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279 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
To ensure your work center meets the deadlines set for the
completion of tasks, which of the following factors must you properly manage? 1. Personnel, maintenance, and t i m e 2. Material, maintenance, and time 3. Personnel, material, and time 4. Maintenance, watch standing, and time |
3. Personnel, material, and time
|
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Which of the following resources within your division are the most important in accomplishing a task?
1. Personnel and time 2. Maintenance and time 3. Personnel and materials 4. Maintenance and personnel |
3. Personnel and materials
|
|
A little time should be spent in
your office in the morning and afternoon, then the rest of your time should be spent in the work area. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
As a minimum, how often should you assess your division's personnel and material readiness?
1. Daily 2. Biweekly 3. Monthly 4. Quarterly |
1. Daily
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When you assess your workers' job performance, you should look at which of the following areas?
1. Knowledge, work habits, and character 2. Attitude, knowledge, and work habits 3. Attitude, work habits, and character 4. Attitude, knowledge, and character |
2. Attitude, knowledge, and work habits
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To keep abreast of the knowledge and experience of your personnel, you should randomly review each members
1. departmental record 2. divisional record 3. training record 4. service record |
3. training record
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At a minimum, how often should you take inventory so that you will know when to order additional supplies?
1. Daily 2. Weekly 3. Monthly 4. Quarterly |
2. Weekly
|
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Which of the following logs is used by your division or department to maintain its supply inventory?
1. EDL 2. JSN 3. OPTAR 4. POA&M |
3. OPTAR
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Each command should ensure all hand and power tools are assigned serial numbers.
1. True 2 . F a l s e |
1. True
|
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The equipment deficiency list
contains all of the following information except 1. when it was discovered and the action taken 2. the space and space location 3. the problem or deficiency 4. the PMS requirements |
4. the PMS requirements
|
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What is the work center’s most valuable resource?
1. Equipment 2. Personnel 3. Material 4 Schedule |
2. Personnel
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The Enlisted Distribution
Verification Report can better enable your division to fulfill which of the following requirements without an adverse effect? 1. Liberty 2. Training 3. Watch standing 4. Temporary additional duty |
4. Temporary additional duty
|
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Based on the ship’s overall
manpower, how are TAD requirements usually allocated? 1. By TYCOM directive 2. By work center 3. By department 4. By division |
3. By department
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Which of the following schedules allows for losses in manpower, logistic problems, work stoppages, and personnel training?
1. Work center schedule 2. Annual employment schedule 3. Planning board for training 4. Quarterly employment schedule |
1. Work center schedule
|
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From the annual employment
schedule, all other schedules are developed. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
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Jobs on your work center schedule
are listed by what order of precedence? 1. P r i o r i t y 2. Location 3. Numerical 4. Alphabetical |
1. P r i o r i t y
|
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What writing instrument should be used to fill out a work center schedule and time line?
1. Felt-tip marker 2. Ball-point pen 3. Highlighter 4. Pencil |
4. Pencil
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After your schedule is approved, which of the following requirements
should be met? 1. Goals 2. Working hours 3. Cleaning assignments 4. Maintenance assignments |
1. Goals
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Including your junior petty
officers in the planning process prevents which of the following problems from occurring? 1. Arguments 2. Harassment 3. Skylarking 4. Misunderstandings |
4. Misunderstandings
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How many goal setting elements should you consider when setting goals within the work center?
1. One 2. Two 3. Six 4. Eight |
3. Six
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Keeping abreast of changes prevents crisis management from occurring.
1. True 2. False |
1. True
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When you attend department
meetings, remember to check which of the following factors before the meeting? 1. Assess personnel 2. Work progress 3. Organizing 4. P l a n n i n g |
2. Work progress
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As major job completion dates near, you should never allow which of the following situations to happen?
1. Change the work priority 2. Shorten the work day 3. Neglect major jobs 4. Neglect minor jobs |
4. Neglect minor jobs
|
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Assigning your junior petty
officers challenging jobs will increase which of the following s k i l l s ? 1. Management 2. Leadership 3. Organizational 4. Administrative |
2. Leadership
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The work center supervisor has the complete responsibility for the
completion of a job. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
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When delegating authority, you
should delegate to which of the following competent levels to develop your subordinates? 1. Highest 2. Average 3 . L o w e s t |
3 . L o w e s t
|
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You should inform your subordinates of their standing in the division in which of the following ways?
1. By giving awards 2. By the use of counseling 3. By the use of a memorandum 4. By awarding special privileges |
2. By the use of counseling
|
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Who generates letters of
instruction and command counseling sheets? 1. Work center supervisor 2. D i v i s i o n o f f i c e r 3. Division chief 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
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Counseling sheets and letters of
instruction are entered in a member’s service record. 1. True 2 . F a l s e |
2 . F a l s e
|
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A page 13 entry reflects which of the following types of job
performance? 1. Average 2. Good 3 . B a d 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
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If you use a facsimile stamp of
someone’s signature, what should appear next to the signature to authenticate the facsimile? 1. Acting 2. By direction 3. Your initials 4. Your signature |
3. Your initials
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A naval message should be used instead of a NAVGRAM under which of the following circumstances?
1. The communication is urgent and speed is of primary importance 2. The addressee is an overseas station 3. The communication is classified 4. Its use is cost effective |
1. The communication is urgent and speed is of primary importance
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If a command is the “information addressee” on a message, which of the following actions, if any,
should the command take concerning the message? 1. Route the message to concerned officers to determine the action addressee’s r e s p o n s i b i l i t i e s 2. Whatever action is required within the command 3. The actions directed by the action addressee 4. None of the above |
2. Whatever action is required
within the command |
|
After a naval message has been prepared and signed by the drafter, which of the following persons
releases the message? 1. The drafter 2. The senior Radioman 3. The delegated releasing officer 4. The communications watch o f f i c e r |
3. The delegated releasing officer
|
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Who is responsible for the
validation of the contents of a message? 1. Originator 2. Addressee 3. Releaser 4. Drafter |
3. Releaser
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Who is responsible for the selection of a message precedence?
1. Drafter 2. Releaser 3. Addressee 4. Originator |
1. Drafter
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Who is responsible for the proper addressing of messages?
1. Originator 2. Addressee 3. Releaser 4. Drafter |
4. Drafter
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When assigning precedence to a message, which of the following factors should you
consider? 1. Importance of the subject 2. Desired delivery time 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Seniority of the originator |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
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What is the highest precedence normally
authorized for administrative messages? 1. Immediate 2. Priority 3. Routine 4. Flash |
2. Priority
|
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What precedence is identified by the prosign 0?
