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227 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
which of the following statement about rabies is most accurate?
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this disease is characterized by altered behavior, possible aggression, progressive paralysis, and, in most species, death
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rabies
|
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infectious tracheobronchitis is a very contagious disease of dogs cause by
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bordetella bronchiseptica
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kennel cough
|
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a dog exposed to is a patient that should be considered for OspA vaccine
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ticks
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borrelia burgdorferi lipoprotein
|
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which of the following feline disease is considered similar to canine parvovirus because it can cause dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, fever, and leukopenia
|
feline panleukopenia
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leukopenia
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for which of the following feline disease does vaccination usually reduce clinical signs of disease but does not always completely prevent the disease
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feline rhinotracheitis
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|
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which of the following diseases of horses is extremely contagious, is caused by a bacteria, and causes abscesses in submaxillary, retropharyngeal, and submandibular lymph nodes
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strangles
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|
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which of the following bovine vaccinations can cause zoonotic disease if accidentally injected
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brucellosis vaccine
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another name bangs
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oral bovine rotavirus, coronavirus, and Escherichia coli infection vaccines are administered to pregnant cows on farms where there is a problem with calfhood
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diarrhea
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bathroom
|
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at the time of castration, horn bud removal, dehorning, and/or tail docking, antioxidants should be administered to the offspring of ewes and does that were not vaccinated against clostridial disease during pregnancy
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tetanus
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|
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pregnant ewes and does should be vaccinated against
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clostridum perfringens types C and D and clostridum tetani
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for which of the following feline disease does vaccination generally reduce clinical signs or shorten the course but does not prevent infection or shedding
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feline upper respiratory disease
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|
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venereal diseases of cattle that cause various manifestations of abortion, and for which vaccination is a basic requirement for all breeding stock, include
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eampylobacteriosis, leptospirosis, and brucellosis
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|
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core vaccines refer to those vaccines that
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are necessary to protect the animal from disease
|
|
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the principal cause of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is
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moraxella bovine infection
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inflamed cornea and conjunctiva
|
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in the horse, the term floating teeth refers to
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rasping down sharp points on the teeth
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for which of the following diseases of cattle is vaccination reported to the United states department of agriculture and the right ear of the vaccinated animal tagged and tattooed
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brucellosis
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|
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the most serious internal parasite of sheep and goats is the barber pole worm, known as
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haemonchus contortus
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biosecurity is practiced more strictly with which of the following species than any other agricultural species
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hogs
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a disease of pigs for which they should be vaccinated and that causes fever, skin lesions, sudden death, and chronic endocarditis or chronic arthritis is
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erysipelas
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|
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in horse, a deciduous premier that fails to fall out is called a
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retained cap
|
|
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stallions can become permanent carriers of this disease; therefore, colts intended to be used as breeding stallions should be vaccinated for
|
equine viral arteritis
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EVA
|
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pregnant mares should be vaccinated for equine during the fifth,seventh, and ninth months of pregnancy to reduce the incidence of abortions from this disease
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rhinopneumonitits
|
|
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an immediate hypersensitivity response to a vaccine or other stimulus that may cause respiratory arrest, cardiovascular collapsed, and, potentially, death is callled
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anaphylaxis
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|
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placement of an identity chip is recommended for a cat that has been vaccinated against feline because antibody testing cannot distinguish between antibodies produced during vaccination or as a response to natural infection
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immunodeficiency virus
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|
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which of the following viral diseases of the dogs is resilient in the environment, is easily spread by dogs and owner's shoes, and is not easily killed by common disinfectants
