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120 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
This is a deep subcutaneous slough of tissue composed of full-thickness degenerated skin that occurs after a thermal burn. It appears as a black firm thick movable crust that separates from the surrounding skin, and purulent exudates often lie beneath it.
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Eschar
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T or F Tumor Lysis Syndrome is most commonly seen in patients with chemotherapy, or radiation responsive diseases such as lymphoma or lymphoid leukemias, hours to a few days after treatment.
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true
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Is release of endogenous endorphins in the brain a mechanism of inflammatory mediators associated with TBI?
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no
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Bleeding of appendages in trauma patients can be controlled with tourniquets using pneumatic blood pressure cuff inflated to _____ for not more than ______.
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200 mm Hg and 1 hour
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What is the clinical effect most likely to alter the prognosis of a patient following electrocution?
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respiratory abnormalities.
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Flail chest occurs secondary to the fracture of ___ or more adjacent rib sections, both dorsally and ventrally.
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2
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In this open fracture there is extensive soft tissue injury, commonly in addition to a high degree of comminution, such as distal extremity shearing wounds or high velocity gun shot wounds.
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Grade III
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ER surgery for a diaphragmatic hernia is necessary under certain specific conditions. Is 2 or more fractured ribs and concurrent hemothorax one of them?
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no
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Once a diagnosis of Tumoe Lysis Syndrome is made, what would the mainstay of therapy be?
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Aggressive IV fluids
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This is an old traumatic wound, with exudate or obvious infection, such as an abscess in a bite wound, puncture wound, or traumatic wound with retained devitalized tissue. This wound will contain more than 105 orgamisms per gram of tissue.
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Dirty or infected
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In this open fracture there is soft tissue trauma contiguous with the fracture, often caused by external trauma such as a bite wound or low-velocity gun shot injury.
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Grade II
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What are the 2 techniques used to perform abdominocentesis?
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single paracentesis, 4-quadrant approach
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Therapy of a drowning victim is aimed at improving what?
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resolving any abnormal serum acid-base status; stabilizing the cardiovascular and neurologic systems; maintaining tissue perfusion; tissue oxygenation
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Name the 4 phases of wound healing.
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Inflammation, debridement, repair/proliferation, maturation.
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What does monitoring of a near drowning victim entail?
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continuous ECG; body temperature; lung auscultation; mentation and pupil responsiveness.
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What 2 conditions cause miosis in patients with an ocular related disease?
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Anterior uveitis, Horner's syndrome
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T or F: Intracranial monitoring is commonly done through a burr hole in the skull or a craniectomy site.
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true
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The syndrome of inappropriate secretion of _____ is a potential cause of oliguria in critically ill patients.
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ADH
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Daily assessment of the critical patient should begin with what?
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thoughtful, history-guided physical examination
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The normal intracranial pressure varies between ____ and ____ mm Hg above atmosphere pressure in dogs and cats.
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5 and 12
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Is pleural effusion a possible consequence of mechanical ventilation?
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No.
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Maintenance of a goal colloid osmotic pressure of at least ____ in whole blood for both dogs and cats reduces the risk of edema formation and secondary organ dysfunction associated with edema
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15
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Patients with a MAP below ____ mm Hg will have decreased renal blood flow, GFR, and urine output.
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80
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Patients with a MAP below_____ mm Hg will have decreased renal blood flow, GFR, and urine output.
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80
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What is the main source of acetylcholinterase toxicity?
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insecticides.
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The tx of symptomatic animals with serotonin syndrome consists primarily of supportive measure, and correction of nervous system and cardiovascular abnormalities, but could also include an administration of a ____ receptor antagonist.
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5-HT2A
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What are recognized as the 2 best tx for black spider evenomations?
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pain management and antivenin
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The radiographic appearance of feline bronchopulmonary disease can vary. The classic radiographic findings include an increase in bronchial densities often described as what?
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doughnuts, tram lines, or train tracks.
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The definitive dx of pulmonary embolism requires which specific diagnostic procedure?
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selective pulmonary angiography
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What is the most common hematologic finding in ******* and queens with pyometra?
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neutrophilia
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Loss of subatmospheric pressure during a thoracotomy causes?
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atelectasis
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Altered albumin synthesis is not detected until more than ____% to _____% of liver function is lost.
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66to 80
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The FiO2 of unsupplemented air (room air) is app. ____%
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21
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Hypoxemia occurs when PaO2 is less than ____ mm Hg at sea level.
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80
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The indications for thoracentesis are ____ and ____
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pneumothorax and pleural effusion.