1. Flash 2. Priority 3. Immediate 4. Emergency Command |
3. Immediate
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A message is released at 1930 hours
Greenwich mean time on 2 January 1991. What is the correctly stated date-time group (DTG) assisgned to the message? 1. 1930Z 02JAN91 2. 02JAN91 1930Z 3. 19302Z JAN 91 4. 021930Z JAN 91 |
4. 021930Z JAN 91
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Naval messages may have a total of (a) how many originators and (b) how many
action and information addresses? 1. (a) One (b) one each 2. (a) Two (b) two each 3. (a) Three (b) unlimited 4. (a) One (b) unlimited |
4. (a) One (b) unlimited
|
|
Messages addressed to address indicating
groups (AIGs) would most likely contain which of the following types of information? 1. Directive changes 2. Emergency leave requests 3. Destructive storm warnings 4. Personnel changes of station |
3. Destructive storm warnings
|
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When a message is unclassified, what word
or abbreviation should appear on the classification line? 1. UNCLASSIFIED 2. NOCLASS 3. NONCLAS 4. UNCLAS |
4. UNCLAS
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A message readdressal refers to what kind of message?
1. A corrected copy of the original draft 2. A duplicate copy transmitted to an activity because the original was illegible 3. One transmitted to an activity that is not an addressee on the original draft 4. One that has been returned to the originator for additions or deletions by higher authority |
3. One transmitted to an activity that is not an addressee on the original draft
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Unless otherwise directed, all naval message directives are automatically canceled after what maximum period of
time? 1. 12 months 2. 6 months 3. 90 days 4. 30 days |
3. 90 days
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Minimize requires message drafters and releasers to make which of the following considerations?
1. Is the message as short as possible 2. Is electrical transmission essential 3. Can the message be sent at a later date 4. May the message be sent to more than one addressee |
2. Is electrical transmission essential
|
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A rough draft of naval correspondence to be reviewed by a drafting officer should contain which of the following types of information?
1. Two ideas in each sentence and more than one central thought in each paragraph 2. One subject, clearly and concisely written 3. All information pertaining to the subject 4. The smallest details of all the facts |
2. One subject, clearly and concisely
written |
|
What should be your first concern in drafting correspondence?
1. Format 2. Purpose 3. Distribution 4. Security classification |
2. Purpose
|
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When organizing a naval letter, what information should you include in the first
paragraph? 1. References used 2. Listing of addressees 3. Purpose of the letter 4. Overview of the letter contents |
3. Purpose of the letter
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You are assigned the task of writing a piece of naval correspondence. Which of the following steps should be your first?
1. Writing an outline 2. Determining the target date 3. Determining the distribution list 4. Gathering appropriate reference material |
2. Determining the target date
|
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When preparing the rough draft of a naval letter, you should concentrate on which of
the following aspects? 1. Proper spelling and punctuation 2. Proper style and letter format 3. The appropriate references 4. The necessary information |
4. The necessary information
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When reviewing the rough draft of your
correspondence for the first time, which of the following procedures should you follow? 1. Review your accomplishments 2. Remove unnecessary introductory phrases 3. Rework paragraphs that are difficult to understand 4. Make brief notes at points where the text can be improved |
4. Make brief notes at points where the text can be improved
|
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Before presenting smooth
correspondence for signature, you should check for accuracy in which of the following areas. 1. Standard subject identification codes 2. Properly labeledand attached enclosures 3. Correct titles of all addressees 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
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The security classification you assign to naval correspondence is determined by which of the following factors?
1. The number of information addressees 2. The information contained in the correspondence 3. The security classification of related documents 4. The security classification of references contained in the correspondence The security classification you assign to |
2. The information contained in the correspondence
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An endorsement may be placed on the signature page of a naval letter under which of the following circumstances?
1. The text of the endorsement consists of a maximum of three lines 2. The basic letter and the endorsement bear the same security classification 3. The security classification of the endorsement is lower than that of the basic letter 4. The space on the signature page of the basic letter is sufficient to accommodate the entire endorsement |
4. The space on the signature page of the basic letter is sufficient to accommodate the entire endorsement
|
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Correspondence that is used as informal communication between subordinates
within the same activity can be accomplished by using which of the following methods? 1. NAVGRAM 2. Speedletter 3. "Memorandum For" 4. "From-To" memorandum |
4. "From-To" memorandum
|
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What is the purpose of a NAVGRAM?
1. Urgent communications between DOD addressees 2. To ensure priority handling of the correspondence by addressee 3. To transmit urgent correspondence by electrical means 4. To ensure special handling by postal authorities |
1. Urgent communications between DOD addressees
|
|
Our Navy uses a standard filing
system for which of the following reasons? 1. Frequent rotation of personnel 2. Saves the Navy space 3. Saves the Navy money 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Which, if any, of the following
classified material does not require controlled routing? 1. Confidential 2. Top secret 3. Secret 4. None of the above |
1. Confidential
|
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When filing material you should include all of the following except
1. the incoming document 2. a copy of the outgoing correspondence 3. any essential supporting documents 4. all early drafts and extra copies |
4. all early drafts and extra
copies |
|
Standard subject identification
codes (SSICs) provide which of the following standard systems throughout the Navy? 1. Colors 2. Numbers 3. Symbols 4. Alphabets |
2. Numbers
|
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When writing a naval letter, you should ensure it is well organized and orderly. Which of the following writing methods is NOT in the correct order?
1. Stating requests before j u s t i f i c a t i o n s 2. Stating explanations before answers 3. Giving conclusions before discussions 4. Giving summaries before details |
2. Stating explanations before
answers |
|
The order that references appear in reference block of a naval letter is based on which of the following factors?
1. The OPNAV/SECNAV number assigned 2. The length of the title of the reference 3. The order in which they appear in the text 4. The numerical listing |
3. The order in which they appear in the text
|
|
Paragraphs in a naval letter should be short and contain roughly what maximum number of sentences?
1. 4 t o 5 2. 6 t o 7 3. 8 to 10 4. 10 to 12 |
1. 4 t o 5
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For an idea to gain emphasis within a sentence, where should it appear?
