3. Air bubbles are seen in the field 4. The chamber is flooded |
1. There is a thin, even film of fluid
under the coverglass |
|
What objective should be used for counting
RBCs? 1. Low power 2. High power 3. Oil immersion 4. High dry |
4. High dry
|
|
When counting cells, to arrive at a correct
count, the cells touching the lines on the_______ and ________are counted in addition to all cells totally within each square. 1. Left, top 2. Left, bottom 3. Right, top 4. Right, bottom |
1. Left, top
|
|
To arrive at the number of RBCs per mm3 ,
total the number of cells counted in the five fields and multiply by 1. 0.1 2. 10.0 3. 100.0 4. 10,000.0 |
4. 10,000.0
|
|
Which of the following factors affect
hemoglobin values? 1. Age 2. Sex 3. Altitude 4. All the above |
4. All the above
|
|
Both the number of squares and the
counting procedure for WBCs is the same as it is for RBCs. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
What is the term used for the volume of
erythrocytes expressed as a percentage of the volume of whole blood in a sample? 1. Hematocrit 2. Hemoglobin 3. Red blood count 4. Complete blood cell count |
1. Hematocrit
|
|
The hematocrit for a normal, healthy
female is within what range? 1. 30 to 40 percent 2. 37 to 47 percent 3. 42 to 50 percent 4. 44 to 52 percent |
2. 37 to 47 percent
|
|
A shift from leukocytosis toward
leukopenia in a patient with a systemic bacterial infection is a good sign. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
Select from those listed below the term
used to describe an abnormally high WBC count. 1. Leukocytosis 2. Erythrocytosis 3. Leukopenia 4. Pancytopenia |
1. Leukocytosis
|
|
Which of the following conditions may
cause leukopenia? 1. Strep throat 2. Psittacosis 3. Anaphylactic shock 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
To arrive at the number of white cells per
mm3 of blood, total the number of cells counted in the four fields and multiply by 1. 0.5 2. 5.0 3. 50.0 4. 5000.0 |
3. 50.0
|
|
A differential blood count is the percentage
of distribution in the blood of which of the following types of cells? 1. Lymphocytes 2. Monocytes 3. Leukocytes 4. Erythrocytes |
3. Leukocytes
|
|
What is the function of leukocytes?
1. To carry oxygen through the blood 2. To control various disease conditions 3. To aid in clotting the blood 4. Each of the above |
2. To control various disease conditions
|
|
What type of leukocyte comprises the
largest percentage of cells in the circulating blood? 1. Lymphocyte 2. Neutrophil 3. Erythocyte 4. Thrombocyte |
2. Neutrophil
|
|
When viewing a smear for a differential
count, you identify the cells with the large, scattered dark blue granules that are darker than their nuclei as 1. lymphocytes 2. monocytes 3. basophils 4. neutrophils |
3. basophils
|
|
The largest of the normal WBCs is the
1. monocyte 2. lymphocyte 3. eosinophil 4. basophil |
1. monocyte
|
|
On a properly prepared slide for a
differential count, the smear will 1. extend from one side of the slide to the other 2. be evenly distributed on the entire slide 3. show no wavy or blank spots 4. show smooth even edges |
2. be evenly distributed on the entire
slide |
|
Properly prepared differential slides require
a longer rinse time than stain time. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
If a smear used in a differential count is to
be saved for reexamination, remove the immersion oil by placing a piece of lens tissue over the slide and moistening the tissue with 1. alcohol 2. water 3. xylene 4. acetone |
3. xylene
|
|
A continued shift to the left with a falling
total WBC count probably indicates 1. progress toward normal recovery 2. a decrease in immature neutrophils 3. a breakdown of the body’s defense mechanism and is a poor prognosis 4. a decrease in parasitic and allergenic conditions |
3. a breakdown of the body’s defense
mechanism and is a poor prognosis |
|
A. Recovery
B. Parasitic infection C. Breakdown of the body’s defense D. Active tuberculosis TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 6-40 THROUGH 6-43, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE CONDITION THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY CORRESPONDS TO THE LEUKOCYTIC CHARACTERISTIC IN THE QUESTION. Increased eosinophils. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
2. B
|
|
A. Recovery
B. Parasitic infection C. Breakdown of the body’s defense D. Active tuberculosis TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 6-40 THROUGH 6-43, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE CONDITION THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY CORRESPONDS TO THE LEUKOCYTIC CHARACTERISTIC IN THE QUESTION. Increased monocytes. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
4. D
|
|
A. Recovery
B. Parasitic infection C. Breakdown of the body’s defense D. Active tuberculosis TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 6-40 THROUGH 6-43, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE CONDITION THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY CORRESPONDS TO THE LEUKOCYTIC CHARACTERISTIC IN THE QUESTION. Decreased WBC count with increased juvenile cells. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
|
|
A. Recovery
B. Parasitic infection C. Breakdown of the body’s defense D. Active tuberculosis TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 6-40 THROUGH 6-43, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE CONDITION THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY CORRESPONDS TO THE LEUKOCYTIC CHARACTERISTIC IN THE QUESTION. Decreased WBC count with increased mature cells. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
All of the following are classifications of
bacteria EXCEPT 1. Temperature and moisture content 2. Growth requirements and morphologic characteristics 3. Toxins produced and diseaseproducing ability 4. Gram’s stain reaction and colonial morphology |
1. Temperature and moisture content
|
|
The difference between anaerobes and
aerobes is that anaerobes need oxygen to reproduce. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
Autotrophic bacteria require an
environment that supplies them with nourishment. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
Which of the following structures provides
some bacteria with a means of movement? 1. Capsule 2. Spore 3. Spirillum 4. Flagellum |
4. Flagellum
|
|
What type of bacterial toxin completely
lyses erythrocytes? 1. Exotoxin 2. Endotoxin 3. Beta hemolysin 4. Alpha hemolysin |
3. Beta hemolysin
|
|
A. Impetigo
B. Plague C. Pneumonia D. Gas gangrene E. Strep throat F. Whooping cough TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-49 THROUGH 6-53, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE CONDITION MOST PROBABLY CAUSED BY THE AGENT LISTED IN THE QUESTION Bordetella pertussis. 1. A 2. C 3. E 4. F |
4. F
|
|
A. Impetigo
B. Plague C. Pneumonia D. Gas gangrene E. Strep throat F. Whooping cough TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-49 THROUGH 6-53, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE CONDITION MOST PROBABLY CAUSED BY THE AGENT LISTED IN THE QUESTION Streptococcus pneumoniae. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. E |
3. C
|
|
A. Impetigo
B. Plague C. Pneumonia D. Gas gangrene E. Strep throat F. Whooping cough TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-49 THROUGH 6-53, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE CONDITION MOST PROBABLY CAUSED BY THE AGENT LISTED IN THE QUESTION Yersinia pestis. 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. E |
1. B
|
|
A. Impetigo
B. Plague C. Pneumonia D. Gas gangrene E. Strep throat F. Whooping cough TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-49 THROUGH 6-53, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE CONDITION MOST PROBABLY CAUSED BY THE AGENT LISTED IN THE QUESTION. Clostridium perfringens. 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. F |
3. D
|
|
A. Impetigo
