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224 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
1) Name the four types of infectious organisms.
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Bacterial, Viral, Fungal, Parasitic.
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2) Name the two MOST COMMON infectious organisms.
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Bacterial and Viral
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3) How does Airborne Transmission occur?
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Dissemination of particles through the air or dust.
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4) Which infection transmission occurs through animals and insects like rats or mosquitoes?
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Vector-borne Transmission
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5) Why are alcohol-based products preferred over anti-septic for soiled hands?
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The Superior Microbiocidal Activity
|
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6) What is an example of an illness transmitted by contact?
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Herpes-Simplex virus, Impetigo, Lice, and/or Scabies
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7) What is an example of an illness transmitted by airborne microorganisms?
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Measles, Varicella, and/or Tuberculosis
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8) What is an example of an illness transmitted by droplets?
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Influenza, Diphtheria, Mumps, and/or Rubella
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9) Define “Cleaning.”
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Removal of all visible dust, soil, and any other foreign material
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10) Define “Disinfection.”
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Destruction of many or all infectious organisms on inanimate objects
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11) What are the 4 levels of disinfection recognized by the CDC?
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Sterilization, High Level, Intermediate Level, and Low Level.
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12) What is low level disinfection used for?
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Non-Critical items that are in contact with INTACT skin.
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13) What is intermediate level disinfection used for?
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Semi-Critical items like thermometers or hydrotherapy tanks.
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14) What is high level disinfection used for?
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Semi-Critical items that contact mucous membranes or non-intact skin.
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15) What is sterilization used for?
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Critical items that enter tissue or vascular space like needles or implants.
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16) True or False, A 1:50 dilution means to add one part bleach to fifty parts water.
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False (it means add one part bleach to FORTY NINE parts water.)
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17) True or False, Bodily fluids are considered NOT INFECTIVE for Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease.
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True
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18) What is the incubation period for Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease?
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2 years to decades
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19) Per END Recommendations, what electrodes should be used when CJD is suspected?
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Single Use Electrodes that should be burned after use. If reusable electrodes are used, they should be washed to reduce the amount or particulate material and then sterilized by autoclave.
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20) How many Milli-Amps of shock can cause death to your patient?
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100-300mA
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21) What is the Local Average Reference?
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A unique reference for each electrode based off a small number of electrodes in the vicinity of the target electrode
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22) How many surrounding electrodes does a Laplacian Reference use?
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Eight Surrounding Electrodes
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23) True or False, Sampling Skew can affect the EEG interpretation by making a single event in the data appear to have occurred in the last channel later than in the first channel.
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True
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24) Per ACNS Guidelines, How many bits per sample should the digitization for an A/D Converter use?
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11 bits per sample
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25) What are the four Low Frequency Filter and Time Constant Filter equivalencies?
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0.1Hz LFF = 1.0s TCF, .3Hz LFF = 0.4s TCF, 1Hz LFF = 0.12s TCF, 5Hz = 0.035s TCF
|
|
1) Name the four types of infectious organisms.
|
Bacterial, Viral, Fungal, Parasitic.
|
|
2) Name the two MOST COMMON infectious organisms.
|
Bacterial and Viral
|
|
3) How does Airborne Transmission occur?
|
Dissemination of particles through the air or dust.
|
|
4) Which infection transmission occurs through animals and insects like rats or mosquitoes?
|
Vector-borne Transmission
|
|
5) Why are alcohol-based products preferred over anti-septic for soiled hands?
|
The Superior Microbiocidal Activity
|
|
6) What is an example of an illness transmitted by contact?
|
Herpes-Simplex virus, Impetigo, Lice, and/or Scabies
|
|
7) What is an example of an illness transmitted by airborne microorganisms?
|
Measles, Varicella, and/or Tuberculosis
|
|
8) What is an example of an illness transmitted by droplets?
|
Influenza, Diphtheria, Mumps, and/or Rubella
|
|
9) Define “Cleaning.”
|
Removal of all visible dust, soil, and any other foreign material
|
|
10) Define “Disinfection.”