1. At the start or the end of the sentence 2. At the end of the sentence only 3. At the start of tie sentence only 4. In the middle of the sentence |
1. At the start or the end of the
sentence |
|
To save words, clarify ideas, and provide balance when you wish to express two or more equally important ideas in a sentence, you should use which of the following
types of sentence construction? 1. Minisentences 2. Topic sentences 3. Rambling sentences 4. Parallel sentences |
4. Parallel sentences
|
|
To make your writing more like
speaking, you should use which of the following writing techniques? 1. Use personal pronouns 2. Use everyday words 3. Use short sentences 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
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Which of the following writing
practices is the best approach to a subject when writing a directive? 1. Write in the “third person” s t y l e 2. Write directly to a user 3. Write in terms of “how to” instructions 4. Write in terms of “how to” c h e c k l i s t s |
2. Write directly to a user
|
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As a subordinate writing to a
senior, which of the following approaches should you avoid when setting the tone of the letter? 1. Directing 2. Suggesting 3. Requesting 4. Recommending |
1. Directing
|
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Which of the following words hurt naval writing by stretching
sentences, delaying meaning, and hiding responsibility? 1. Request you 2. You are 3. I t i s 4 . I a m |
3. It is
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For economy in writing, you should
use as many abbreviations as p o s s i b l e . 1. True 2. False |
2. False
|
|
Make a ________inventory of material being used. Also make a __________inventory to order supplies.
|
daily, weekly
|
|
Define EDVR
|
Your command maintains an inventory of personnel. This report is called the enlisted distribution verification report. (EDVR).
|
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How do the commands put out the EDVR
|
The EDVR is a computer printout of the number of personnel in each rate at the command
|
|
Why is the Quarterly employment schedule important ?
|
• The quarterly employment schedule shows changes in the ship’s operations that could alter each department’s long range plan.
• Before making your work center schedule refer to the command’s annual and quarterly employment schedules. |
|
How many kinds of counciling are their ?
|
• You can use three methods of counseling:
- Counseling sheet/letter of instruction - Page 13 entry (service record) - Document the positive/ negative marks on the evaluation report |
|
What are some ways to recognize good performance?
|
• You can recognize good performance with rewards such as special liberty, late sleepers, extra time off at lunch, etc.
• Other types of recognition: - Sailor of the Quarter/Year - Letter of Appreciation - Letter of Commendation - Navy Achievement Medal - Meritorious advancement |
|
What are two types of authority and what do they mean ?
|
• There are two types of authority.
- general - Organizational • General authority is given to officers and petty officers so they can fulfill their duties and responsibilities. • Individuals have organizational authority needed to fulfill duties and responsibilities by virtue of their positions within the Navy organization. |
|
How must the CO have knowledge of the delegated authority granted ?
|
• The CO must have all delegated signatures in writing
|
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Why is delegated authority delegated to title rather than names?
|
Delegated signatures are delegated to titles rather than names, because people come and go but the position will be their and assumed by someone.
|
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How do subordinates sign documents under delegated authority?
|
When subordinates sign documents under delegated authority, they usually sign “by direction"
|
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What is the originator and releaser responsible for on a message?
|
The originator is responsible for the functions of the message drafter and message releaser.
•The Releaser is responsible for validating the contents of the message. Usually the CO is the releasing officer, but the CO can delegate releasing authority. |
|
How are messages divided what are their prosigns?
|
• Messages are divided into four common precedence categories:
- Routine (prosign R) - Priority (prosign P) - Immediate (prosign O) - Flash (prosign Z) |
|
What are the time limits given for each prosign?
|
Z - 10 min
O - 30 min P - 3 hours R - 6 hours |
|
An element that enables a seadependent nation to project its political, economic, and military strengths seaward is known as?
|
sea power
|
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The true strength of sea power can only be measured in terms of a nation’s ability to use the sea to further its?
|
national objectives
|
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It is more feasible to send naval forces, in comparison to other military forces, into crisis areas for which of the following reasons?
|
The cost is low; Naval forces can stay on station indefinitely; Naval forces leave behind no physical reminders of their presence
|
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To continue to exist as we know it today, the United States must have a policy that recognizes its?
|
worldwide commitments
|
|
What are the three fundamental pillars on which United States military strategy rests?
|
Deterrence, forward defense,
and alliance solidarity |
|
What responses could the United States take in the event of aggression by a potential enemy?
|
meet force with force at the point of attack; increase the intensity of the conflict; alter the geographic width of the conflict; or control the duration of fighting.
|
|
The Navy has the ability to outlast any aggressor with?
|
secure sea-lanes
|
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True or False. In time of emergency the Navy must be able to venture into harm’s way.
|
True
|
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What are the components of the TRIAD of strategic nuclear forces?
|
BALLISTIC MISSILES, INTERCONTINENTAL BALLISTIC MISSILES (ICBMs) and LONG-RANGE BOMBERS.
|
|
What is the most flexible element of the TRIAD?
|
Intercontinental ballistic
missiles |
|
What is the sole mission and
fundamental reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine? |
To deter war
|
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The TRIAD has been developed and maintained for which of the following purposes?
|
to deter nuclear attack
|
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Ships of the Second Fleet patrol some of the world’s most important trade routes. In what area of the world does the Second Fleet normally patrol?
|
Western Atlantic
|
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Which of the following fleets would you find in the Western Pacific and Indian Ocean regions?
|
Seventh
|
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Which of the following terms
describes an attack that is intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destroy an objective? |
Strike
|
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Which of the following characteristics of a strike force is one of its greatest assets?
|
Mobility
|
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What are the types of task forces organized primarily for strike force operations?
|
carrier, surface, and submarine strike forces
|
|
The primary mission of our
submarine force is to destroy which of the following types of enemy ships? |
submarines
|
|
The first fleet ballistic missile submarine was launched in what year?
|
1959
|
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When the term “TRIDENT” is used, it is understood to include which of the following elements?
|
submarines, missiles, and base.
|
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Trident I missiles have a multiple warhead capability and a maximum range of how many nautical miles?
|
4,000
|
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The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear
weapons? |
strike
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The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships?
|
antisurface ship
|
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Naval operations generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature?
|
special
|
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This type of warfare prevents the effective use of cargo-carrying vessels by the enemy?
|
antisurface ship
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Correctly interpreted, this type of warfare permits military decisions to be based on accurate knowledge of the enemy’s forces and capabilities?
|
intelligence
|
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CMEO is an equal opportunity
management system controlled primarily at which of the following l e v e l s ? 1. Command 2. Secretary of Defense 3. Secretary of the Navy 4. Chief of Naval Operations |
1. Command
|
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Which of the following supervisors supports the Navy’s Equal Opportunity program?