B. Plague C. Pneumonia D. Gas gangrene E. Strep throat F. Whooping cough TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-49 THROUGH 6-53, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE CONDITION MOST PROBABLY CAUSED BY THE AGENT LISTED IN THE QUESTION. Staphylococcus aureus. 1. A 2. D 3. E 4. F |
1. A
|
|
In the Gram’s stain procedure, which of the
following chemicals acts as the mordant? 1. Crystal violet 2. Safranin 3. Iodine 4. Acetone |
3. Iodine
|
|
All of the following statements are true
about antigens EXCEPT that an antigen 1. is inherently unstable structurally 2. must be foreign to the body 3. possesses a high molecular weight 4. has a high specificity to stimulate tissues to produce antibodies |
1. is inherently unstable structurally
|
|
The Rapid Plasma Reagin test for syphilis
is best used with what type of specimen? 1. Serum 2. Plasma 3. Whole blood 4. Either serum or plasma |
1. Serum
|
|
To properly perform the RPR Card Test,
the serum sample should be from arterial blood that has been separated from the blood cells as soon after collection as possible. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Which of the following actions is
considered appropriate if a patient’s RPR is reactive? 1. Give patient penicillin 2. Send patient to lab for further testing 3. Counsel patient against engaging in unsafe sex 4. Report results of RPR to patient’s commanding officer |
2. Send patient to lab for further testing
|
|
Which of the following chemical
preparations is frequently used to detect fungi? 1. Hydrogen sulfoxide 2. Hydrogen peroxide 3. Potassium hydroxide 4. Potassium sulfate |
3. Potassium hydroxide
|
|
The best urine specimen is that taken
during which of the following times? 1. First morning 2. Random 3. Fasting 4. 24 hour |
1. First morning
|
|
For a 24-hour urine specimen collection,
which of the following statements is INCORRECT? 1. Discard the first specimen 2. Add a preservative after the first specimen has been obtained 3. Discard the last specimen 4. Refrigerate the specimen during the collection period |
3. Discard the last specimen
|
|
What purpose does toluene serve when
used in conjunction with a urine specimen? 1. It increases the albumin 2. It dissolves unwanted cells 3. It protects the specimen from decomposition 4. It dissolves the albumin |
3. It protects the specimen from
decomposition |
|
Which of the following colors would be
considered abnormal in a urine specimen? 1. Colorless 2. Amber 3. Straw 4. Red |
4. Red
|
|
A. Pyridium®
B. Bile C. Blood D. Fats (chyle) TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-64 THROUGH 6-67, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE MOST PROBABLE CAUSATIVE AGENT THAT WOULD PRODUCE THE URINE COLOR STATED IN THE QUESTION. Milky. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
4. D
|
|
A. Pyridium®
B. Bile C. Blood D. Fats (chyle) TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-64 THROUGH 6-67, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE MOST PROBABLE CAUSATIVE AGENT THAT WOULD PRODUCE THE URINE COLOR STATED IN THE QUESTION. Dark orange. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
A. Pyridium®
B. Bile C. Blood D. Fats (chyle) TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-64 THROUGH 6-67, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE MOST PROBABLE CAUSATIVE AGENT THAT WOULD PRODUCE THE URINE COLOR STATED IN THE QUESTION. Red-brown. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
|
|
A. Pyridium®
B. Bile C. Blood D. Fats (chyle) TO ANSWER ITEMS 6-64 THROUGH 6-67, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE MOST PROBABLE CAUSATIVE AGENT THAT WOULD PRODUCE THE URINE COLOR STATED IN THE QUESTION. Brown. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
2. B
|
|
A report on urine transparency is valid
regardless of standing time. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
The specific gravity of a liquid or solid is
the weight of the substance as compared to an equal volume of 1. ethanol 2. methanol 3. distilled water 4. normal saline |
3. distilled water
|
|
In the microscopic examination of urine
sediment, scan the slide using the low per objective and examine it in detail using which of the following objectives? 1. Low power 2. High dry 3. High power 4. Oil immersion |
3. High power
|
|
The addition of one drop of 5 percent acetic
acid to urine sediment will disintegrate 1. white blood cells 2. mucous threads 3. casts 4. red blood cells |
4. red blood cells
|
|
There are seven types of casts or sediments
found in urine. Of the four listed below, which may be attributed to lupus? 1. Red cell casts 2. Fatty casts 3. Granular casts 4. Epithelial casts |
2. Fatty casts
|
|
Who is responsible for area decontamination
of chemical agents aboard ship? 1. Medical officer 2. Supply officer 3. Damage control personnel 4. All hands |
4. All hands
|
|
What should be the first priority in the
treatment of chemically contaminated casualties? 1. Control of massive hemorrhage 2. Decontamination 3. Treatment of life-threatening shock and wounds 4. Removal of contaminated clothing |
1. Control of massive hemorrhage
|
|
Who, if anyone, is responsible for
maintaining adequate supplies for the decontamination and treatment of CBR casualties? 1. Medical officer 2. Damage control officer 3. Supply officer 4. No one |
1. Medical officer
|
|
Nerve agents produce their effect by
interfacing with normal transmission of nerve impulses. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
The tendency of a chemical agent to
remain effective in a contaminated area is known as 1. lethality 2. persistency 3. volatility 4. permeability |
2. persistency
|
|
Inhalation of nerve gas characteristically
results in which of the symptoms listed below? 1. Local muscular twitching 2. Dry mouth 3. Pinpoint pupils 4. Pulmonary edema |
3. Pinpoint pupils
|
|
In a definitive care facility, the indicated
treatment of a nerve agent victim includes which of the following therapies? 1. 2 mg atropine and 600 mg 2-PAM chloride every 15 minutes until recovery 2. 2 mg atropine every 15 minutes until the victim has a dry mouth and mild tachycardia 3. 600 mg 2-PAM chloride every 15 minutes until the victim is conscious 4. Respiratory support only |
2. 2 mg atropine every 15 minutes until
the victim has a dry mouth and mild tachycardia |
|
What part of the body is most sensitive to
the effects of mustard gases? 1. Eyes 2. Lungs 3. Liver 4. Skin |
1. Eyes
|
|
Specific antidotal therapy is available for
which, if any, of the following vesicants? 1. Mustard (HD) 2. Nitrogen mustard (HN) 3. Lewisite (L) 4. None of the above |
3. Lewisite (L)
|
|
First aid treatment for blood agents is amyl
nitrite ampules followed by which of the compounds listed below? 1. Oral potassium chloride 2. Oral sodium thiosulfate 3. Intravenous potassium chloride 4. Intravenous sodium thiosulfate |
4. Intravenous sodium thiosulfate
|
|
The symbol for phosgene gas is
1. C1 2. CN 3. CG 4. CK |
3. CG
|
|
Which of the following odors is an early
indication of exposure to phosgene gas in casualty-producing amounts? 1. Bitter almonds 2. A freshly mown lawn 3. Geraniums 4. None of the above. Phosgene is undetectable |
2. A freshly mown lawn
|
|
Exposure to fresh air and allowing wind to
blow across wide open eyes is generally sufficient treatment for which of the following agents? 1. Psychochemicals 2. Lacrimators 3. Vomiting agents 4. Glycolates |
2. Lacrimators
|
|
With exposure to Adamsite, which, if any,
of the following actions must be taken to minimize or inhibit the symptoms of exposure? 1. Don a protective mask and continue duties as vigorously as possible 2. Give an intramuscular injection of physostigmine 3. Give an intravenous infusion of sodium thiosulfate 4. Do none of the above |
1. Don a protective mask and continue
duties as vigorously as possible |
|
What is the proper treatment for burning