|
Destruction of many or all infectious organisms on inanimate objects
|
|
11) What are the 4 levels of disinfection recognized by the CDC?
|
Sterilization, High Level, Intermediate Level, and Low Level.
|
|
12) What is low level disinfection used for?
|
Non-Critical items that are in contact with INTACT skin.
|
|
13) What is intermediate level disinfection used for?
|
Semi-Critical items like thermometers or hydrotherapy tanks.
|
|
14) What is high level disinfection used for?
|
Semi-Critical items that contact mucous membranes or non-intact skin.
|
|
15) What is sterilization used for?
|
Critical items that enter tissue or vascular space like needles or implants.
|
|
16) True or False, A 1:50 dilution means to add one part bleach to fifty parts water.
|
False (it means add one part bleach to FORTY NINE parts water.)
|
|
17) True or False, Bodily fluids are considered NOT INFECTIVE for Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease.
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True
|
|
18) What is the incubation period for Creutzfeldt - Jakob disease?
|
2 years to decades
|
|
19) Per END Recommendations, what electrodes should be used when CJD is suspected?
|
Single Use Electrodes that should be burned after use. If reusable electrodes are used, they should be washed to reduce the amount or particulate material and then sterilized by autoclave.
|
|
20) How many Milli-Amps of shock can cause death to your patient?
|
100-300mA
|
|
21) What is the Local Average Reference?
|
A unique reference for each electrode based off a small number of electrodes in the vicinity of the target electrode
|
|
22) How many surrounding electrodes does a Laplacian Reference use?
|
Eight Surrounding Electrodes
|
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23) True or False, Sampling Skew can affect the EEG interpretation by making a single event in the data appear to have occurred in the last channel later than in the first channel.
|
True
|
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24) Per ACNS Guidelines, How many bits per sample should the digitization for an A/D Converter use?
|
11 bits per sample
|
|
25) What are the four Low Frequency Filter and Time Constant Filter equivalencies?
|
0.1Hz LFF = 1.0s TCF, .3Hz LFF = 0.4s TCF, 1Hz LFF = 0.12s TCF, 5Hz = 0.035s TCF
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26) Define Bandwidth.
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Range between the upper and lower frequencies bounding a range of frequencies
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27) True or False, Sleep Spindles are typically seen consistently around 2-3 months Conceptual Age.
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True
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28) At 5 months Conceptual Age, how many hertz is the background rhythm?
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5 Hertz
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29) V Waves should be seen by what Conceptual Age is nearly all infants?
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5 Months
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30) True or False, by 3 years of age, approx. 80% of children have a 8Hz background.
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True
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31) What is the first thing you should do for a person who is having a Tonic Clonic seizure?
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Yell for help
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32) True or False, you should restrain a person have a Tonic Clonic seizure.
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False (do NOT restrain, clear area)
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33) If input ONE is more negative than input TWO, which way will the pen deflect?
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Up
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34) True or False, a score of 3 or below on the Glasgow Coma Scale is comatose.
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False (7, not 3)
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35) What is the cut-off frequency?
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The input frequency that is attenuated 30% is the same frequency as that of the filter setting.
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36) What is the duration of a spike?
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20-70msec
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37) What is the duration of a sharp?
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70-200msec
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38) What is the duration of a slow wave?
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Greater than 200msec
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39) How do you calculate the duration of a wave?
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Width of wave in mm divided by paper speed in mm
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40) What does proximal mean?
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Near the point of attachment
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41) What does medial mean?
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Towards the midline of body or structure
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42) Which montage is best to watch patient sleep?
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Transverse Montage
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43) Which montage is best during activation procedures?
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Double Banana
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44) At least how many seconds of DC Calibration should be recorded?
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30 seconds
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45) True or False, Persistent Focal Beta at any age or level of consciousness is abnormal and indicative of an underlying lesion.
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False (Delta, not Beta)
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46) What percentage of normal adults do not have Alpha?
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10%
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47) What is the “squeak phenomenon” and how did it get its name?