1. The one who relates positively and directly with all people e q u a l l y 2. The one who only listens to one point of view 3. The one who stereotypes people 4. The one who feels it necessary to intimidate some people to achieve goals |
1. The one who relates positively and directly with all people e q u a l l y
|
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To manage and supervise people effectively, you must have which of the following leadership skills?
1. The ability to ignore conflicts among various groups 2. The ability to listen to and understand what people have to say 3. The ability to place people in correct racial, ethnic, and religious categories 4. The ability to substitute generalized ideas about people when you aren’t sure of their motives |
2. The ability to listen to and
understand what people have to say |
|
To help your subordinates grow both personally and professionally, you
must use which of the following supervisory practices? 1. Provide timely feedback on performance 2. Provide on-the-job training 3. Identify their strengths and weaknesses 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
If a person commits an act of
arbitrary discrimination, the commanding officer may take which of the following disciplinary actions? 1. Assign lower evaluation marks 2. Award nonjudicial punishment 3. Submit a recommendation for separation 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
The Navy Rights and
Responsibilities workshop is conducted by which of the following groups? 1. Command Training Team (CTT) 2. Command Assessment Team (CAT) 3. Command Rights and Responsibilities Team 4. Striker Board |
1. Command Training Team (CTT)
|
|
Which of the following subjects is NOT covered during the Navy Rights
and Responsibilities workshop? 1. Navy Regulations 2. Combatant skills 3. Enlistment contract 4. Grievance and redress |
2. Combatant skills
|
|
Information concerning equal
opportunity contained in command records may NOT be obtained through which of the following methods? 1. Surveys 2. Training 3. Interviews 4. Observations |
2. Training
|
|
What two methods of data collecting by the CAT require other data sources to be used to draw conclusions and produce findings that can be validly interpreted?
1. Command records and Interviews 2. Interviews and observations 3. Observations and surveys 4. Surveys and interviews |
3. Observations and surveys
|
|
Nonjudicial punishment is better known in the Navy by which of the following titles?
1. Mast 2. Court-martial 3. Captains mast 4. Executive officers investigation |
3. Captains mast
|
|
Without using court-martial
intervention. what article of the UCMJ empowers a commanding officer to impose punishment for minor offenses on both officer and enlisted personnel? 1. 5 2. 10 3. 15 4. 20 |
3. 15
|
|
Under the UCMJ, punishment must be imposed within 2 years of the o f f e n s e .
1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
The Report and Disposition of
Offense(s), NAVPERS 1626/7, contains all of the following information except 1. preliminary inquiry report 2. action of the XO at screening mast 3. record of any pre-mast restraint 4. all of the required pre-mast advice that must be given to the accused |
4. all of the required pre-mast
advice that must be given to the accused |
|
Who must ensure that within a reasonable amount of time of the report of an offense that the accused is fully advised of his or her rights concerning a possible NJP?
1. Legal officer 2. Chief Master-at-Arms 3. Officer contemplating imposing NJP 4. Department head and division officer of the accused |
3. Officer contemplating imposing NJP
|
|
Your rights are found under what UCMJ article?
1. 15 2. 31 3. 37 4. 38 |
2. 31
|
|
The preliminary inquiry officer
(PIO) completes what section of the NAVPERS 1626/7? 1. C 2. E 3. G 4. I |
2. E
|
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Under article 15 of the UCMJ, the commanding officer has how many punishments identified that he or
she can impose at mast? 1. 3 2. 6 3. 9 4. 12 |
3. 9
|
|
Restriction is the least severe
form of deprivation of liberty. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Arrest in quarters may only be
imposed on which of the following naval personnel? 1. E-1 through E-9 2. W-2 through W-4 3. 0-1 through 0-10 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
Confinement on bread and water has a maximum duration of how many
days? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
3. 3
|
|
Which of the following punishments i s considered the most severe form of NJP
1. Correctional custody 2. Reduction in grade 3. Forfeiture of pay 4. Restriction |
2. Reduction in grade
|
|
Under article 15 of the UCMJ, you have how many days to appeal the punishment awarded to you if you
feel that it was unjust or disproportionate? 1. 5 2. 10 3. 15 4. 20 |
1. 5
|
|
Which of the following terms
describes the Navy’s recognition that drug and alcohol abuse is incompatible with the Navy’s effort to instill pride and professionalism? 1. Zero defects 2. Zero tolerance 3. Screening with meaning 4. Self-referrals preferable |
2. Zero tolerance
|
|
Why has the Navy taken a firm stand against drug abuse?
1. Drug abuse undermines combined readiness 2. Drug abuse is costly in lost man-hours 3. Drug abuse causes the loss of morale and esprit de corps 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
What is the most valuable detection and deterrence tool used by the Navy to identify drug abusers?
1. Annual physicals 2. Urinalysis testing 3. Drug detection dogs 4. Undercover military police |
2. Urinalysis testing
|
|
Each urinalysis sample is tested how many minimum number of times by
one of the Navy’s drug screening laboratories? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Five |
3. Three
|
|
Under the Navy’s policy for drug abusers, which of the following actions is taken if a PO2 commits a drug abuse offense?
1. The person is screened for drug dependency 2. The person is afforded in-service residential treatment 3. The person is processed for immediate separation 4. The person is given a waiver if he or she has exhibited exceptional service |
3. The person is processed for
immediate separation |
|
A drug abuser deeply under the influence of narcotics displays which of the following
characteristics? 1. Anxiety 2. Lethargy 3. Lucidity 4. H o s t i l i t y |
2. Lethargy
|
|
Which of the following
paraphernalia found in a locker is an indication that the person is a narcotics abuser? 1. Bent spoons 2. Eyedroppers 3. Cotton balls 4 . A l l o f t h e a b o v e |
4 . All of the above
|
|
A person who abuses heroin develops a tolerance for the drug. How does this tolerance affect the person’s reaction to the drug?
1. The drug no longer has an effect on the person’s central nervous system 2. Larger doses are required for the same effect 3. Smaller doses are required for the same effect 4. The drug no longer has an effect on the person’s bloodstream |
2. Larger doses are required for
the same effect |
|
Normally, which of the following signs is the first emotional reaction following a dose of heroin?
