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84 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The genital system develops from embryonic
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mesoderm
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The urogenital ridges give rise to elements of the
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reproductive system
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What part of the ovary comes to contain the developing follicles?
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Cortex
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The first indication of the sex of the embryo is the
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formation of the tunica albuginea
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The primordial germ cells can be identified during the fourth week of development in the
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yolk sac
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In the female, which of the following persists to form the major parts of the reproductive tract?
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Paramesonephric (mullerian) ducts
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The formation of the uterus and fallopian tubes
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does not depend on the presence of ovaries
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Absence of the ovaries
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typically occurs in association with other anomalies
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Which of the following results in the absence of the uterus?
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Paramesonephric ducts degenerate
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Which of the following results in the formation of a double uterus (uterus didelphys)?
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Inferior parts of the paramesonephric ducts do not fuse
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Which of the following results in the absence of the vagina?
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Vaginal plate does not develop
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Which of the following results in vaginal atresia?
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Vaginal plate does not canalize
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Which of the following arises from the urogenital sinus?
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Urethra
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Which of the following passes through an indeferent (undifferentiated) stage during development?
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All of the above (Genital ducts, Gonads, and External genitalia)
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The labia minora develop from the
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urogenital folds
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The labia majora develop from the
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labioscrotal swellings
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The clitoris develops from the
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genital tubercle
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Teh fallopian tube is derived from the
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mullarian (paramesonephric) ducts
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The vagina originates from the
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urogenital sinus and mullerian ducts
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In the female, the embryologic homolog of the penis is the
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clitoris
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The innominate bones are composed of fused ileum, ischium, nad
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pubis
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The false pelvis and true pelvis are separated by the
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linea terminalis
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The dimensions of which pelvis must be adequate to permit passage of the fetus during labor?
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true pelvis
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The false pelvis is separated from the true pelvis by the plane of the
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pelvic inlet
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Arrest of fetal descent occurs most commonly at the plane of the
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least diameter
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Which is the value of obstetric conjugate?
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10.0 - 11.0
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Which is the value of the transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet?
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13.5
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Which is the value of the bispinous diameter of the pelvic midplane?
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10.0
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Which is the transverse diameter of greatest diameter
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12.5
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Based on the Caldwell and Moloy classification, the most common pelvic type is the
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gynecoid
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Which of the following are found in the labia majora?
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All of the above (sebaceous glands, sweat glands, and hair follicles)
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Which of the following is NOT found in the labia minora?
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Hair follicles
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Bartholin duct is lined with what type of epithelium?
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Transitional
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Skene duct is lined with what type of epithelium?
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Transitional
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The urethra is lined with what type of epithelium?
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Transitional
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The vagina is lined with what type of epithelium?
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Squamous
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The endocervical canal is lined with what type of epithelium?
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Columnar
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Compared with the posterior wall, the anterior wall of the vagina is
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shorter
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The uterine (fallopian) tubes enter into which part of the uterus?
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Cornu
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The two main anatomic divisions of the uterus are the
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corpus and cervix
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In addition to the uterine arter, the uteris is supplied by teh
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ovarian artery
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The uterine veins enter the
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internal iliac veins
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The portion fo the fallopian tube that borders the ovary is the
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infandibulum
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Which of the following ligaments DOES NOT support the uterus?
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Infundibulopelvic (supensory) ligament
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Which of the following ligaments supports the ovary?
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Broad ligament
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Before puberty, the ratio of the length of the body of the uterus to the length of the cervix is approximately
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1:1
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The portion of the broad ligamnet between the ovaries and the fallopian tube is called the
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mesosalpinx
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The uterosacral ligaments
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prevent prolapse of the uterus into the vagina
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Oogonia cease to form after
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birth
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The blood supply to the fallopian tubes is from
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both the ovarian and uterine arteries
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Compared with the reproductive years, the size of the ovary of a menopausal woman is
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decreased
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The diploid number of chromosomes in humans is
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46
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At least what percent of first-trimester spontaneous abortions have a structuralor numerical chromosomal anomaly?
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50%
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Overall, what percent of live births have a chromosome abnormality?
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0.6%
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Which of the following chromosome abnormalities is the most common among live-born infants?
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Trisomy 21
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Chorionic villus sampling can be used for the detection of
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trisomy 18
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The most commmon chromosomal abnormality reliably diagnosed by amniocentesis is
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trisomy 21
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Which of the following is a characteristic feature of del(5) (cri-du-chat) syndrome?
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Microcephaly, distinctive facial features
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Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Klinefelter syndrome?
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Tall, eunuchoid habitus
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Which of the following is a characteristic of trisomy 16?
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No live births
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Which of the following is a characteristic of trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)?
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Severe mental retardation
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Which of the following is a characteristic of trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome)?
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Multiple organic abnormalities
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In autosomal dominant inheritance,
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one half of the children born to an affected person are affected
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If there is complete failure of testicular development following the formation of an XY zygote,
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the individual will develop as a female with uterus, tubes, vagina, and vulva
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The level of alpha-fetoprotein is normal in amniotic fluid in hwich of the following conditions?
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Postmaturity
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In which of the following will an afflicted individual typically live to at least 10 years of age?
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Trisomy 21
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Advanced maternal age as a screening test questioin fails to detect pregnancies with Down's syndrome in what percent of cases?
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80%
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Triple screen detects about what percent of fetal Down syndrome?
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60%
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Finding a fetal cardiac malformation on antepartum obstetric ultrasound examinations is associated with what percent chance of the fetus having a chromosomal abnormality?
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40%
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The most commonly used maternal serum screening test involves measurement of
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maternal alpha-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, and unconjugated estriol
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The most common genetic cause of mental retardation is
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fragile-X
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In a woman who has a child with a neural tube defect, in subsequent pregnancies she should take a prenatal vitamin that contains how much folic acid?
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4mg
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Prenatal ingestion of an appropriate dose of folic acid daily acts to prevent
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both the occurrence and recurrence of neural tube defects
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The developing brain is most susceptible to teratogens during what specific period?
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3 to 16 weeks
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The developing neural tube is most susceptible to teratogens during what specific period?
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2 to 4 weeks
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The developing heart is most susceptible to teratogens during what specific period?
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3 to 6 weeks
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Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors have which of the following teratogenic effects?
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Intrauterine growth retardation, fetal hypotension, pulmonary hypoplasia
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The antiepileptic drugs have which of the following teratogenic effects?
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Skeletal defects, cleft palate
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Cyclophosphamide has which of the following teratogenic effects?
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CNS and ear defects, cleft lip/palate, cardiac and great vessel defects
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Warfarin has which of the following teratogenic effects?
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Nasal hypoplasia, vertebral abnormalities, CNS malformations
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Accutane has which of the following teratogenic effects?
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CNS and ear defects, cleft lip/palate, cardiac and great vessel defects
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Thalidomide has which of the following teratogenic effects?
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Limb reduction, phocomelia, ventricular septal defect, gastriointestinal atresia
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Diethylstilbestrol has which of the following teratogenic effects?
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Vaginal and cervical carcinoma, genital tract abnormalities
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Tetracycline has which of the following teratogenic effects?
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Staining of primary dentition
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