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The first few seconds after eye closure, alpha frequency is 1-2Hz faster. On analog machines, this increase in speed caused the pen to squeak as it moved
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48) What is Artifact sometimes referred to as?
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Noise
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49) At what frequency does Tremor Artifact occur?
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4-6Hz
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50) How is electroretinogram Artifact generated?
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Activity of retina from the light by photic stimulation
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51) True or False, Delta Brushes are rarely seen after 40 weeks.
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False (44-46 weeks)
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52) What type of seizure is also known as a “Drop Attack.”
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Atonic Seizures
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53) What are febrile seizures? What age group are they most common?
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Tonic Clonic convulsions, associated with high fevers, typically in young children (6mos-5years)
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54) What do Versive Seizures cause?
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Turning of the body, usually away from the side of the brain the sz discharge is coming from
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55) What do Aphasic Seizures cause?
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Expressive, repetitive, or global loss of language
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56) Name the 3 layers of the meninges.
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Pia Mater, Dura Mater, and Arachnoid
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57) What is hypersynchrony?
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An increase in voltage and regularity of rhythmic activity due to an increase in the number of neural elements contributing to the rhythm
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58) True or False, Fast Alpha Variant is half the frequency of the normal Alpha rhythm.
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False (Double the Frequency)
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59) When is Breach Rhythm seen?
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When there is a cranial bone defect like; trauma, craniotomy, or burr holes
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60) When does Frontal Arousal Rhythm occur?
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After arousal from sleep in children
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61) Small Sharp Spikes are also known as what?
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BETS – Benign Epileptiform Transients of Sleep
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62) Six per Second Spike and Wave is formally known as what?
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Phantom Spike and Wave
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63) What does EMG stand for?
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Electromyogram
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64) How long should a neonatal EEG be run?
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At least 60 minutes
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65) How is Stage 4 Sleep characterized?
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50% of the epoch being 2hz delta or less, K Complexes, Sleep Spindles, and rarely POSTs
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66) What does SREDA stand for?
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Subclinical Rhtyhmical EEG Discharge in Adults
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67) Where are V waves seen?
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In the Vertex area
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68) True or False, Posterior Slow Waves of Youth are reactive to Alpha Blocking?
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True
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69) Which normal EEG activity can be described by bursts of 4-7Hz activity, notched appearance, faster wave activity superimposed give a sharp pattern, and a surface negative appearance?
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Rhythmic Temporal Theta Bursts of Drowsiness (RMTD, RMTTD, RMTTBD)
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70) Which normal EEG activity can be described with surface negative fast transients that occur during drowsiness and sleep?
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Small Sharp Spikes (SSS)
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71) Which normal EEG activity can be described as small spikes followed by a low voltage slow wave occurring approximately 6 seconds?
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Six per Second Spike and Wave
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72) Which normal EEG activity appears as surface positive spike like bursts in the occipital and posterior temporal regions that MAY be seen approximately every 6 seconds.
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Fourteen and/or Six Positive Spikes
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73) Which normal EEG activity has a similar arch shape morphology and frequency of Mu?
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Wicket Spikes
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74) True or False, Fourteen and/or Six Positive bursts are best seen on a montage with longer electrode distances.
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True
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75) Which normal EEG activity has a negative polarity, occurs in wake/drowsy/asleep, and is RARELY seen?
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Wicket Spikes
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76) True or False, Lambda Waves have an abnormal clinical significance.
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False (No Clinical Significance)
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77) Which waveforms have a similar appearance to POSTS?
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Lambda Waves
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78) Which EEG activity’s occurance is debated as either brain activity OR fine lateral eye movements/fluttering?
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Kappa Rhythm
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79) Is Breach Rhythm normal or abnormal?
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Normal
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80) Which normal EEG activity is prominent over the VERTEX and tends to wax and wane?
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Midline Theta Rhythm?
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81) Which normal EEG activity occurs after lesions of the visual pathway anterior to the occipital cortex early in life?
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Occipital Spikes of Blind Persons
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82) Frontal Arousal Rhythm occurs in trains of how many HZ?