1. A feeling of relief 2. A state of inactivity 3. A state of extreme stress 4. A feeling of weightlessness |
1. A feeling of relief
|
|
Drinking a large amount of cough medication is a common method of
abusing which of the following drugs? 1. Opium 2. Heroin 3. Codeine 4. Morphine |
3. Codeine
|
|
A drug abuser who suffers long
periods of time without sleeping or eating is probably abusing which of the following types of drugs? 1. Alcohol 2. Narcotics 3. Stimulants 4. Depressants |
3. Stimulants
|
|
A person who has taken an overdose of cocaine may experience which of
the following reactions? 1. Death 2. Anxiety 3. Euphoria 4. Excitation |
1. Death
|
|
Which of the following drugs can cause the heart or arteries to burst and cause a massive coronary?
1. Crack 2. Codeine 3. Amphetamines 4. Phencyclidine |
1. Crack
|
|
Which of the following drugs is
abused on the pretense of weight control? 1. Marijuana 2. Methadone 3. Amphetamines 4. Phencyclidine |
3. Amphetamines
|
|
Abuse of which of the following
types of drugs results in the appearance of alcohol intoxication, but without the odor of alcohol on the breath? 1. Narcotics 2. Stimulants 3. Depressants 4. Hallucinogens |
3. Depressants
|
|
Depressant overdoses, when taken with alcohol, may result in which of the following conditions?
1. Death 2. Articulate speech 3. Mellow disposition 4. Keen sense of humor |
1. Death
|
|
Abuse of which of the following
types of drugs may result in reoccurring effects months after the drug has been taken? 1. Hallucinogens 2. Depressants 3. Stimulants 4. Narcotics |
1. Hallucinogens
|
|
Which of the following indicators is one of the dangers to the hallucinogen abuser?
1. A change in sleeping habits 2. A change in the mental c o n d i t i o n 3. The physical dependence created by the drug 4. The unpredictability of the effects of the drug |
4. The unpredictability of the
effects of the drug |
|
Which of the following conditions is an indicator of a marijuana abuser presently under the influence of the substance?
1. Loud and rapid talking 2. Great bursts of laughter 3. In a stupor or seems sleepy 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
The effects of marijuana on the
emotions and senses of the user depend on which of the following f a c t o r s ? 1. The amount and strength of the substance 2. The social setting and expected e f f e c t s 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. The DNA structure of the user |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
Volatile chemical abuse is usually indicated by which of the following conditions?
1. Constricted pupils 2. Clear whites of the eyes 3. White substance around the n o s t r i l s 4. Smell of the chemical on the breath |
4. Smell of the chemical on the
breath |
|
Which of the following personnel are subject to participation in the
urinalysis testing program? 1. Officer personnel under the age of 25 only 2. Enlisted personnel in paygrades E-4 and below only 3. Enlisted personnel only, regardless of rank or age 4. All enlisted and officer personnel, regardless of the rank or age |
4. All enlisted and officer
personnel, regardless of the rank or age |
|
Which of the following persons must have prior knowledge of a drug detection dog inspection or search?
1. The dog handler 2. The commanding officer 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. All personnel involved in the search |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
Which of the following types of
behavior could be a positive clue that a person is abusing some form of drugs? 1. Wanting to sell a stereo system and TV set at the same time 2. Repeatedly showing symptoms associated with drug abuse 3. Botching a job when it is known that the person is usually a top performer 4. Keeping tablets, capsules, or other forms of drugs in one’s l o c k e r |
2. Repeatedly showing symptoms associated with drug abuse
|
|
The number one drug problem in the United States is the abuse of which of the following substances?
1. Alcohol 2. C o c a i n e 3. Marijuana 4. Barbiturates |
1. Alcohol
|
|
Alcohol is classified as what type of drug?
1. Hallucinogen 2. Depressant 3. Stimulant 4. Narcotic |
2. Depressant
|
|
Which of the following
characteristics or symptoms identifies a person suffering from alcoholism? 1. Physical dependence 2. Psychological dependence 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Infrequent consumption |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
All Navy supervisors should be
familiar with the Navy’s policy regarding alcoholism as outlined in the OPNAVINST on alcohol and drug abuse prevention and control. What is the purpose of this instruction with regard to alcohol abuse? 1. To discourage the use of alcohol 2. To acknowledge the Navy’s responsibility for counseling and to aid alcoholics in recovery 3. To publish the disciplinary action that may be taken against a known alcoholic 4. To set limits on the amount of alcohol that may be consumed before a person is considered a problem drinker |
2. To acknowledge the Navy’s
responsibility for counseling and to aid alcoholics in recovery |
|
When, if ever, would the promotion prospects of a recovered alcoholic be affected?
1. If the recovered alcoholic attended a rehabilitation program 2. If misconduct or poor performance resulted from alcoholism 3. If the recovered alcoholic is still attending AA meetings 4. Never |
2. If misconduct or poor
performance resulted from alcoholism |
|
For which of the following reasons does alcohol quickly affect the central nervous system?
1. It is rapidly absorbed by the kidneys 2. It remains in the digestive tract for long periods 3. It is immediately absorbed into the bloodstream 4. It is metabolized at a faster rate as more is consumed |
3. It is immediately absorbed into the bloodstream
|
|
What indicator is used by most states to determine whether or nota person is intoxicated?
1. Slurred speech 2. Blood-alcohol level 3. Poor motor coordination 4. Number of drinks consumed |
2. Blood-alcohol level
|
|
In the chronic stages of
alcoholism, tolerance decreases markedly until the victim may become drunk on relatively small amounts of alcohol. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
In which of the following ways does alcohol, when taken in combination with other drugs, affect the body?
1. The other drug is metabolized quicker than the alcohol and has no effect 2. The other drug is metabolized slower than the alcohol and remains active for longer periods 3. The alcohol counteracts the other drug, causing little, if any, effect on the body 4. Both work as a stimulant and cause severe hyperactivity |
2. The other drug is metabolized slower than the alcohol and remains active for longer periods
|
|
Which of the following long-term effects can be expected by a person who is a heavy drinker for a prolonged period of time?
1. Lowered resistance to infectious diseases 2. Damage to the major organs of the body 3. Deterioration of memory and judgement 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Many definitions are used to
describe problem drinking or alcoholism. Which of the following statements describes an alcoholic? 1. A person who depends on alcohol to help him or her function in everyday life 2. A person who depends on friends to purchase alcohol 3. A person who frequents bars for the purpose of getting drunk 4. A person who thinks that he or she must drink to be accepted |
1. A person who depends on alcohol to help him or her function in everyday life
|
|
Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosing of alcoholism?