white phosphorus particles embedded in the skin? 1. Surgical removal followed by a copper sulfate wet dressing 2. A copper sulfate rinse then surgical removal 3. A copper sulfate rinse only 4. Allowing them to burn out |
2. A copper sulfate rinse then surgical
removal |
|
By what means can biological agents can
be detected? 1. Physical senses 2. Chemical detectors 3. Laboratory examination 4. All of the above |
3. Laboratory examination
|
|
When entering an area known to be
contaminated with biological agents, which of the following actions should be taken? 1. Put on gloves, if available 2. Button up clothing 3. Put on a protective mask 4. Do all of the above |
4. Do all of the above
|
|
What is the appropriate procedure to
follow when biological agents are known to have been placed in your drinking water? 1. Double the amount of chlorine in the water 2. Double the time the water is exposed to the chlorine 3. Boil the water before you drink any of it 4. Refrain from drinking the water |
3. Boil the water before you drink any of
it |
|
Presenting a serious internal radiation
hazard, alpha particles can enter the body through which of the following? 1. The digestive system 2. The respiratory system 3. Open wounds 4. Any of the above |
3. Open wounds
|
|
Of the following, which type of radiation
has the greatest penetrating power? 1. Alpha 2. Beta 3. Gamma 4. Neutron |
3. Gamma
|
|
In the event of a nuclear detonation, what
is the best position to assume? 1. Sitting, with the knees drawn up to the chest, facing away from the blast 2. Face down, with your face covered 3. On your side, in a fetal position facing away from the blast 4. Supine, with your face covered |
2. Face down, with your face covered
|
|
The treatment of thermal burns from a
nuclear detonation differs from more conventional burn wounds in which, if any, of the following ways? 1. Conventional burn wounds are generally less serious 2. Conventional burn wounds are more likely to become infected 3. Burns resulting from a nuclear detonation are more painful 4. There is no difference |
4. There is no difference
|
|
When using antibiotics for victims of
radiation injuries, what is the recommended dosage? 1. One-half of the normal dosage 2. The normal dosage 3. Two times the normal dosage 4. Three times the normal dosage |
4. Three times the normal dosage
|
|
Approximately what number of calories
must be burned or consumed for the average individual to lose or gain one pound? 1. 1,500 2. 2,000 3. 3,500 4. 5,000 |
3. 3,500
|
|
Which of the following nutritive elements
are considered the "building blocks" of the body? 1. Fats 2. Carbohydrates 3. Minerals 4. Proteins |
4. Proteins
|
|
What happens to protein consumed that is
in excess of body requirements? 1. Used to supply energy only 2. Changed into fat only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Excreted from the body through elimination |
3. Both 1 and 2
|
|
What total number of amino acids are
obtained solely from the food we eat? 1. 3 2. 7 3. 9 4. 11 |
3. 9
|
|
What amount of protein should a nonpregnant
person consume on a daily basis? 1. 0.8 g/kg 2. 1.2 g/kg 3. 2.2 lbs 4. There is no specific recommended amount |
1. 0.8 g/kg
|
|
What amount of protein should a nonpregnant
person consume on a daily basis? 1. 0.8 g/kg 2. 1.2 g/kg 3. 2.2 lbs 4. There is no specific recommended amount |
1. 0.8 g/kg
|
|
Protein deficiency can result in which of
the following conditions? 1. Nutritional edema 2. Secondary anemia 3. Restricted growth 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
The number of calories generated by each
gram of protein, fat, and carbohydrate, respectively is 1. 3, 6, 4 2. 4, 9, 4 3. 6, 3, 9 4. 9, 4, 6 |
2. 4, 9, 4
|
|
The serum cholesterol level of adults over
the age of 30 should be less than 1. 100 mg/dl 2. 150 mg/dl 3. 200 mg/dl 4. 300 mg/dl |
3. 200 mg/dl
|
|
Refined and processed sugars should make
up no more than what percent of an individual’s total caloric intake? 1. 5 2. 10 3. 15 4. 20 |
2. 10
|
|
A. Complex carbohydrates
B. Simple carbohydrates C. Proteins D. Fats FOR QUESTIONS 7-35 TO 7-39, USE THE ABOVE LIST TO MATCH THE FOOD IDENTIFIED IN EACH OF THE QUESTIONS TO THE NUTRITIVE ELEMENT PRIMARILY ASSOCIATED WITH IT. Fish. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
|
|
A. Complex carbohydrates
B. Simple carbohydrates C. Proteins D. Fats FOR QUESTIONS 7-35 TO 7-39, USE THE ABOVE LIST TO MATCH THE FOOD IDENTIFIED IN EACH OF THE QUESTIONS TO THE NUTRITIVE ELEMENT PRIMARILY ASSOCIATED WITH IT. Honey. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
2. B
|
|
A. Complex carbohydrates
B. Simple carbohydrates C. Proteins D. Fats FOR QUESTIONS 7-35 TO 7-39, USE THE ABOVE LIST TO MATCH THE FOOD IDENTIFIED IN EACH OF THE QUESTIONS TO THE NUTRITIVE ELEMENT PRIMARILY ASSOCIATED WITH IT. Butter. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
4. D
|
|
A. Complex carbohydrates
B. Simple carbohydrates C. Proteins D. Fats FOR QUESTIONS 7-35 TO 7-39, USE THE ABOVE LIST TO MATCH THE FOOD IDENTIFIED IN EACH OF THE QUESTIONS TO THE NUTRITIVE ELEMENT PRIMARILY ASSOCIATED WITH IT. Eggs. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
|
|
A. Complex carbohydrates
B. Simple carbohydrates C. Proteins D. Fats FOR QUESTIONS 7-35 TO 7-39, USE THE ABOVE LIST TO MATCH THE FOOD IDENTIFIED IN EACH OF THE QUESTIONS TO THE NUTRITIVE ELEMENT PRIMARILY ASSOCIATED WITH IT. Corn. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
An otherwise normal, healthy diet is
always sufficient to provide an individual with adequate levels of minerals. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
Consumption of excessive amounts of
certain vitamins can, in some circumstances, be fatal. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Which of the following is sometimes
referred to as "the forgotten nutrient"? 1. Selenium 2. Phosphorus 3. Water 4. Fructose |
3. Water
|
|
According to the Dietary Guidelines for
Americans, upon which of the following dietary elements should a nutritional diet be based? 1. Fruits and vegetables 2. Complex carbohydrates 3. Fats 4. Dairy |
2. Complex carbohydrates
|
|
Fried foods, as long as they are not too
crisp, may be included in a soft diet. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
When a liquid diet has been ordered by the
attending physician or dietician, the feedings should be ____ ounces and administered every ____ hours. 1. 4-6, 3-4 2. 6-8, 2-3 3. 8-10, 6-8 4. 10-12, 2-3 |
2. 6-8, 2-3
|
|
A high-calorie diet may be effected by
modifying the regular diet in which of the following ways? 1. Adding snacks 2. Increasing portions 3. Providing commercial supplements 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
A. Liquid
B. High-calorie C. High-protein D. Low-calorie E. Low-protein FOR QUESTIONS 7-47 TO 7-51, SELECT THE DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE MALADY IN THE QUESTION Malnourishment. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
2. B
|
|
A. Liquid
B. High-calorie C. High-protein D. Low-calorie E. Low-protein FOR QUESTIONS 7-47 TO 7-51, SELECT THE DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE MALADY IN THE QUESTION Hypothyroidism. 1. E 2. D 3. C 4. B |
2. D
|
|
A. Liquid
B. High-calorie C. High-protein D. Low-calorie E. Low-protein FOR QUESTIONS 7-47 TO 7-51, SELECT THE DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE MALADY IN THE QUESTION Inflammatory GI tract. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
A. Liquid
B. High-calorie C. High-protein D. Low-calorie E. Low-protein FOR QUESTIONS 7-47 TO 7-51, SELECT THE DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE MALADY IN THE QUESTION Low production of antibodies. 1. E 2. D 3. C 4. B |
3. C
|
|
A. Liquid
B. High-calorie C. High-protein D. Low-calorie E. Low-protein FOR QUESTIONS 7-47 TO 7-51, SELECT THE DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE MALADY IN THE QUESTION. Chronic nephrotic edema. 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. E |
4. E
|
|
Which of the following is appropriate