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MAP is = to?
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MAP= diastolic + 1/3(systolic - diastolic)
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In methemoglobinemia the gums are what color?
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brown
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What are the 2 most useful tools for the early detection of an air embolism?
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capnography and esophageal Doppler probes.
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T or F the normal Ph of blood is 7.39 +- 0.03
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true
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If more than ___% of the total body surface is involved in a thermal burn, cardiovascular shock,and sepsis can occur
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20
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T or F the normal canine HCO3 (mEq/L) is 100 +/- 20
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false
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Active core warming is indicated in hypopthermia patients. The lavage fluids, should be warmed to?
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40 to 45 C (104-113 F)
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Which immunoglobulin is most responsible for anaphylactic reactions?
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IgE
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Based on the text, what is the normal MAP in dogs?
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80-120 mm Hg
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In cats, acute blindness has been associated with systemic ____ administration at dosages as low as 4 mg/kg PO Q 12.
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Enrofloxacin
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In mechanical ventilation, what would be the desired partial pressure of arterial oxygen?
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60 - 120 mm Hg
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Normal urine output is ____ ml/kg of body weight per hour.
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1
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Is Intraabdominal hypertension is measured by catheter placed in the pleural cavity?
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no
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What would be a possible electrolyte abnormality following a massive transfusion?
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hypocalcemia
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When breathing normal room air, complete upper airway obstruction or apnea will lead to hypoxemia within approximately how many minutes?
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3 minutes
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Preoxygenation of a patient with 100% oxygen via a tight-fitting facemask can prevent hypoxemia for up to how many minutes of airway obstruction or apnea?
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10 mins.
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Know the two main pathophysiologic forms of pulmonary edema
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high-pressure edema and increased permeability edema.
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What can cardiogenic pulmonary edema cause or result in?
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the most common forms of high-pressure edema
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Which drugs are used to treat or manage cardiogenic pulmonary disease?
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Diuretics, vasodilators
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How often should recumbent patients be turned to prevent atelectasis?
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Q 1-2 hours.
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How long following the initial traumatic impact may pulmonary contusions continue to worsen?
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24-48 hours
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The lesions associated with pulmonary contusions typically resolve within how many days, unless complications such as pneumonia or acute respiratory distress syndrome ensue?
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3-10
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What are the three major mechanisms that can cause atelectasis?
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compression, oxygen absorption, and depletion of surfactant.
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Blind thoracentesis should be performed between which intercostal spaces?
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7th - 9th
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What is the most common acid-base abnormality in small animals?
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metabolic acidosis
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Know the normal heart rate of small dogs
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70-120
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Know the normal heart rate of large dogs
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60-120
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Know the normal heart rate of cats
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120- 200
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Know the various causes of shock
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Hypovolemia, vasodilation, cardiac failure
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At what body temperature should warming measures be discontinued?
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100 F
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How often should patients be turned to help prevent lung consolidation and pneumonia?
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Q 2-4 hours
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Know the nutritional needs of postoperative patients
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30kcal/kg q24h
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Know the arterial partial pressures of oxygen that would result in hypoxemia and severe hypoxemia.
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Hypoxemia: PaO2 less than 80 mm HG, pulse ox <95%. Severe hypoxemia: PaO2 < 6mm HG or pulse ox < 90%
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What PCO2 levels would indicate hypoventilation and show an indication for mechanical ventilation?
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> 45mm HG, mechanical - > 60-70 mm HG
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What is the recommended respiratory rate during CPR?
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10-24 breaths/min.
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Ventilation during CPR should not exceed how many cm H2O pressure?
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20-30
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What is the proper number of chest compressions that should be performed during CPR?
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100-120/minute
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Know when fevers become a threat to the life of patients
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When exceeds 107.
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What is the normal rectal temperature of dogs and cats?
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Below 102.5.
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Which specific area of the brain controls thermoregulation?
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a region of the hypothalamus.
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What effect would increased sympathetic noradrenergic innervation of cardiac muscle have?
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Increase HR and force of contraction
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Know the normal, low value, and high values of the MAP
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Low = < 60 mm HG. Normal = 60 – 100 mmHG. High = >100mm Hg
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What are the parameters that define oliguria in patients?
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Decrease in urine production below min acceptable rate of 1-2 ml/kg/hour
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What are the common states of consciousness?
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Normal, obtunded, stupor or semicoma, coma.
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Which part of the brain is responsible for the integration of sensory information from the entire body, the planning of motor activity, and the appropriate responses to this information, emotion, and memory?