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parvovirus
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|
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what life threatening viral diseases, for which there is a core vaccine, can be spread by direct contact between dogs or by contact with wildlife, such as coyotes, wolfs, raccoons, or skunks
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distemper
|
|
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intranasally administered vaccine should not be administered
|
subcutaneously or intramuscularly
|
|
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a toxoid is
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an inactivated or suppressed strain of a toxin used for vaccination purposes
|
|
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a new client brings in a 14 year old cat named Bob and a new kitten she has recently adopted, named skippy, which is the most significant difference in how each will be examined during their new patients wellness checks
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you recommend that Bob's teeth be checked every six months or so, while skippy is examined for congenital defects and receives a vaccination schedule
|
|
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which of the following is not an effective means of preventing parasitic infections in dogs and cats
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grooming
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|
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fatty acids have no double bonds in the primary hydrocarbon chain
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saturated
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|
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vitamins C and E are respectively
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water soluble and fat soluble
|
|
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ingredients on a pet food label must be listed in order
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weight
|
|
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puppies begin to eat gruel at approximately kcal
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3 to 4
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except toy breeds and weak animals
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the daily metabolized energy requirement of a 10 pound cat is approximately kcal
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275
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which of the following substances are depleted in the body faster because of limited storage capability, making toxicity less likely
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water soluble vitamins
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|
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a deficiency of which of the following vitamins can lead to spontaneous bleeding
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vitamin K
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|
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excess of which of the following may possibly lead to skeletal abnormalities
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calcium
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cats fed home cooked diets rich in oily fish are at increased risk of developing yellow fat disease because of the deficiency of which of the following vitamins
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vitamin E
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|
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which of the following animals are unable to synthesize vitamin C and therefore require daily supplementation
|
Guinea pigs
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the owner of a new cat asks you how much water the cat should be given each day. you explain that the number of water per day should be roughly equivalent to kilocalories (kcal)
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milliliters
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|
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proteins conjugated with fats are called
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lipoproteins
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|
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among the essential fatty acids, cats need to get from the diet, but dogs can synthesize it from fatty acids in the diet
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arachidonic acid
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which of the following is not technically a nutrient
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fiber
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identify the substance that can perform all the following: act as structural components of organs and tissues; function as enzymes, hormones, carriers of other molecules, and can be a source of energy
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proteins
|
|
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are the standard units of measurement for energy
|
kilocalories
|
|
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although not the most practical measure of energy available, energy is all of the potential energy available in a food or diet
|
gross
|
|
|
energy is the most common estimate of how much energy is supplied by pet food
|
metabolizable
|
|
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the term refers to the kcal per unit of a food ingredient or pet food
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energy density
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|
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modified Atwater factors can be useful to determine how much energy is provided by protein, fat, and carbohydrates on a basis
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metabolizable energy
|
|
|
if a sick animal refuses to eat voluntarily, you should
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remove food after 15 to 30 minutes and try later, possibly with hand feeding
|
|
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cachexia is the term used to describe
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loss of lean body mass
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|
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is the most demanding physiologic stage in cats
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lactation
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|
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current recommendations are that adult spayed and neutered cats should be
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meal fed twice a day
|
|
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senior dogs who have become less active
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can be offered an extra meal per day
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|
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the term holistic on a pet food label means
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nothing
|
|
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medicated pet food
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is not currently legal in the United States