procedure in the administration of a highresidue diet? 1. Ensure adequate fluid intake 2. Limit caffeine intake 3. Provide raw or tender-cooked vegetables 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
A. High-residue
B. Low-residue C. Low-sodium D. Bland E. Low-carbohydrate, highprotein FOR QUESTIONS 7-53 TO 7-57, SELECT THE DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE MALADY IN THE QUESTION. Peptic ulcers. 1. E 2. D 3. C 4. B |
2. D
|
|
A. High-residue
B. Low-residue C. Low-sodium D. Bland Hypertension. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D E. Low-carbohydrate, highprotein FOR QUESTIONS 7-53 TO 7-57, SELECT THE DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE MALADY IN THE QUESTION. |
1. A
|
|
A. High-residue
B. Low-residue C. Low-sodium D. Bland E. Low-carbohydrate, highprotein FOR QUESTIONS 7-53 TO 7-57, SELECT THE DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE MALADY IN THE QUESTION. Hemorrhoidectomy. 1. E 2. D 3. C 4. B |
4. B
|
|
A. High-residue
B. Low-residue C. Low-sodium D. Bland E. Low-carbohydrate, highprotein FOR QUESTIONS 7-53 TO 7-57, SELECT THE DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE MALADY IN THE QUESTION. Hypoglycemia. 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. E |
4. E
|
|
A. High-residue
B. Low-residue C. Low-sodium D. Bland E. Low-carbohydrate, highprotein FOR QUESTIONS 7-53 TO 7-57, SELECT THE DIET FROM THE LIST ABOVE THAT MOST APPROPRIATELY MATCHES THE MALADY IN THE QUESTION. Spastic colon. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
What is the most common cause of dental
caries? 1. Sugar 2. Lack of fluoridation 3. Infrequent dental examinations 4. Bacterial plaque |
4. Bacterial plaque
|
|
Severe inflammation of the tooth pulp is
known as 1. acute pulpitis 2. periapical absess 3. marginal gingivitis 4. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis |
1. acute pulpitis
|
|
The most frequent cause of marginal
gingivitis is 1. bacteria 2. caries 3. poor oral hygiene 4. periodontitis |
3. poor oral hygiene
|
|
What is the most frequent cause of
periodontal abscesses? 1. A virus 2. An infection 3. Poor oral hygiene 4. Prolonged irritation |
2. An infection
|
|
An inflammation of the gingiva around a
partially erupted tooth is known as 1. periodontitis 2. periodontal abscess 3. stomatitis 4. pericoronitis |
1. periodontitis
|
|
An inflammation of the oral mucosa is
called 1. periocoronitis 2. gingivitis 3. stomatitis 4. periodontitis |
3. stomatitis
|
|
Labial herpes is an infection that results in
which of the following conditions? 1. Fever blisters 2. Gingivitis 3. Pericoronitis 4. All the above |
1. Fever blisters
|
|
Excruciating, constant pain 3 days after a
tooth extraction indicates which of the following conditions? 1. Hemorrhage 2. Osteitis 3. Stomatitis 4. Pericoronitis |
2. Osteitis
|
|
The form used to record dental treatment is
the 1. SF 600 2. SF 602 3. EZ 603A 4. NAVMED 6150/20 |
3. EZ 603A
|
|
In addition to maintaining and promoting
good health, personal hygiene is important for which of the following reasons? 1. Inhibits the spread of disease 2. Promotes good morale 3. Decreases the risk of disabling disease 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Preventive medicine procedures in the
Navy are addressed in detail in what publication? 1. SECNAVINST 4061.1 2. NAVMED P-5010 3. NAVMED P-5038 4. Navy Supply Publication 486 |
2. NAVMED P-5010
|
|
Animals that carry disease and can
transmit those diseases to human or animal hosts to cause illness or injury are called 1. pests 2. insects 3. vectors 4. rodents |
3. vectors
|
|
Guidance as to appropriate food storage
temperatures, storage life of perishable and semi-perishable food items, and safe time limits for keeping food can be found in which of the following publications? 1. SECNAVINST 4061.1 2. NAVMED P-5010 3. NAVMED P-5038 4. Navy Supply Publication 486 |
4. Navy Supply Publication 486
|
|
All Navy and Marine Corps food-service
facilities must be inspected by a medical department representative and food-service department representative. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
Immunizations used within the Armed
Forces are required to meet standards set forth by which of the following organizations? 1. Food and Drug Administration 2. Department of Health and Human Services 3. Centers for Disease Control 4. National Institutes of Health |
2. Department of Health and Human
Services |
|
Instructions for preparing and submitting
the Medical Event Report can be found in which of the following publications? 1. SECNAVINST 4061.1 2. NAVMED P-5010 3. NAVMED P-5038 4. Navy Supply Publication 486 |
3. NAVMED P-5038
|
|
As long as it is clear, tastes good, and is
free from odor, water obtained in the field can be considered to be potable. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
Marine sanitation devices (MSDs) perform
what function(s) aboard ship? 1. Treat sewage before discharge into restricted waters 2. Collect and hold sewage for treatment 3. Treat sewage before discharge into unrestricted waters 4. Both 2 and 3 |
4. Both 2 and 3
|
|
Physical examinations of Navy and Marine
Corps personnel, whether active or reserve, may be performed by which of the following? 1. Navy medical officers 2. DoD physicians 3. Credentialed civilian contract physicians 4. All the above |
4. All the above
|
|
What entity is responsible for setting the
physical standards for entry into the U.S. Navy? 1. Bureau of Naval Personnel 2. Department of Defense 3. Bureau of Naval Medicine 4. Chief of Naval Operations |
2. Department of Defense
|
|
In which, if any, of the following
publications will you find the prescribed intervals for periodic physical examinations? 1. MILPERSMAN 2. NAVMED P-5010 3. NAVMED P-117 4. None of the above |
4. None of the above (MANMED)
|
|
All of the following are functions of a
medical board EXCEPT 1. evaluating and reporting on diagnosis 2. selection of personnel for special duty 3. planning for treatment, rehabilitation, or convalescence 4. estimating the length of further disability |
2. selection of personnel for special duty
|
|
Family member screening is required even
if a servicemember is accepting unaccompanied orders to an overseas duty station. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
Medical surveillance examinations are
required for certain occupational fields or certain skills or jobs; e.g., people who work with beryllium or mercury. Specific guidelines on what tests are required and the frequency of those tests can be found in 1. BUMEDINST 5100.1 2. COMNAVMEDCOMINST 5100.46 3. OPNAVINST 5100.23 4. SECNAVINST 6200.2 |
3. OPNAVINST 5100.23
|
|
What report is used when a member is
expected to return to full duty status after being placed on limited duty? 1. Limited Duty (LIMDU) Board 2. Formal Medical Board 3. Abbreviated Temporary Limited Duty (TLD) Medical Board 4. Physical Examination Board (PEB) |
3. Abbreviated Temporary Limited Duty
(TLD) Medical Board |
|
Which of the following steps is appropriate
when a servicemember is found not fit for duty after an initial TLD period of 6 months, but has a favorable prognosis and is expected to be returned to duty within 4 more months? 1. Administrative separation 2. Extension of 4 months to his TLD 3. Initiation of a second and final 6- month TLD 4. Formal medical board |
3. Initiation of a second and final 6-
month TLD |
|
What is the maximum length of time an
individual may be held on limited duty without convening a formal board? 1. 8 months 2. 16 months 3. 1 year 4. 2 years |
1. 8 months
|
|
Who is responsible for verifying the
content of a medical board? 1. The attending physician 2. The LIMDU Coordinator 3. The Patient Administration Limited Duty Coordinator 4. The convening authority |
2. The LIMDU Coordinator
|
|
A command endorsement is required on a
formal medical board. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
A Sailor reports for her periodic physical