1. It is often slow to be recognized 2. It is an easily identifiable disease 3. It is usually diagnosed in the early stage 4. It is a simple procedure if caught in the early stages of problem drinking |
1. It is often slow to be
recognized |
|
What treatment technique does the Navy use in returning an alcoholic to a useful and productive life?
1. A treatment that is developed by the command 2. A treatment that must be developed by the individual 3. One that matches the needs of the person to the appropriate therapy 4. One that provides treatment and appropriate disciplinary action for each case |
3. One that matches the needs of the person to the appropriate therapy
|
|
Which of the following social
stigmas is usually attached to an a l c o h o l i c ? 1. Alcoholism only affects the poor and uneducated 2. Alcoholism is a moral weakness rather than an illness 3. Alcoholism is a treatable disease only in its earlier stages 4. Alcoholism only affects people who are social outcasts |
2. Alcoholism is a moral weakness rather than an illness
|
|
Alcohol abuse prevention is the
responsibility of which of the following persons? 1. The individual 2. The commanding officer 3. The Chief of Naval Education and Training 4. The master chief petty officer of the Navy |
1. The individual
|
|
Which of the following actions can commands take to help eliminate practices and customs that encourage personnel to drink?
1. Emphasize moderation 2. Provide educational programs 3. Ensure adequate quantities of nonalcoholic beverages 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
What is the maximum time a person may be assigned to a Level II counseling program?
1. 6 months 2. 2 months 3. 6 weeks 4. 4 weeks |
4. 4 weeks
|
|
Navy personnel who have a drinking problem can receive which of the following types of care from a Navy hospital?
1. Evaluation 2. Detoxification 3. Primary rehabilitation 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Who is responsible to the
commanding officer for carrying out the policies of the Navy Drug and Alcohol Abuse Program (NADAP)? 1. DAPA 2. CAAC 3. ARD 4. NAVALREHCEN |
1. DAPA
|
|
The Navy operates how many alcohol rehabilitation centers
(NAVALREHCEN)? 1. 5 2. 6 3. 3 4. 4 |
4. 4
|
|
As a supervisor faced with a drug or alcohol problem caused by one of
your division personnel, which of the following helping resources can you turn to for advice and assistance? 1. The chaplain 2. The command master chief 3. The senior personnel around you 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
The authority which is granted to all officers and petty officers to fulfill their duties and
responsibilities is known as what type of authority? 1. General 2. Unlimited 3. Meritorious 4. Organizational |
1. General
|
|
The authority that an individual
may hold by virtue of assignment to a specific billet within an organizational unit of the Navy is known as what type of authority? 1. General 2. Unlimited 3. Meritorious 4. Organizational |
4. Organizational
|
|
General responsibilities and duties of all officers and petty officers within the Navy.
1. Article 1020 2. Article 1023 3. Article 1037 4. Article 1132 |
3. Article 1037
|
|
The right to exercise authority
over all subordinate personnel. 1. Article 1020 2. Article 1023 3. Article 1037 4. Article 1132 |
1. Article 1020
|
|
As a petty officer you have the
authority to issue orders. Subordinates are required to follow your orders only if your orders are 1. lawful 2. given in harsh language 3. contain the reason why the order should be carried out 4. given with no opportunity for the subordinate to ask questions |
1. lawful
|
|
What article of the UCMJ allows nonjudicial punishment to be awarded?
1. Article 7 2. Article 15 3. Article 29 4. Article 134 |
2. Article 15
|
|
Which of the following personnel has the authority to administer nonjudicial punishment?
1. Chief petty officer 2. Petty officer who is E-6 and above 3. Executive officer 4. Commanding officer |
4. Commanding officer
|
|
Which of the following actions may be taken to correct military deficiencies in junior personnel?
1. Withhold privileges 2. Assign extra military instruction (EMI) 3 . B o t h 1 a n d 2 a b o v e 4. Extend normal working hours |
3 . Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
Which of the following actions to
correct a military or professional deficiency can be awarded only through nonjudicial punishment? 1. Assign extra duty 2. Withhold privileges 3. Assign extra military instruction (EMI) 4. Extend normal working hours |
1. Assign extra duty
|
|
When EMI is assigned to correct a military deficiency, which of the following limitations normally is
observed? 1 . E M I i s a s s i g n e d i n f a v o r o f awarding extra duty 2. EMI is assigned in periods not to exceed 2 hours daily 3. EMI is assigned only during normal working hours 4. EMI is assigned, where possible, as a substitute for punitive measures covered under the UCMJ |
2. EMI is assigned in periods not to exceed 2 hours daily
|
|
The temporary withholding of
privileges is an effective tool in correcting a minor infraction of a military regulation. Which of the following privileges CANNOT be withheld as part of this nonpunitive measure? 1. Exchange of duty 2. Normal liberty 3. Base parking 4. Special pay |
2. Normal liberty
|
|
Which of the following persons has the final authority to withhold a p r i v i l e g e ?
1. Division chief petty officer 2. Work center supervisor 3. Commanding officer 4. Each of the above |
3. Commanding officer
|
|
For which of the following reasons would it NOT be appropriate for a supervisor to extend an individual’s normal working hours?
1. To complete additional essential work 2. To complete a work assignment that should have been completed during working hours 3. To perform work to maintain a required level of operational readiness 4. To perform work as punishment for substandard performance of d u t y |
4. To perform work as punishment for substandard performance of d u t y
|
|
In which of the following
publications will you find the description of the duties, responsibilities, and authority of a division officer? 1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy 2. Tactical Action Officer’s Handbook 3. Watch Officer’s Guide 4. Navy Regulations |
1. Standard Organization and
Regulations of the U.S. Navy |
|
When making duty assignments such
as general quarters stations or a cleaning station, who should be assigned responsibility for that duty? 1. A specific work center 2. A specific person 3. The department 4. The division |
2. A specific person
|
|
As the LPO you are assigning a work center supervisor to coordinate the painting of a compartment. The job is assigned poorly if which of the following persons has (a) the responsibility for the task and (b) the authority to accomplish the task?
1. (a) Supervisor ( b ) y o u 2. (a) Supervisor (b) supervisor 3. ( a ) Y o u (b) supervisor 4. ( a ) Y o u ( b ) y o u |
4. ( a ) Y o u
( b ) y o u |
|
An action or task required by one’s position that is expected or required by moral or legal obligation is a duty. Duties fall into which of the following categories?
