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50 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Median anterior maxillary cysts occur in
the
A. nasal bone.
B. incisive canal and in the palatine
process.
C. zygomatic process.
D. hamular process.
E. None of the above.
B. incisive canal and in the palatine
process.
Vitality tests are used to differentiate
between
A. cementoma and a periapical
granuloma.
B. cementoma and an incisive canal
cyst.
C. periapical granuloma and an apical
cyst.
D. periapical granuloma and the mental
foramen.
A. cementoma and a periapical
granuloma.
Gingival enlargement observed in acute
leukemia is due to
A. reactive fibrosis.
B. edema.
C. tissue infiltration by cells.
D. capillary fragility.
E. hematoma.
C. tissue infiltration by cells
Which one of the following is seen in
primary herpetic stomatitis, herpes
simplex, herpes zoster and varicella?
A. Macules.
B. Papules.
C. Vesicles.
D. Pustules.
C. Vesicles.
Multiple neurofibromatosis and "café au
lait" spots on the skin are typical of
A. Gardner's syndrome.
B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome.
C. Von Recklinghausen's disease.
D. Down's syndrome.
C. Von Recklinghausen's disease.
The most likely complication following
surgery for a patient with
thrombocytopenic purpura would be
A. angina.
B. hemorrhage.
C. "dry socket".
D. delayed healing.
E. infection.
B. hemorrhage.
Which of the following tumors has the
best prognosis in terms of patient
survival?
A. Osteosarcoma.
B. Melanoma.
C. Ameloblastoma.
D. Adenocarcinoma.
C. Ameloblastoma.
Pleomorphic salivary adenomas are most
likely to exhibit
A. rapid growth with early death of
patient.
B. early metastasis to distant organs.
C. slow growth but tendency to local
recurrence.
D. early ulceration and hemorrhage.
C. slow growth but tendency to local
recurrence.
Squamous cell carcinomas of the lip occur
most frequently on the
A. commissures.
B. lower lip near the midline.
C. inner surface of upper lip.
D. inner surface of lower lip.
E. upper lip near the midline.
B. lower lip near the midline.
Oral foci of infection are of greatest
clinical significance in the presence of
A. polycythemia vera.
B. iritis and uveitis.
C. eczema and urticaria.
D. rheumatoid arthritis.
E. subacute bacterial endocarditis.
E. subacute bacterial endocarditis.
Leukemic gingivitis may be misdiagnosed
as
A. ascorbic acid deficiency gingivitis.
B. infectious mononucleosis.
C. thrombocytopenic purpura.
D. necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis.
A. ascorbic acid deficiency gingivitis.
The treatment of choice for a patient with
generalized acute herpetic stomatitis is
A. debridement of mouth, sustaining
oral hygiene and treating the elevated
temperature.
B. same as for acute necrotizing
ulcerative gingivitis.
C. prescribing 300,000 units of
penicillin orally.
D. prescribing corticosteroids locally
and systemically.
A. debridement of mouth, sustaining
oral hygiene and treating the elevated
temperature.
The main purpose of collimation of an xray
beam is to
A. permit the use of lower kilovoltage
during exposure.
B. filter out useless short rays.
C. permit use of the long cone
technique.
D. reduce the diameter of the primary
beam.
E. reduce exposure time.
D. reduce the diameter of the primary
beam.
The most likely diagnosis of a
proliferative lesion found at a denture
periphery is a/an
A. epulis granulomatosum.
B. epulis fissuratum.
C. giant cell granuloma.
D. squamous cell carcinoma.
B. epulis fissuratum.
In fibrous dysplasia
A. foci of cartilage are a common
histological finding.
B. an inflammatory infiltrate is
characteristically present.
C. there are characteristic changes in the
blood chemistry.
D. a ground-glass appearance is present
on radiographs.
D. a ground-glass appearance is present
on radiographs.