examination and states that no changes have occurred in her medical status since her last physical. What entry, if any, would be appropriate to put in block 25 of her SF 93, Report of Medical History? 1. "N/A" 2. "No changes" 3. "No significant interval history" 4. Nothing; leave block 25 blank |
3. "No significant interval history"
|
|
One method for testing near visual acuity is
the 1. Snellen charts 2. Jaeger cards 3. Farnsworth lantern 4. pseudoisochromatic plates |
2. Jaeger cards
|
|
The preferred method for testing color
vision is the 1. Snellen charts 2. Jaeger cards 3. Farnsworth lantern 4. pseudoisochromatic plates |
3. Farnsworth lantern
|
|
EKGs are performed routinely as part of a
member’s physical examination once the member reaches the age of 35. 1. True 2. False |
2. False (40 yrs. old)
|
|
The health record of a military member
may be used for which of the following purposes? 1. Aid in determining claims 2. Determine physical fitness 3. Provide data for medical statistics 4. Do all of the above |
4. Do all of the above
|
|
Of the following, which is NOT considered
a major category of the primary medical record? 1. DREC 2. HREC 3. IREC 4. OREC |
1. DREC
|
|
Secondary medical records, which are held
separately from primary medical records, are not normally opened or maintained for active duty personnel. Under which of the following circumstances may a secondary medical record be established for an active member? 1. The member is to undergo surgery 2. The member is to go TAD for medical treatment 3. The member is under investigation for domestic abuse 4. The member is AWOL |
3. The member is under investigation for
domestic abuse |
|
What information should be included on
the NAVMED 6150/20 of a member’s primary medical record with respect to the existence of a member’s secondary medical record? 1. Nature of secondary record 2. Patient’s diagnosis 3. Clinic name, address, and phone number 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Custody of health records is generally
vested in the medical department. On ships without a medical department representative, an individual retains custody of the record until which of the following times, if any? 1. Transfer 2. Transfer with verification every 6 months 3. Transfer with annual verification 4. Never |
4. Never
|
|
Health records are for official use only but
are subject to inspection an any time by 1. the commanding officer or his or her superior 2. authorized medical inspectors 3. the fleet medical officer 4. any of the above |
1. the commanding officer or his or her
superior |
|
When a member is hospitalized in a foreign
nation and the ship departs port, the health record is 1. retained on board 2. turned over to the hospital 3. forwarded to the nearest U.S. consulate or embassy 4. turned over to another U.S. vessel in port |
2. turned over to the hospital
|
|
Although considered privileged, release of
information in the health record is required under the Freedom of Information Act. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
Under which of the following
circumstances may an individual’s medical information be released to his authorized representative(s)? 1. When verbally requested by the individual 2. Upon request of the representative when adequate proof of the individual’s death can be provided 3. Upon proof that the individual has been declared mentally incompetent 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
A well-known and preeminent research
group requests medical information to use as part of the basis of a study it is performing. What action, if any, should be taken prior to release? 1. Commanding officer of MTF should release information immediately 2. Commanding officer of MTF should check with the Judge Advocate General for advice 3. Commanding officer of MTC should forward the request to BUMED for guidance 4. None; an individual’s medical information may not be released for research |
3. Commanding officer of MTC should
forward the request to BUMED for guidance |
|
The health record jacket of PO3 Walter T.
Door, 333-44-5555, would be what color? 1. Blue 2. Almond 3. Orange 4. Pink |
1. Blue
|
|
A health record is only opened in which of
the following cases? 1. When a member returns to active duty from the retired list 2. When the original record has been lost 3. When first becoming a member of the naval service 4. In all the above cases |
4. In all the above cases
|
|
In the record category box on the health
record jacket, all active duty military records are identified by what color tape? 1. Blue 2. Black 3. Red 4. White |
3. Red
|
|
The health jackets of flag or general
officers should be annotated to reflect their rank. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
When a HREC is opened on a service
member, the member should be directed to read and sign the Privacy Act Statement inside the back cover of the HREC. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Entries to the Chronological Record of
Medical Care, SF 600, when not typewritten, should be made in which color(s) of ink? 1. Blue 2. Black or blue-black 3. Red 4. Ink color is irrelevant |
2. Black or blue-black
|
|
What is the preferred form on which to
record admission to the hospital? 1. SF 509, Medical Record-Progress Report 2. SF 600, Chronological Record of Medical Care 3. NAVMED 6150/4, Abstract of Service and Medical History 4. NAVMED 6150/20, Summary of Care |
1. SF 509, Medical Record-Progress
Report |
|
A. SF 600
B. SF 601 C. DD1141 D. NAVMED 6150/2 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-33 THROUGH 8-36, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE APPROPRIATE HEALTH Routine innoculations. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D RECORD FORM FOR RECORDING THE INFORMATION GIVEN. |
2. B
|
|
A. SF 600
B. SF 601 C. DD1141 D. NAVMED 6150/2 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-33 THROUGH 8-36, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE APPROPRIATE HEALTH RECORD FORM FOR RECORDING THE INFORMATION GIVEN. Human immune virus testing. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
4. D
|
|
A. SF 600
B. SF 601 C. DD1141 D. NAVMED 6150/2 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-33 THROUGH 8-36, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE APPROPRIATE HEALTH RECORD FORM FOR RECORDING THE INFORMATION GIVEN.Sick call visits for poison ivy. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
A. SF 600
B. SF 601 C. DD1141 D. NAVMED 6150/2 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-33 THROUGH 8-36, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE APPROPRIATE HEALTH RECORD FORM FOR RECORDING THE INFORMATION GIVEN. Results of radiation monitoring. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
|
|
A. NAVMED 6150/4
B. SF 539 C. SF 601 D. DD 771 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-37 THROUGH 8-39, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE HEALTH RECORD FORM THAT MOST CLOSELY RELATES TO THE STATEMENT IN THE QUESTION. Used for ordering corrective lenses. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
4. D
|
|
A. NAVMED 6150/4
B. SF 539 C. SF 601 D. DD 771 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-37 THROUGH 8-39, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE HEALTH RECORD FORM THAT MOST CLOSELY RELATES TO THE STATEMENT IN THE QUESTION. May be used for an active duty patient who is admitted to the hospital for less than 24 hours. 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. E |
2. B
|
|
A. NAVMED 6150/4
B. SF 539 C. SF 601 D. DD 771 IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 8-37 THROUGH 8-39, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE HEALTH RECORD FORM THAT MOST CLOSELY RELATES TO THE STATEMENT IN THE QUESTION. A record of prophylactic immunizations and sensitivity tests. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
|
|
Which of the following documents should