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Cerebrum
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Which part of the brain activates the cerebral cortex and maintains consciousness?
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Reticular activating system in the midbrain, pons, thalamus.
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Know the most life-threatening causes for a decline in mentation for patients in an ICU.
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Vascular event, increased intracranial pressure, herniation of brain structures. Infarction or hemorrhage secondary to lesions.
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Know the primary causes of a reduced PaO2 in arterial blood
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1. Decrease PiO2 2. Hypoventilation 3. Ventilation – perfusion mismatch 4. Shunt 5. Diffusion impairment
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Know what happens when venous blood bypasses the gas exchange areas of the lung and mixes with oxygenated arterial blood.
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Shunt – most important cause of hypoxemia
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Cats with congestive left heart failure commonly develop which condition or disease?
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pleural effusion
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What effect does heart failure have on the heart rate of cats?
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Increased.
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Which drugs are used in the acute treatment of feline HCM?
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Diuretics, nitroglycerin
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DCM typically affects which sized dogs?
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Large, medium
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Virtually all patients with acquired degenerative valve disease that have congestive heart failure will have an audible cardiac murmur in which cardiac position?
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left apical position.
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Arrhythmias associated with myocardial injury may be delayed in onset up to how many hours?
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48 hours
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What is the immediate treatment of choice for cardiac tamponade?
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Immediate pericardiocentesis is indicated for cardiac tamponade.
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What are the most common causes of pericardial effusion in dogs?
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Neoplasia.
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Elevated blood hydrogen ion levels (pH <7.4) are described as __________, and reduced hydrogen ion levels (pH >7.4) are described as ____________.
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acidemia, alkalemia.
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The total body water content is approximately what percentage of body weight in a nonobese adult dog or cat?
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60%
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Animals with acute hemorrhage exceeding what percentage of the blood volume may require a blood transfusion in addition to the initial shock fluid therapy?
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20%
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What is the most important canine blood type?
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DEA 1.1
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What is the main blood group system recognized in cats?
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AB blood group system.
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What is the chemical precursor of the ketones found in ketoacidosis?
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Hyperkalemia.
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What is the common name for hypoadrenocorticism?
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Addison’s.
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What is the common name for hyperadrenocorticism?
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Cushing's
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Know the normal and abnormal intracranial hypertension (ICH) pressures in small animals.
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normal range of 5 to 12 mm Hg.
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Icterus may be observed the day after substantial hemolysis and when the serum bilirubin concentration often exceeds ___ mg/dl.
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2
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What PCV percentage is generally accepted as indicating that a patient will need a blood transfusion?
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20% or less.
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Pyometria is an endocrine disease most commonly occurring during which stage of the estrous cycle?
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diestrus
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What is the interval from ovulation to parturition is in cats?
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63 to 65 days
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What is the interval from ovulation to parturition is in dogs?
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58 to 72 days from the first of multiple breedings
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How long does the first stage of labor last in dogs undergoing a normal parturition?
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6 to 12 hours
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How long does the second stage of labor last in dogs undergoing a normal parturition?
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3 to 12 hours and, in rare cases, up to 24 hours
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How many days before parturition can radiographs of fetal skeletons be adequately visualized and counted?
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17 to 20 days
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Which drug is most commonly used to treat uterine inertia?
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oxytocin
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Be able to define Paraphimosis.
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the inability to reduce the penis into the prepuce
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Be able to define Priapism
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persistent penile erection in the absence of sexual stimulation.
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Be able to define Galactostasis
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the delay in the passage of milk from the mammary glands
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What is the most common cause of cardiovascular compromise in the critically ill patient and needs to be resolved before anesthesia induction?
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Hypovolemic shock
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Which class of drugs, used in anesthetic plans, does not adversely affect the cardiovascular system and are safe to use in even the most critically ill animals?
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Opioid drugs
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What are the most common life-threatening abnormalities seen in the critical postoperative patient?
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Hypoventilation, hypoxemia, hypotension, and hypothermia
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Once an anesthetic patient’s core body temperature has been increased to which temperature F, active rewarming efforts should stop, to prevent accidental hyperthermia.
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99 F
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What is the most common indication for sustained peritoneal drainage?
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Septic peritonitis
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What are the common consequences of a thoracotomy?
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Hypoxemia, hypotension, and arrhythmias
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Volume loading a thoracotomy patient before surgery with crystalloid or colloid fluids to a central venous pressure of ____ to ____ cm H2O will help prevent the reduction in cardiac output.
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6 to 7
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