The most frequent location of a
dentigerous cyst is the
A. third molar area.
B. symphysis of the mandible.
C. midline of the hard palate.
D. apical area of a devitalized tooth.
E. premolar area.
A. third molar area.
Cervical radiolucency at the cementoenamel
junction is most likely due to
A. caries at the site.
B. bone loss at the alveolar crest.
C. less density of tissue at the cementoenamel
junction.
D. gingival recession.
C. less density of tissue at the cementoenamel
junction.
Granulation tissue which extends
coronally from the pulp of a carious tooth
is known as
A. a pyogenic granuloma.
B. a pulp polyp.
C. epulis granulomatosum.
D. a fibroma.
B. a pulp polyp.
Which of the following is most
radiopaque?
A. Lamina dura.
B. Enamel.
C. Cortical bone.
D. Gold inlay.
E. Composite restoration.
D. Gold inlay.
The prolonged use of antibacterial
lozenges or mouthwashes contributes to
the development of
A. oral candidiasis.
B. geographic tongue.
C. cancrum oris.
D. Koplik's spots.
E. aphthous ulcers
A. oral candidiasis.
Ludwig's angina may cause
A. respiratory obstruction.
B. cavernous sinus thrombosis.
C. suppurative encephalitis.
D. subdural empyema.
A. respiratory obstruction.
In an adult, progressive increase in
mandibular length and interdental spacing
is a feature of
A. hyperparathyroidism.
B. hyperpituitarism.
C. periodontosis.
D. Addison's disease.
E. Cushing's disease.
B. hyperpituitarism.
Tissue from a multilocular radiolucent
area of the posterior mandible shows
microscopically follicular areas lined with
cylindrical cells resembling the enamel
organ. The most likely diagnosis is a/an
A. neurofibroma.
B. ameloblastoma.
C. central fibroma.
D. periodontal cyst.
E. dentigerous cyst.
B. ameloblastoma.
Exophthalmia may be a sign of
A. hypoadrenalism.
B. hyperadrenalism.
C. hypothyroidism.
D. hyperthyroidism.
E. hypoparathyroidism.
D. hyperthyroidism.
Intraoral soft tissue examination will NOT
assist in the diagnosis of
A. lichen planus.
B. sinusitis.
C. erythema multiforme.
D. anemia.
E. vitamin deficiencies.
B. sinusitis.
A person who has sickle cell anemia may
show certain radiographic changes in the
bones of the skull. These changes may be
A. punched out radiolucent lesions.
B. moth-eaten appearance of the bone.
C. gross irregularities with exostosis
formation.
D. "hair on end" effect.
E. "copper beaten" effect.
D. "hair on end" effect
Which of the following lesions has a
tendency to bleed easily?
A. Pyogenic granuloma.
B. Osteoma.
C. Fibroma.
D. Papilloma.
E. Lipoma.
A. Pyogenic granuloma
Granulation tissue is composed of
A. plasma cells and giant cells.
B. fibroblasts, capillaries and chronic
inflammatory cells.
C. fibroblasts and eosinophils.
D. epithelioid cells and tissue
phagocytes.
B. fibroblasts, capillaries and chronic
inflammatory cells.
Which of the following is NOT associated
with osteogenesis imperfecta?
A. Brown teeth.
B. Brittle bones.
C. Thin enamel.
D. Blue sclerae.
E. Enamel loss.
C. Thin enamel.
In which of the following conditions is
there a risk of malignant change after
repeated surgical interventions?
A. Fibrous dysplasia.
B. Mucocele.
C. Lymphangioma.
D. Torus palatinus.
A. Fibrous dysplasia.
A 'pregnancy tumor' is
A. unassociated with local irritants.
B. a benign neoplasm.
C. clinically identical to a pyogenic
granuloma.
D. None of the above.
C. clinically identical to a pyogenic
granuloma.
Which of the following is contagious?
A. Pemphigus.
B. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis.
C. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis.
D. Acute necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis.
B. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis.
Healing of a herpes simplex lesion is
A. prolonged over several months.
B. spontaneous within 7-14 days
without scar formation.
C. spontaneous within 7-14 days with
scar formation.
D. spontaneous within 2-4 days.
E. None of the above.
B. spontaneous within 7-14 days
without scar formation.