NEVER be filed in an individual’s HREC? 1. FM 8-33 2. PHS-731 3. SF 509 4. NAVMED 6100/1 |
2. PHS-731
|
|
In which of the following circumstance
should the health record be verified? 1. Upon reporting 2. Upon transfer 3. At the time of a physical examination 4. In all of the above cases |
4. In all of the above cases
|
|
Under which of the following
circumstances would a member’s health record NOT be closed? 1. Transfers to a new duty station 2. Transfers to the Fleet Reserve 3. Placed on the retired list 4. Declared missing in action |
1. Transfers to a new duty station
|
|
On which of the following documents
would a notation be made concerning an member’s status as a deserter? 1. SF 600 2. NAVMED 6100/1 3. NAVMED 6150/4 4. Both 1 and 3 |
3. NAVMED 6150/4
|
|
A copy of the HREC of a member
separated for disability should be given to the member for presentation to the DVA so that the member’s claim can be processed expeditiously. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Which of the following types of
appropriations is not normally used by the Navy? 1. Multiple-year 2. Annual 3. Continuing 4. Apportioning |
4. Apportioning
|
|
At the end of the second quarter, what is
done with the funds that have not been obligated in the previous quarter? 1. The funds are carried over into the next quarter 2. The funds are carried over into the next year 3. The funds are returned to the Treasury 4. The funds are placed in the command’s welfare and recreation fund |
1. The funds are carried over into the
next quarter |
|
The shipboard medical OPTAR may be
used to purchase all of the following items EXCEPT 1. x-ray units and film processors 2. medical books and publications 3. gun bags 4. litters and stretchers |
1. x-ray units and film processors
|
|
Which of the following characteristics
could designate an item as controlled equipage? 1. High cost 2. Liable to pilferage 3. Required for ship’s mission 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
The first four digits of a National Stock
Number are known as the 1. Federal Supply Classification code 2. Federal Stock number 3. National Identification number 4. Cognizance symbol |
1. Federal Supply Classification code
|
|
How many digits are in a National Stock
Number? 1. 9 2. 10 3. 12 4. 13 |
4. 13
|
|
In which of the following would you find
handling or storage codes, a brief description of each item, and a crossreference of NINs and NSNs? 1. Management Data List (MDL) 2. Identification List (IL) 3. Authorized Medical Allowance List (AMAL) 4. Naval Supply System Command Manual |
2. Identification List (IL)
|
|
TO ANSWER ITEMS 8-52 THROUGH 8-54,
SELECT FROM THE TABLE BELOW THE LEVEL OF SUPPLY DEFINED IN THE ITEM. A. Stockage objective B. Identification List (IL) C. Operating level D. Requisitioning objective The quantity of an item required to support operations between the time a requisition is submitted and receipt of material. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
|
|
TO ANSWER ITEMS 8-52 THROUGH 8-54,
SELECT FROM THE TABLE BELOW THE LEVEL OF SUPPLY DEFINED IN THE ITEM. A. Stockage objective B. Identification List (IL) C. Operating level D. Requisitioning objective The minimum amount of an item of material required to support operations. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
TO ANSWER ITEMS 8-52 THROUGH 8-54,
SELECT FROM THE TABLE BELOW THE LEVEL OF SUPPLY DEFINED IN THE ITEM. A. Stockage objective B. Identification List (IL) C. Operating level D. Requisitioning objective The maximum amount of material in stock and on order to support operations. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
4. D
|
|
What is the name of the standard computer
supply management system used by shipboard medical departments? 1. Shipboard Automated Medical Supply 2. SNAP Automated Medical System 3. Supply Automated Medical System 4. Shipboard Automated Management System |
2. SNAP Automated Medical System (SAMS)
|
|
Medical journals and books may be ordered
on which of the following forms? 1. DD Form 1149, Requisition and Invoice/Shipping Document 2. NAVSUP Form 1250-1, Single-Line Item Requisition Document (manual) 3. DD Form 1348m, DOD Single-Line Item Requisition Document (mechanical) 4. DD Form 1348m, Non-NSN Requisition (manual) |
1. DD Form 1149, Requisition and
Invoice/Shipping Document |
|
Who assigns the Urgency of Need
Designator (UND) on a requisition? 1. Activity requiring the material 2. Supply depot 3. Stock point 4. Inventory control point |
1. Activity requiring the material
|
|
What is the purpose of a Report of
Discrepancy, SF 364? 1. To determine the cause of a discrepancy 2. To effect corrective action on a discrepancy 3. To prevent recurrence of a discrepancy 4. To do all of the above |
4. To do all of the above
|
|
Whenever possible and where space
permits, aisles in stowage areas should be at least how wide? 1. 18 in 2. 24 in 3. 30 in 4. 36 in |
3. 30 in
|
|
All of the following locations aboard ship
are appropriate stowage areas for hazardous material EXCEPT 1. below the full-load water line 2. adjacent to a magazine 3. near either end of the ship 4. behind watertight doors |
2. adjacent to a magazine
|
|
Alcohol should be stowed in a locked
container in the paint and flammable liquid storeroom. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
What is the primary purpose of an
inventory? 1. To locate missing items 2. To determine what items are in a storeroom 3. To ensure balance on hand match stock record cards 4. To balance the OPTAR |
3. To ensure balance on hand match
stock record cards |
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Differences between on-hand quantity,
location of stock, or other stock record data should be reconciled in accordance with what publication? 1. NAVSUP 1114 2. NAVSUP P-437 3. NAVSUP P-485 4. NAVSUPINST 4200.85 |
3. NAVSUP P-485
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Once a stock record card has been totally
filled in, a new card should be prepared, following all of the steps listed EXCEPT 1. bring forward demand quantity and frequency demand totals from old card 2. destroy old card, in accordance with local policy 3. bring forward any outstanding requisitions from old card 4. enter the beginning date on the new card |
2. destroy old card, in accordance with
local policy |
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How often must inventory of controlled
substances be conducted? 1. Weekly 2. Monthly 3. Quarterly 4. Semiannually |
2. Monthly
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In what document would you find the
contents of each contingency block outlined? 1. AMAL 2. MAP 3. MMART Manual 4. SPRINT |
3. MMART Manual
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At a minimum, how often should all
AMALs be reviewed? 1. Monthly 2. Quarterly 3. Semiannually 4. Annually |
4. Annually
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The Medical Department Journal contains a
chronological record of events concerning the Medical Department and should include all of the following EXCEPT 1. reports of personnel casualties, injuries, or deaths 2. personnel entered onto or deleted from the binnacle list 3. medical histories of personnel 4. training lectures to stretcher bearers |
3. medical histories of personnel
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NAVMED 6320/18, Binnacle List, is used
to list all personnel falling into what status? 1. Admitted to the hospital 2. Excused from duty for 24 hours or less because of illness 3. Excused from duty for more than 24 hours because of illness 4. Who reported to sick call in the morning |
2. Excused from duty for 24 hours or less
because of illness |
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NAVMED 6320/19 Morning Report of the
Sick, must be submitted to the commanding officer daily by what time? 1. 0800 2. 0900 3. 1000 4. 1100 |
3. 1000
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A member misses his clinical appointment.