1. M i l i t a r y o n l y 2. Moral and military 3. Administrative only 4. Military and administrative |
4. Military and administrative
|
|
The ship’s watch organization is second in importance only to the organization for battle. Which of the following personnel is/are
responsible for understanding the watch organization? 1. Nonrated personnel only 2. Petty officers only 3. Officers only 4. All hands |
4. All hands
|
|
The watch, quarter, and station
bill contains which of the following assignments? 1. Messing assignments 2. Liberty boat assignments 3. Collision station assignments 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Who should approve changes to the division’s watch, quarter, and station bill?
1. Executive officer 2. Commanding officer 3. Officer of the deck 4. Command duty officer |
1. Executive officer
|
|
Billet numbers on the watch,
quarter, and station bill consist of either four numerals or a letter and three numerals. What do the last two numerals indicate? 1. Section seniority 2. Division assigned 3. Watch precedence 4. Recall priority |
1. Section seniority
|
|
Responsibility for ensuring
division members are aware of their watch, quarter, and station bill assignments is delegated to which of the following persons? 1. Division chief 2. Division officer 3. Division leading petty officer 4. Division training petty officer overboard |
2. Division officer
|
|
The watch, quarter, and station
bill should be updated at approximately what minimum frequency? 1. Continually 2. Quarterly 3. Monthly 4. Weekly |
1. Continually
|
|
Which of the following management tools should be used by the division officer to maintain a current watch, quarter, and station
b i l l ? 1. Battle bill 2. S h i p ’ s b i l l 3. Division notebook 4. Division officer’s guide |
3. Division notebook
|
|
Which of the following explanations is a purpose of the general emergency bill?
1. To provide detailed procedures for every emergency that can occur 2. To establish a plan for salvaging captured enemy vessels 3. To organize the crew to handle the effects of a major emergency 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Which of the following actions
should you immediately take if you see one of your shipmates fall overboard? 1. Notify the OOD 2. Call out, “Man overboard, port (or starboard) side” 3. Provide lifesaving equipment to the person if possible 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Which of the following officers is responsible for the administration
of the CBR defense bill? 1. Safety officer 2. Division officer 3. CBR defense officer 4. Damage control assistant |
4. Damage control assistant
|
|
Which of the following commands must have an emergency destruction
b i l l ? 1. A deployable command 2. A command located outside the United States 3. A command having COMSEC m a t e r i a l 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Based on the emergency destruction plan, you would destroy classified material for which of the following reasons?
1. If the material was obsolete and of no further value to the command 2. If the material was subject to compromise by unauthorized personnel 3. If the material was subject to capture by an enemy 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
During the emergency destruction of classified material, which of the
following material should be destroyed first? 1. Secret COMSEC material 2. Top secret special access material 3. Secret special access material 4. Confidential COMSEC material |
2. Top secret special access
material |
|
PQS does not apply to which of the following systems?
1. Surface to air systems 2. Torpedo firing systems 3. Nuclear propulsion systems 4. Coast Guard weapons systems |
3. Nuclear propulsion systems
|
|
Each personnel qualification
standard is divided into which of the following subdivision(s)? 1. Systems 2. Fundamentals 3. Watchstations/Maintenance actions 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Serves as a self-study aid for the trainee.
1. 100 2. 200 3. 300 |
1. 100
|
|
Tests the trainee’s readiness to perform a designated task.
1. 100 2. 200 3. 300 |
3. 300
|
|
Breaks the subject equipment into smaller, more easily understood s e c t i o n s .
1. 100 2. 200 3. 300 |
2. 200
|
|
Addresses specific or unique safety
precautions. 1. 100 2. 200 3. 300 |
2. 200
|
|
PQS should be considered as a separate program with its own distinct managerial system.
1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Sign-off authority for final PQS
qualification may be delegated to what minimum level of authority? 1. Division CPO 2. Department head 3. Division officer 4. Work center supervisor |
2. Department head
|
|
Recommends interim qualification of watch standers.
1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. PQS coordinator 4. Department head |
4. Department head
|
|
Designates in writing those
individuals authorized to act as q u a l i f i e r s . 1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. PQS coordinator 4. Department head |
1. Commanding officer
|
|
Acts as an overall training
supervisor. 1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. PQS coordinator 4. Department head |
2. Executive officer
|
|
Responsible for ordering all
departmental PQS material. 1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. PQS coordinator 4. Department head |
3. PQS coordinator
|
|
Responsible for maintaining PQS
software. 1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. PQS coordinator 4. Department head |
3. PQS coordinator
|
|
Recommends final qualification to the commanding officer.
1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. PQS coordinator 4. Department head |
4. Department head
|
|
The enlisted service record
contains both official and unofficial papers. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
The actual service record is
contained on which of the following side(s) of the enlisted service record? 1. L e f t 2. R i g h t 3. Both 1 and 2 above |
2. R i g h t
|
|
Navywide advancement exams are based on which of the following standards?
1. PQS standards 2. PMS standards 3. Naval standards 4. Occupational standards |
4. Occupational standards
|
|
Which of the following
commissioning programs provides the Navy with officers who are technical specialists in their f i e l d s ? 1. Limited Duty Officer Program 2. Chief Warrant Officer Program 3. Enlisted Commissioning Program 4. Officer Candidate School Program |
2. Chief Warrant Officer Program
|
|
What maximum number of years active service can a master chief petty officer serve and still be eligible to apply for the Chief Warrant Officer Program?
1. 24 years 2. 20 years 3. 16 years 4. 12 years |
1. 24 years
|
|
Which of the following officer
programs does/do not require a college education? 1. Officer Candidate School Program 2. Chief Warrant Officer Program 3. Limited Duty Officer Program 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
Which of the following personnel may apply for the Chief Warrant Officer Program?
1. E-6, regular Navy, with 18 years of active service 2. E-7, Naval Reserve, with 10 years of Reserve service 3. E-8, Regular Navy, with 26 years of active service 4. E-9, Training and Administration of Reserves (TAR), with 22 years of service |
4. E-9, Training and
Administration of Reserves (TAR), with 22 years of service |
|
Personnel who apply for the CWO Physician’s Assistant Program must be graduates of only the Basic Hospital Corps School.
1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Which of the following personnel may NOT apply for the Limited Duty Officer Program?