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7-20Hz
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83) Which EEG activity has a notched appearance with varying harmonies and resembles a rhythmic discharge?
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Frontal Arousal Rhythm
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84) Which Abnormal EEG activity consists of 3 components that alternate about the baseline?
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Triphasic Waves
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85) Which abnormal EEG activity is associated with comas, and is typically 9-10Hz Alpha but in a central-frontal location?
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“Alpha” Coma
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86) What does PLEDS stand for?
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Periodic Lateralized Epileptiform Discharges
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87) Which abnormal EEG activity is associated with comas and is typically 12-14 Hz bursts similar to sleep spindles?
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“Spindle” Coma
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88) Which abnormal EEG activity is seen in temporal regions and associated with complex partial seizures and temporal lobe epilepsy?
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TIRDA (Temporal Intermittent Rhythmic Delta Activity)
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89) Which abnormal EEG activity includes waves that are usually irregular in shape and have a variable duration without a stable predominant frequency?
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PDA (Polymorphic Delta Activity)
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90) Which abnormal EEG activity can be described as serial waves of irregular shape, variable duration and amplitude, occurring continuously or intermittently?
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ADA (Arrhythmic Delta Activity)
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91) Which activity is known for profound attenuation or suppression with no cerebral activity greater than 2 uV?
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ECI (Electrocerebral Inactivity) or ECS (Electrocerebral Silence)
|
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92) True or False, Generalized Beta Activity is seen with possible sedative, hypnotic, or anti-anxiety drug use.
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False (Generalized Theta Activity)
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93) If you see rhythmic activity from the background that is non-reactive and focal OR generalize, which activity would you be looking at?
|
Rhythmic Hypersynchronous Activity
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94) Name the four main frequencies.
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Alpha, Beta, Delta, Theta
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95) What is the measurement of frequency?
|
Hertz (Hz)
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96) What is the definition of Hertz?
|
A unit of frequency equal to 1 cycle per second
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97) What is the frequency of Alpha?
|
8-13Hz
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98) What is the frequency of Beta?
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13Hz and Greater
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99) What is the frequency of Theta?
|
4-7Hz
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100) What is the frequency of Delta?
|
0.5-3.5Hz
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101) Is persistent focal delta, at any age or level of consciousness, normal or abnormal?
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Abnormal
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102) What does persistent focal delta indicate?
|
An underlying lesion
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103) Which frequency can be seen on the EEG with brain tumors, cerebral hemorrhage, metabolic disorders, and epilepsy?
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Delta
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104) Which frequency is dominant during the FIRST year of life?
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Delta
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105) Which frequency is rare is a normal awake adult?
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Delta
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106) Which frequency becomes generalized in deeper sleep?
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Theta
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107) True of False, Persistent Focal Theta is always normal.
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False (Abnormal)
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108) What types of medication affect Beta activity?
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Benzodiazepenes and Barbituates
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109) Which frequency is seen during anxiety or hyperemotional states?
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Beta
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110) What is the normal amplitude of Alpha?
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20-60uV
|
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111) Which frequency waxes and wanes?
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Alpha
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112) Which frequency becomes more persistent as we age?
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Beta
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113) True or False, Alpha goes away when awake and alerted.
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True
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114) Which electrode should always be used in infant EEG Montages?
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CZ
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115) What are the 3 stages of sleep in infants?
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Active Sleep, Quiet Sleep, and Transitional Sleep
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116) In infants, when does quiet sleep PRECEED active sleep?
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Approximately 4 Months
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117) Which 4 physiological monitors should be used in neonate EEG recordings?
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EOG, EMG, EKG, and Respiratory
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118) True or False, Your eyes should be on the baby 99.9% of the time and your hands should be making continuous notations during the recording.
|
True
|
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119) If a baby’s eyes are open and alert, is the baby considered awake or asleep?
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Awake
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120) In newborn sleep, what percentage is active sleep?