He has missed two previous appointments. What action, if any, should the Corpsman maintaining the appointment log take? 1. Call the member and reschedule the appointment 2. Notify the member's chain of command that he has missed several appointments 3. Do nothing; when the member is able to reschedule, he will do so |
2. Notify the member's chain of
command that he has missed several appointments |
|
A notice issued under the Navy Directive
Issuance System has the same force and effect as an instruction. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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In the process of making changes to
directives, which of the following procedures should you follow? 1. Annotate the first page of the directive with "CH-#" (# = change number) to indicate the change has been incorporated into the directive 2. If the directive is removed from the binder or file, replace the directive with a locator sheet 3. If the directive is in the form of a publication, fill out the "Record of Changes" sheet in the front of the book 4. Each of the above |
1. Annotate the first page of the directive
with "CH-#" (# = change number) to indicate the change has been incorporated into the directive |
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Routine unclassified correspondence must
contain all of the following items in the identification symbol EXCEPT 1. standard subject identification symbol 2. date 3. serial number 4. organization code |
3. serial number
|
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In what publication would you find
examples of and instructions for the proper formatting of a naval message? 1. NTP 3 2. SECNAVINST 5210.11 3. Navy Correspondence Manual 4. Navy Message Manual |
3. Navy Correspondence Manual
|
|
A Navy letter carries the subject
identification number 5320. What is the major subject of the letter? 1. Military personnel 2. Operations and readiness 3. General administration and management 4. Financial management |
3. General administration and
management SSICs are broken down into 13 major groups: 1000 seriesMilitary Personnel 2000 seriesTelecommunications 3000 seriesOperations and Readiness 4000 seriesLogistics 5000 seriesGeneral Administration and Management 6000 seriesMedicine and Dentistry 7000 seriesFinancial Management 8000 seriesOrdnance Material 9000 seriesShips Design and Material 10000 seriesGeneral Material 11000 seriesFacilities and Activities Ashore 12000 seriesCivilian Personnel 13000 seriesAeronautical and Astronautical Material |
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What is the process called that is used to
determine the correct subject group under which documents should be filed? 1. grouping 2. coding 3. classifying 4. cross-referencing |
3. classifying
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It is prudent to cross-reference a piece of
correspondence under which of the following circumstances? 1. The basic correspondence has separate enclosures 2. The document has multiple subjects 3. There is more than one applicable SSIC 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Budget and accounting files are terminated
and new files begun at what time(s)? 1. Semi-annually, on 31 March and 30 September 2. Annually, at the end of the calendar year 3. Annually, at the end of the fiscal year 4. Every 3 years |
3. Annually, at the end of the fiscal year
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|
Tickler files are used to determine all of the
following EXCEPT 1. when reports are due 2. ship’s movement/port schedule 3. when physical examinations are required 4. immunization schedules |
2. ship’s movement/port schedule
|
|
The Marine Corps specially assigns
members to the Fleet Marine Force to serve as medical and dental personnel 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
All of the following are considered part of
the primary mission of the medical battalion EXCEPT 1. emergency treatment 2. evacuation 3. immunization 4. temporary hospitalization |
3. immunization
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|
Which of the following could be considered
accurate attributes of a fleet hospital? 1. Non-deployable, permanent station for high-intensity situations 2. Transportable, with 100 to 500 beds, providing moderately sophisticated care 3. Designed for short-term (less than 60 days) operations involving large numbers of ground forces 4. Mostly self-supporting and relocatable, with less than 100 beds |
2. Transportable, with 100 to 500 beds,
providing moderately sophisticated care |
|
A fleet hospital has what number of
directorates? 1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5 |
4. 5
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The operation of fleet hospital supply
departments are conducted in accordance with what directive? 1. NAVMED P-5010 2. BUMEDINST 6440.6 3. NAVSUP P-485 4. NAVSUP P-437 |
3. NAVSUP P-485
|
|
Through use of the Medical Augmentation
Program (MAP), it is possible to do all of the following EXCEPT 1. monitor wartime manning readiness 2. augment operational medical personnel, as necessary 3. train medical personnel 4. develop a readiness reporting system |
3. train medical personnel
|
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The Mobile Medical Augmentation
Readiness Team is a peacetime version of the Medical Augmentation Program. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Detailed information concerning MMART
can be found in what directive or manual? 1. NAVMED P-5010 2. BUMEDINST 6440.6 3. NAVSUP P-485 4. NAVSUP P-437 |
2. BUMEDINST 6440.6
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Before an accurate determination of the
number of personnel and amount of material are needed for a particular military operation, the staff surgeon and dental surgeon must know about enemy and friendly capabilities, as well as environmental factors. What is this information, taken as a whole, called? 1. Medical estimate 2. Planning factors 3. Medical intelligence 4. Command mission |
3. Medical intelligence
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Who establishes patient evacuation policy?
1. Secretary of the Navy 2. Joint Chiefs of Staff 3. Chief of Naval Medicine 4. Secretary of Defense |
4. Secretary of Defense
|
|
In a case where DEERS determines that a
patient with a valid ID card is ineligible for care, the ID card will always be the determining factor. No other supporting documents are required 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
Which of the following beneficiaries can
receive medical care and can also be enrolled in the DEERS system? 1. Red Cross workers 2. Secretary of the Navy designees 3. Secret Service agents 4. Newborns |
4. Newborns
|
|
BUMED and OPNAV both have
instructions covering healthcare and quality assurance programs? 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
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It is the primary function of which of the
following programs to provide a good communication and rapport between the patient and medical department staff? 1. The Patient Contact Program 2. The FOIA 3. The Patient Relations Program 4. The Family Advocacy Program |
3. The Patient Relations Program
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|
What authority has the responsibility of the
Family Advocacy Program? 1. BUMED 2. NMPC 3. Family Service Center 4. BUPERS |
2. NMPC
|
|
A committee consisting of members from
what professional areas of the Navy reviews abuse cases? 1. Medical, line, chaplain, security 2. Medical, chaplain, security, Family Service Center 3. Medical, line, chaplain, Family Service Center 4. Medical, line, security, Family Service Center |
2. Medical, chaplain, security, Family
Service Center |
|
The Navy hopes to achieve its drug free
"zero tolerance" goal by the use of which of the following methods? 1. Detection 2. Education 3. Deterrence 4. Treatment |
2. Education
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|
What training prevention program is
specifically aimed at the junior Sailor? 1. ADAMS 2. PREVENT 2000 3. Alcoholics Anonymous 4. IMPACT |
2. PREVENT 2000
|
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What is the primary function of a DAPA?
1. To facilitate shipboard Alcoholics Anonymous meetings 2. To coordinate on-site training for the crew 3. To act as the liaison between civilian authorities and the Commanding Officer 4. To arrange for inpatient treatment |
3. To act as the liaison between civilian
authorities and the Commanding Officer |
|
Which of the following is a true statement
concerning competence for duty exams? 1. The Executive Officer can fill out blocks 1 through 13 of NAVMED 6120/1 2. An Independent Duty Corpsman can fill out blocks 12 - 49 of NAVMED 6120/1 3. The patient must give his written consent before a sample of blood can be obtained 4. A search authorization is required only if the patient refuses to cooperate |
4. A search authorization is required only
if the patient refuses to cooperate |
|
Medical has responsibility for which
aspects of the Physical Readiness Program? 1. Testing 2. Education and training 3. Legal 4. Obesity research |
4. Obesity research
|
|
The responsibility of informing a patient of
the consequences of a non-emergent medical procedure and obtaining informed consent from that patient lies ONLY with the medical provider. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Of the following, who would be the best
choice to witness a patient’s consent to a medical procedure? 1. A stranger 2. An immediate family member 3. A member of the medical team 4. A relative |
1. A stranger
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|
Which is NOT a true statement about an
incident report? 1. They are confidential but if misused or mishandled, they can become public 2. The reports must be limited to only facts and a logical conclusion 3. Copies must be limited 4. They must be forwarded only to the quality assurance coordinator |