|
|
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if a pet food's name contains the word with in relation to a specific food ingredient, that food ingredient must make up at least of the product weight
|
3%
|
|
|
you teach a puppy's owner to use a body condition score chart to
|
monitor whether the puppy is getting the right amount of food to supply sufficient energy each day
|
|
|
some common reasons pet owners give for wanting to feed home cooked diets to their pets include
|
all of the above
|
|
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two examples of providing therapeutic enteral nutrition are, whereas therapeutic parenteral nutrition is
|
hand feeding or feeding through nasogastric tubes; administered intravenously, typically through a central venous catheter
|
|
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which of the following would not be considered to be part of a safe and effective weight loss program for dogs or cats
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offering reduced calorie or light products until the weight loss goal has been reached, then resuming regular diet
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|
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fescue toxicosis is a nutritional disease that can involve lameness, tail tip necrosis, abortion, and/or decreased milk production. this disease affects
|
sheep
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amino acids are made up of carbon, oxygen, and
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nitrogen and sulfur
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concerning protein in plants, which of the following statements is most accurate
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a feed can possess high protein content, yet that protein's biologic value is low
|
|
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feeding inadequate forages with little or no grain can create a deficiency of usable during the last trimester of pregnancy in ewes carrying twins or triplets and can lead to and in the mother
|
carbohydrates; paralysis; coma
|
|
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forages of good quality and properly harvested normally contain adequate levels of vitamin E and precursor of vitamin A, which is
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carotene
|
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which of the following nutrients has more energy per gram than all other nutrients
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fats
|
|
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creep feed is
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feed given to foals after 2 months of age
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|
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why can feeds containing low quality protein be fed over the long term to ruminants but not to horses
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the protein quality from moderate to poor feed will usually be improved by rumen metabloism
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contemporary swine nutrition does not concentrate on the toal protein content of feed, but on the
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amino acid levels
|
|
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concentrates include, whereas forages include
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grains and high starch compounds; grass hays and legumes
|
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what is the difference between digestible energy and metabolized energy
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digestible energy is the gross energy consumed minus the undigested energy lost in the feces, whereas metabolizable energy is the digestible energy minus the energy lost in the urine and as combustion gases
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apart from the need for fresh water continuously, what single factor most determines the productivity of lactating dairy cows
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feeding
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which of the following vitamins is water soluble
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B6
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|
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vitamins and minerals need to be supplemented throughout the life of domestic
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swine
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which of the following livestock feeds is a significant source of calcium
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alfalfa hay
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concerning differences in the management of dairy and beef cattle, which of the following statements is most accurate
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dairy calves are generally removed from their dams almost immediately and hand raised, whereas beef calves are allowed to remain with and nurse from their dams for many months
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|
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in general a profitable cow calf producer will produce a live calf for every cow per year
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one
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|
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if a beef cattle receive inadequate pasture feeding, supplemental energy is usually provided in the form of
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silage (fermented green feed) or hay
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corn cobs, straw, and corn stalks are examples of
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low grade roughage suplying inadequate protein if fed over extended periods
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which of the following must always be supplemented to beef cattle feeding with pasture grasses
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minerals
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the ewes of a 50 head sheep operation are having lambing problems, low wool output, and depressed milk production. these problems are most likely due to poor care and inadequate nutrition
|
during the thrid trimester of pregnancy
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concerning feeding lambs, which of the following statements is most accurate
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large, fast growing lambs being fed high grain rations are particularly susceptible to a bacterial overeating disease (enterotoxemia) that can cause death
|
|
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sows in production are generally allowed to nurse their litters for days
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21 to 35
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|
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sows are limit fed (controlled calorie intake) and full fed ( to achieve as much enegry consumption as possible)
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during gestation; during lactation
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when visiting a swine operation, you see the farmer brushing the nursing sows' teats with a solution. which of the following substances is most likely in this solution