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50%
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121) What is another name for Delta Brushes?
|
Ripples of Prematurity
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122) What is the common name for “Encoches Frontales”?
|
Frontal Sharp Transients
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123) By what age should you have a 10Hz background?
|
10 Years Old
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124) At what age do you begin to see V-Waves?
|
5 Months
|
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125) At approximately what age should sleep spindles be synchronous?
|
2 Years Old
|
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126) When does Hypnogogic Hypersynchrony occur?
|
When Falling Asleep/Drowsy
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127) When does Hypnapompic Hypersynchrony occur?
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When Waking up/Alerting
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128) Which activation procedure may bring out Posterior Slow Waves of Youth?
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HV
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129) In what age group does a good photic driving response occur at flash rates of 8-16Hz?
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6-12 Years Old
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130) When does Mu first appear?
|
3-5 Years Old
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131) Fourteen and/or Six Positive Bursts occur commonly in what age group?
|
6-12 Years Old
132) True or False, V-Waves have a positive polarity. a) False (Negative) |
|
133) In 1958, who was credited with the final version of the 10-20 System?
|
H. Jasper
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134) Name the four landmarks of the 10-20 system.
|
Nasion, Inion, Left-PreAricular, Right-PreAricular
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135) List the electrode positions following the circumferential plane.
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Fp1, F7, T3, T5, O1, O2, T6, T4, F8, Fp2
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|
136) List the electrode positions following the parietal plane.
|
T5, P3, PZ, P4, T6
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|
137) According to Guideline 6, which montages must be used in a recording?
|
Bi-Polar and Referential
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138) According to Guideline 6, which 3 classes of montage must be used in each recording?
|
Longitudinal Bipolar, Transverse Bipolar, and Referential
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|
139) What criteria should you follow when creating bipolar derivations?
|
Straight and Unbroken lines with equal interelectrode distances
|
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140) How do we localize in a bipolar montage?
|
Phase Reversal
|
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141) Who is known as the Father of EEG?
|
Hans Berger
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142) Who discovered Delta and Theta waves?
|
Grey Walter
|
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143) Who discovered Alpha and Beta waves?
|
Hans Berger
|
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144) How do we localize in a referential montage?
|
Highest Amplitude
|
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145) Who did the first EEG on the intact skull of a man?
|
Hans Berger
|
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146) In which state of the patient should you NOT use Cz as a reference electrode?
|
Drowsy or Sleep
|
|
147) If input ONE is -60uV and input TWO is +20uV, which direction will the pen deflect?
|
Up
|
|
148) What is the formula for sensitivity?
|
Sensitivity = Voltage/Amplitude
|
|
149) What units are used to measure sensitivity?
|
uV/mm
|
|
150) What is the standard paper speed?
|
30mm/sec or 10 second epoch
|
|
151) When should you run calibration signals?
|
At the beginning and end of the recording
|
|
152) An adequate screen and paper display should have a minimum of how many pixels per vertical millimeter?
|
4 pixels
|
|
153)In Analog to Digital conversion, what does the computer convert and store waveforms as?
|
Binary Digits
|
|
154) True or False, Montage reformatting is only possible if the data is initially recorded in a referential format.
|
True
|
|
155) Name the four primary aspects of digital data collection that dictate signal reproduction quality.
|
Horizontal resolution, Vertical resolution, Sampling skew, and Screen resolution
|
|
156) What does the ACNS recommend as a sufficient sampling rate?
|
At least 3 times the highest frequency filter setting
|
|
157) A 12 bit A/D converter allows for how many discreet voltage values?
|
4096
|
|
158) What are the 2 forms of protection the body has against electrocution?
|
Skin and tissue around the heart
|
|
159) Does “let go” current cause voluntary or involuntary contraction of the muscle?
|
Involuntary
|
|
160) What does GFCI stand for in regards to an electrical safety device?
|
Ground Fault Current Interrupter
|
|
161) What numerical value does “MILLI-“ represent?
|
1000
|
|
162) While recording, if you wanted to emphasize a slow wave would you speed up or slow down the paper speed?
|
Slow Down
|
|
163) What is the most common High Frequency Filter used?
|
70Hz
|
|
164) The decay time constant is the measure of how long a circuit takes to decay to what percentage of its full charge?