2. The reports must be limited to only
facts and a logical conclusion |
|
The Privacy Act governs the disclosure of
documents compiled and maintained by government agencies. 1. True 2. False |
2. False (FOIA)
|
|
Through use of the FOIA an individual can
gain access to information pertaining to himself from federal agency records and correct those records, if necessary. 1. True 2. False |
2. False (Privacy Act)
|
|
FOR QUESTIONS 9-41 THROUGH 9-45, MATCH
THE INSTRUCTION WITH ITS CORRESPONDING NUMBER. ALL ANSWERS WILL NOT BE USED. A. Risk Management Program B. Physical Readiness Program C. Patient Relations Program D. Family Advocacy Program E. CHAMPUS F. Quality Assurance Program G. Sexual Assault Victim Intervention H. Victim and Witness Program OPNAVINST 1752.1. 1. E 2. F 3. G 4. H |
3. G
|
|
FOR QUESTIONS 9-41 THROUGH 9-45, MATCH
THE INSTRUCTION WITH ITS CORRESPONDING NUMBER. ALL ANSWERS WILL NOT BE USED. A. Risk Management Program B. Physical Readiness Program C. Patient Relations Program D. Family Advocacy Program E. CHAMPUS F. Quality Assurance Program G. Sexual Assault Victim Intervention H. Victim and Witness Program BUMEDINST 6320.70. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
4. D
|
|
FOR QUESTIONS 9-41 THROUGH 9-45, MATCH
THE INSTRUCTION WITH ITS CORRESPONDING NUMBER. ALL ANSWERS WILL NOT BE USED. A. Risk Management Program B. Physical Readiness Program C. Patient Relations Program D. Family Advocacy Program E. CHAMPUS F. Quality Assurance Program G. Sexual Assault Victim Intervention H. Victim and Witness Program BUMEDINST 6010.21. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
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|
Which statement is true concerning the
release of an active duty patient under arrest? 1. No official action by hospital personnel is required before local authorities can take custody 2. No patient may be released from treatment before it is medically reasonable to do so 3. The patient must be transported directly to his parent command 4. A federal warrant must be presented before the patient can be released to civilian authority |
3. The patient must be transported
directly to his parent command |
|
The Commanding Officer is authorized to
deliver an active duty patient to civilian authorities when a proper warrant is presented under all of the circumstances listed EXCEPT when 1. the ship is within the territorial waters of the requesting jurisdiction 2. the patient refuses to leave and requests a lawyer 3. the patient is outside the jurisdiction if the civilian authority 4. cognizant JAG office has not been contacted |
3. the patient is outside the jurisdiction if
the civilian authority |
|
All of the following are categories of
eligible prisoner beneficiaries EXCEPT 1. military prisoners 2. nonmilitary federal prisoners 3. prisoners of war and other detained personnel 4. illegal aliens awaiting deporation or processing |
4. illegal aliens awaiting deporation or
processing |
|
Which of the following personnel is
authorized emergency care ONLY? 1. Enemy prisoners of war 2. Nonmilitary federal prisoners 3. A previously active duty person past his EAOS released from a foreign prison 4. Personnel detained by the US government but not yet charged with a crime or arrested |
2. Nonmilitary federal prisoners
|
|
Child abuse and spouse neglect is covered
in what program? 1. SAVI 2. Family Advocacy 3. Risk Management 4. Child and Spouse Protective Services |
2. Family Advocacy
|
|
The Decedent Affairs Program consists of
the search, recovery, identification, care, and disposition of remains of deceased personnel for whom the Department of the Navy is responsible. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
The Casualty Assistance Calls program is
administered by the which of the following commands? 1. Commander, Naval Medical Command 2. Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command 3. Office of Medical Affairs 4. Commanding Officer, Naval Hospital |
2. Commander, Naval Military Personnel
Command |
|
The Casualty Assistance Calls offier assists
the next of kin (NOK) with which of the following item(s)? 1. Disposition of remains 2. Survivor benefits 3. Obtaining the rights and privileges that the NOK is entitle to 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Which of the following programs can only
be activated upon the enactment of special legislation? 1. Return of Remains Program 2. Concurrent Return Program 3. Graves Registration Program 4. Current Decedent Affairs Program |
1. Return of Remains Program
|
|
A. Current Decedent Affairs
Program B. Casualty Assistance Calls Program C. Concurrent Return Program D. Graves Registration Program IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 9-56 THROUGH 9-59, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE PROGRAM THAT MOST CLOSELY RELATES TO THE STATEMENT IN THE QUESTION. Provides for the search, recovery, evacuation, initial identification, and burial in temporary cemeteries when tactical situation does not permit concurrent return. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
4. D
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|
A. Current Decedent Affairs
Program B. Casualty Assistance Calls Program C. Concurrent Return Program D. Graves Registration Program IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 9-56 THROUGH 9-59, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE PROGRAM THAT MOST CLOSELY RELATES TO THE STATEMENT IN THE QUESTION. Provides professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services incident to care and disposition of remains. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
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|
A. Current Decedent Affairs
Program B. Casualty Assistance Calls Program C. Concurrent Return Program D. Graves Registration Program IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 9-56 THROUGH 9-59, SELECT FROM THE ABOVE LIST THE PROGRAM THAT MOST CLOSELY RELATES TO THE STATEMENT IN THE QUESTION May be activated to support large numbers of military personnel committed to a strategic area. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
3. C
|
|
The personnel casualty report of an active
duty Navy member shall be submitted by 1. telegram 2. routine precedence message 3. speedletter 4. priority message |
4. priority message
|
|
Within CONUS, who is responsible for
ensuring the next of kin is notified of a member’s death? 1. Office of Medical Affairs 2. The member’s commanding officer 3. Naval Military Personnel Command 4. Commander, Naval Medical Command |
2. The member’s commanding officer
|
|
The commanding officer will write a
condolence letter to the NOK within _____ hours of the death. 1. 24 2. 36 3. 48 4. 72 |
3. 48
|
|
When search, recovery, and identification
operations continue for more than 36 hours, a progress report will be made to BUMED and MEDDEN Affairs every _____ hours. 1. 8 2. 12 3. 24 4. 36 |
3. 24
|
|
After serving all identification purposes,
the personal effects of a deceased naval member are disposed of as directed in the 1. NAVSUP Manual 2. Manual of the Medical Department 3. Naval Military Personnel Manual 4. JAGMAN |
1. NAVSUP Manual
|
|
Who will be requested to provide an
identification specialist to examine unidentified remains? 1. Naval Military Personnel Command 2. Commander, Naval Medical Command 3. Geographic command 4. Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs |
4. Naval Office of Medical/Dental
Affairs |
|
What is the minimum number of projected
deaths per year required for awarding contracts by naval activities for procuring mortuary services within CONUS? 1. 15 2. 10 3. 8 4. 5 |
2. 10
|
|
To minimize cellular deterioration, remains
should be refrigerated at _____ C. 1. 0° to 2.2° 2. 2.2° to 4.4° 3. 4.4° to 6.6° 4. 6.6° to 8.8° |
2. 2.2° to 4.4°
|
|
How many copies of DD 2064 must
accompany remains being transferred from an overseas activity to a CONUS point of entry? 1. 5 2. 3 3. 2 4. 1 |
2. 3
|
|
Once authorization has been obtained for
burial at sea, who coordinates the arrangements? 1. Commander, Naval Medical Command 2. Chief of Naval Operations 3. Office of Medical Affairs 4. Appropriate fleet commanders in chief |
4. Appropriate fleet commanders in chief
|
|
If it is desired to transport the uncremated
remains by the Air Mobility Command (AMC) within CONUS, prior approval must be obtained from the 1. Commander, Naval Medical Command 2. Chief of Naval Operations 3. Secretary of the Navy 4. Naval Military Personnel Commander |
2. Chief of Naval Operations
|
|
Problems concerning arrangements for a
Navy escort within CONUS should be referred to the 1. Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs 2. Decedent Affairs Officer 3. Commandant of the Marine Corps 4. Area commander |
1. Naval Office of Medical/Dental
Affairs |
|
A request by the primary next of kin
(PNOK) for a special escort must be referred to 1. Chief of Naval Operations 2. Naval Military Personnel Command 3. Naval Office of Medical/Dental Affairs 4. Commander, Naval Medical Command |
3. Naval Office of Medical/Dental
Affairs |
|
The maximum authorized Government
allowance for expenses toward the interment of a deceased active duty member in a private cemetery can be found in which of the following publications? 1. NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1 2. NAVPERS 15955 3. NAVSUP P-485 4. NAVMED P-5016/NAVMC 2509A |
1. NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1
|
|
Who has jurisdiction at the Arlington
National Cemetery? 1. State government 2. Department of the Army 3. Department of the Interior 4. Office of Medical Affairs |
2. Department of the Army
|
|
When group burials are necessary, roundtrip
transportation at government expense to the place of burial is provided for 1. the PNOK 2. all members of the immediate family 3. the PNOK and two blood relatives 4. the PNOK and one other close relative |
3. the PNOK and two blood relatives
|