1. E-7 with 8 years of active s e r v i c e 2. E-8 with 14 years of active s e r v i c e 3. E-9 with 15 years of active s e r v i c e 4. E-6 with 10 years of active service and 2 years time in r a t e |
3. E-9 with 15 years of active
s e r v i c e |
|
If you are a PO1 applicant for LDO and have met all requirements of CPO/SCPO applicants, which of the
following additional requirements must you meet? 1. Have a final multiple score (FMS) equal to or greater than the lowest FMS for PASS SELECTION BOARD ELIGIBLE 2. Have Personnel Advancement Requirements for E-8 signed off 3. Have been awarded the Navy Commendation Medal 4. All of the above |
1. Have a final multiple score
(FMS) equal to or greater than the lowest FMS for PASS SELECTION BOARD ELIGIBLE |
|
What minimum active service
obligation must ECP selectees have before detaching from their present command? 1. 6 years 2. 2 years 3. 3 years 4. 4 years |
1. 6 years
|
|
Navy Regulations requires the
clothing of all nonrated personnel to be inspected at what interval? 1. Annually 2. Semiannually 3. At regular intervals 4. At irregular intervals |
3. At regular intervals
|
|
Quarters for muster and inspection are held each work day just before
1. 0600 2. 0700 3. 0800 4. 0900 |
3. 0800
|
|
Which of the following
commissioning programs requires that you have at least a baccalaureate degree? 1. Enlisted Commissioning Program 2. Limited Duty Officer Program 3. Officer Candidate School Program 4. Chief Warrant Officer Program |
3. Officer Candidate School
Program |
|
Which of the following courses
is/are recommended for an individual preparing for LDO s e l e c t i o n ? 1. Navy Regulations 2. Human Behavior 3. Watch Officer 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Where is the Second Fleet located?
|
Atlantic ocean
CINCLANTFLT |
|
Where is the Sixth Fleet located?
|
Mediterranean Sea
CINCUSNAVEUR |
|
Where is the Third Fleet?
|
West coast of the United States CINCPACFLT
|
|
Where is the Seventh Fleet?
|
Western Pacific and Indian Ocean CINCPACFLT
|
|
Where is the Fifth Fleet?
|
Middle East CENTCOM
|
|
What was the first Trident submarine launched?
|
Ohio SSBN-726
|
|
What is Amphibious warfare?
|
Attacks launched from the sea onto an enemy shore.
|
|
What is Mine warfare?
|
The use of mines and mine countermeasures to control sea or harbor areas.
|
|
What is Special warfare?
|
Nonconventional in nature and usualy conducted in secrecy.
|
|
What is Ocean Surveilance?
|
Ocean surveillance is the observation of ocean areas to detect, locate, and classify selected air, surface,
and subsurface targets. |
|
What is Electronic warfare?
|
Electronic warfare ensures the effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum by friendly forces while determining, reducing, or preventing its use by an enemy.
|
|
What is Logistics?
|
The resupply of combat consumables to combatant forces during operations.
|
|
What is the shipboard integrated AAW combat weapons system?
|
AEGIS
|
|
How many targets can the AEGIS system track at once?
|
Over 100
|
|
What is the Navy's medium-range, rocket boosted, turbo-sustained cruise missile?
|
Harpoon
|
|
What is the Navy's first all-weather, automatic-controlled gunsystem designed to provide defense against close in, seaskimming cruise missiles?
|
The Phalanx
|
|
What air to air missile was introduced to the fleet with the F-14 aircraft in 1974?
|
Phoenix
|
|
What is the Navy's all weather, submarine or suface launched, longrange subsonic cruise missile?
|
Tomahawk
|
|
What is the ability to deploy and employ without unacceptable delays?
|
Readiness
|
|
What instruction do ships base all drills and basic bills from?
|
SORN
Standard Organization and Regulations of the Navy OPNAVINST 3120.32 |
|
What is OPNAVINST 3120.32?
|
SORN
|
|
What type of ships is the Ticonderoga class?
|
CG
|
|
What type of ship is the Oliver Hazard Perry?
|
FFG
|
|
What type of ship is the Arliegh Burke?
|
DDG
|
|
What type of ship is the Ohio?
|
SSBN
|
|
What type of aircraft is the Tomcat?
|
F-14
|
|
What type of aircraft is the Hornet?
|
F-18
|
|
The RIM-66 is what type of missile?
|
Standard surface to air
|
|
The Rim-67 is what type of missle?
|
Extended range standard missile
|
|
The RGM-84 is what type of missile?
|
Harpoon antiship missile
|
|
What is an AIM-54?
|
Phoenix air to air missile
|
|
What is a MK-48?
|
Torpedo
|
|
What is a BGM-109?
|
Tomahawk Cruise missile
|
|
What type of training is designed to turn a materially ready and manned ship into a ship that is fully capable of performing its assigned mission.
|
Refresher training
|
|
Which inspections ensure ships follow correct record setup and administrative procedures?
These inspections give the greatest attention to the ship’s planned maintenance system (PMS). |
Administrative inspections
|
|
MOST EFFECTIVE WAY TO INFORM PERSONNEL OF THEIR STANDING IN THE DIVISION.
|
COUNSELING
|
|
3 METHODS OF COUNSELING YOUR DIVISION CAN USE.
|
LETTTER OF INSTRUCTION/COUNSELING SHEET
PAGE 13 ENLISTED EVALUATION REPORT |
|
NOTES A DISCREPANCY, RECOMMENDS A SOLUTION TO THAT PROBLEM, AND PROVIDES A FOLLOW-UP DATE FOR REEVALUATION.
|
COUNSELING SHEETS
|
|
ADMIMISTRATIVE REMARKS PAGE OF THE ENLISRED SERVICE RECORD USED TO PROVIDE A CHRONOLOGICAL RECORD OF SIGNIFICANT MISCELLANEOUS ENTRIES NOT PROVIDED ON THE OTHER PAGES OF THE RECORD.
|
PAGE 13
|
|
WHAT 2 CATEGORIES IS LEADERSHIP DIVIDED INTO?
|
COUNSLEING AND DIRECTING
|
|
EXPLAINS AN INDIVIDUAL RIGHTS WHEN IT COMES TO EVALUATIONS.
|
ARTICLE 1122 NAVY REGULATIONS
|
|
FORM NUMBER FOR THE ENLISTED PERFORMANCE EVALUATION REPORT-INDIVIDUAL INPUT
|
NAVPERS 1616/21
|