|
37%
|
|
165) What affect will a shorter time constant have on lower frequencies?
|
It will attenuate them
|
|
166) At a standard paper speed of 30mm/sec, how much time is represented between the dotted/thin lines?
|
200msecs
|
|
167) What is another name for “Gran Mal” Seizures?
|
Tonic Clonic
|
|
168) What are the two basic types of primary generalized seizures?
|
Tonic Clonic and Absence
|
|
169) During a Tonic Clonic event, which artifact will obscure the EEG recording?
|
Muscle and/or Movement
|
|
170) What is the former name for Absence Seizure?
|
Petit Mal
|
|
171) What type of pattern would you expect to see on a recording during an Absence Seizure?
|
High Voltage 3Hz Spike and Wave
|
|
172) During hyperventilation, a tech begins asking the patient to remember a name, color, number, rhyme, etc. What did that tech see on the recording to prompt asking those questions?
|
A Spike and Wave
|
|
173) Atonic seizures are typically manifested by a sudden loss of what?
|
Muscle Tone
|
|
174) What happens to the body during the TONIC phase of the seizure?
|
Stiffening of the Muscles
|
|
175) What happens to the body during the CLONIC phase of the seizure?
|
Repetitive Jerks or Movements
|
|
176) True or False, A photoconvulsive response during photic stimulation is a form of reflex epilepsy.
|
True
|
|
177) What are breath holding spells?
|
Anoxia due to not breathing
|
|
178) What term would you use to describe the state of a patient who is having back to back seizures without regaining consciousness in between them?
|
Status Epilepticus
|
|
179) What is the most common seizure disorder among infants and young children?
|
Febrile Seziures
|
|
180) Which type of seizure involve the entire brain and are associated with a sudden loss of consciousness?
|
Primary Generalized Seizures
|
|
181) What is another term for infantile spasm?
|
Jack-Knife Seizure
|
|
182) True or False, A versive movement turns toward the same side as the seizure focus.
|
False (Away from the side of seizure focus)
|
|
183) In a patient with Landau-Kleffner Syndrome, What region would you expect to inter-ictal spikes or inter-ictal spike and waves?
|
Temporal
|
|
184) What frequency would you expect to see during the CLONIC phase of a seizure?
|
2-3Hz
|
|
185) What is “Inter-Ictal”
|
Period in between seizures, usually precedes them.
|
|
186) What is “Ictal”
|
The seizure phase
|
|
187) What is “Post-Ictal”
|
After the seizure
|
|
188) What frequency would you expect to see during the TONIC phase of a seizure?
|
6-10Hz
|
|
189) Name 2 of the 6 characteristics that epilepsy syndromes are based on.
|
Type of seizure, EEG, age at onset, neuroimaging, physical exam, and/or natural history
|
|
190) Define Idiopathic
|
No known cause
|
|
191) What type of EEG pattern would you expect to see in a patient with West Syndrome?
|
Hypsarrythmia
|
|
192) Name the 3 parts that compose an atom.
|
Proton, Neutron, and Electron
|
|
193) State Ohm’s Law
|
E=IxR
|
|
194) What is a capacitor?
|
A device used to store a quantity of electricity temporarily
|
|
195) What is resistance measured in?
|
Ohms
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196) What is common mode rejection?
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Ability of the amplifier to suppress a signal that is present at both electrodes
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197) What is peak to peak amplitude?
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Measure of the height of a wave from the point where it begins to rise to the point where is reaches maximum height
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198) What is frequency and how do you figure it out?
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Number of waves that fit into a one second segment. Figured by (take any or all of these): counting, or paper speed in mm divided by width of wave in mm, or 1/duration
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199) What is duration and how do you figure it out?
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Amount of time a wave takes to form. Figured by (take any or all of these): counting, width of wave in mm divided by paper speed, or 1/frequency
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200) Name 3 of the 5 metals most commonly used in routine EEGs.
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Silver, Tin, Platinum, Gold-Plated, or Silver-Silver Chloride (AG-AG CL)
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