An 80 year old man develops multiple
painful skin vesicles along the distribution
of the right infraorbital nerve. This is
suggestive of
A. psoriasis.
B. herpes zoster.
C. pemphigus vulgaris.
D. candidiasis (candidosis).
B. herpes zoster.
The most common malignant tumor of the
tongue is a/an
A. papilloma.
B. adenocarcinoma.
C. fibroma.
D. squamous cell carcinoma.
E. granular cell myoblastoma.
D. squamous cell carcinoma.
A patient presents with a non-healing
lesion on the side of the nose. It has a
rolled border and has been increasing in
size. The most likely diagnosis is
A. a sebaceous cyst.
B. a basal cell carcinoma.
C. lupus erythematosus.
D. verruca vulgaris.
E. an epulis.
B. a basal cell carcinoma.
A characteristic of malignant tumors is the
ability to
A. invade and metastasize.
B. grow to large size and remain within
their capsule.
C. remain localized.
D. grow slowly.
A. invade and metastasize.
A disease of childhood characterized by
mental retardation, delayed growth and
delayed tooth eruption may be caused by
deficient
A. thyroid hormone.
B. testicular hormone.
C. posterior pituitary hormone.
D. anterior pituitary growth hormone
A. thyroid hormone.
Histoplasmosis is a
A. non-specific bacterial infection.
B. protean disease.
C. viral disease.
D. fungal disease.
D. fungal disease.
Oral lichen planus has lesions which
A. bleed readily.
B. occur in the debilitated.
C. exhibit a positive Nikolsky's sign.
D. histopathologically show
lymphocytic infiltration.
D. histopathologically show
lymphocytic infiltration.
Swelling related to increased tissue fluid is
called
A. thrombosis.
B. edema.
C. hematoma.
D. embolism.
E. surgical emphysema.
B. edema.
Spirochete activity is seen by
A. staining with Gram's method.
B. staining with methylene blue.
C. observation with dark-field
microscopy.
D. observation with bright-field
microscopy
C. observation with dark-field
microscopy
If untreated, which of the following
lesions has the WORST prognosis?
A. Basal cell carcinoma of the nose.
B. Ameloblastoma.
C. Melanoma of the soft palate.
D. Verrucous carcinoma.
C. Melanoma of the soft palate.
Oral leukoplakia has the most favourable
prognosis when it is
A. present in a non-smoker.
B. accompanied by pain.
C. infected with Candida albicans.
D. speckled in appearance.
E. on the hard palate.
C. infected with Candida albicans.
Median anterior maxillary cysts are found
in
A. the zygomatic process of the maxilla.
B. the incisive canal.
C. the uvula.
D. the hamular process.
E. None of the above.
B. the incisive canal.
Soft, white, elevated plaques of the oral
mucosa are characteristic of
A. angioma.
B. candidosis (candidiasis).
C. actinomycosis.
D. herpes simplex.
E. submucous fibrosis.
B. candidosis (candidiasis).
Which of the following is NOT associated
with infectious mononucleosis?
A. Pharyngitis.
B. Lymphadenopathy.
C. Petechiae of the palate.
D. Gingival enlargement.
E. Fatigue.
D. Gingival enlargement.
The microscopic finding of intra-epithelial
vesicles is an important diagnostic feature
of
A. lichen planus.
B. erythema multiforme.
C. lupus erythematosus.
D. pemphigus.
E. agranulocytosis.
D. pemphigus.
Which of the following histopathological
features would be the most reliable
indicator of the malignancy of a
neoplasm?
A. Hyperchromatism.
B. Pleomorphism.
C. Encapsulation.
D. Invasion.
E. Degeneration.
D. Invasion.
A patient presents with a 3.0~cm ulcerated
lesion on the lateral border of the tongue.
You would
A. excise the entire lesion.
B. do nothing until the ulcer heals.
C. observe for 14 days to see if the ulcer
heals.
D. make a smear for cytologic
examination.
E. perform an incisional biopsy.
C. observe for 14 days to see if the ulcer
heals.