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iron
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the number of grams of body weight gain per unit of protein consumed is referred to as the
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protein efficiency ratio
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the stages of the canine reproductive cyle, in the correct order of occurrence, are
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anestrus, proestrus, estrus, diestrus
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|
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ovulation is the
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release of the oocyte from the ovarian follicle
|
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owners who use artificial insemination and have limited access to a male dog or own females with erratic behavior will need to be told exactly when to breed. the exact day of ovulation is best predicted by
|
vaginal cytology for progesterone levels by observing for white blood cells and noncornified epithelial cells
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|
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in the canine female, vaginal cultures are best performed with a
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guarded, sterile culture swab
|
|
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pregnancy examination by palpation in the bitch can be performed as early as about days after breeding using an ultrasound
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21
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|
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a client wishing to know the number of pups in utero (in the uterus) should be told to make an appointment for at least plus days after breeding
|
radiography; 43
|
|
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in the queen, abdominal palpation can be used to diagnose pregnancy on day following breeding and by ultrasound on days plus following breeding
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18 to 32; 15
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which of the following methods is often used to induce estrous activity in the mare during the winter months
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increasing the day length with artificial light
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|
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what preparatory actions are often taken before vaginal examination of the mare
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wrap the tail and wash the perineal area
|
|
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clients breeding their camelids for the first time should be counseled that
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the placenta should pass out of the vagina within 6 hours after birth or a veterinarian should be called to administer oxytocin
|
|
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in the cow, pregnancy is most frequently diagnosed using
|
rectal palpation or ultrasound
|
|
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in ewes, (the period of no ovarian follicular activity) can be shortened by exposure to pheromones from a ram
|
anestrus
|
|
|
the average onset of puberty is months in the heifer
|
9 to 11
|
|
|
whelping is
|
parturition in a canine
|
|
|
ewes start to cycle as
|
daylight length becomes shorter
|
|
|
estrus detection in ewes is accomplished by
|
observing the vulva and urination patterns
|
|
|
which of the following species, when in estrus, exhibits frequent urination, a raised tail, decreased kicking, a forward ear postion, and leaning toward the male
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horse
|
|
|
llamas cycle
|
multiple times per year
|
|
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when evaluating semen in the laboratory, it is important to have all equipment
|
at body temperature
|
|
|
complete semen analysis involves examining what three characteristics
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sperm motility, concentration, and morphology
|
|
|
semen collection from the bull, ram , and buck can be performed using an artificial vagina and condom, or by a
|
electroejaculator
|
|
|
when collecting semen from stallions using an artificial vagina, it is critical to precisely control the
|
internal temperature and pressure of the artificial vagina
|
|
|
when should a mare be inseminated with frozen semen
|
within 12 hours of thawing
|
|
|
the ampulla is
|
part of the oviduct
|
|
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when performing an examination for breeding soundness in a female, which of the following is not pertinent to the patients' history
|
eye color
|
|
|
which of the following is not usually part of patient data gathering phase in the nursing process
|
identifying and prioritizing to generate a techinician evalutation
|
|
|
as you review the nursing care plan for sparky, a rabbit, the data you encounter will contain
|
information about interventions specific to your own evaluation of sparky
|
|
|
your new job is in an animal health research center that specializes in which is the study of the causation or origins of diseases
|
etiology
|
|
|
you and your colleagues attend a lecture on a disease to which animals in your patient's farming community have been exposed to recently, this particular lecture, then, gives you increased understanding of the mechanism for the development of this particular disease
|
pathogenesis
|
|
|
the overall process for disease may be summarized in which of the following ways
|
etiology, pathogenesis, lesions, clinical signs
|
|
|
your patient has green yellow nasal discharge, which you record, describing it as
|
mucopurulent
|
|
|
your patient, miss marple, a persian cat, has been sneezing excessively. you most likely suspect that she has
|
an upper respiratory infection
|
|
|
popeye, a small mixed breed dog, has nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing. you examine him closely for signs of any facial swelling, which might indicate popeye has
|
any of the above
|
|
|
a small dog is brought into the clinic by his owner because he is exhibiting, a symptom identified as stridor
|
high pitched inspiratory wheezing
|
|
|
a patient exhibits, which means the patient is coughing up blood a symptom seen with heartworm disease
|
hemoptysis
|
|
|
you discover that your patient is unable to breathe unless the patient is upright, a sign referred to as
|
orthopnea
|
|
|
nacho, a dog, is exhibiting dyspnea. the mucous membranes show signs of pallor. the veterinarian diagnoses this as, or deficient oxygenation of the tissues
|
hypoxia
|
dyspnea (respiratory distress)
|
|
pepper has an echocardiogram after surgery, and the veterinarian sees shadows that suggest the possibility of heart disease. pepper has no symptoms, however, and is sent home after recovering well from surgery. because pepper is asymptomatic, the veterinarian instructs the owner to monitor for rapid breathing, or , which can be the first sign that heart disease has progressed to heart failure
|
tachypnea
|
|
|
artie, a perkinese, has begun losing weight and experiences some anorexia. he is frequently suddenly exhaused. test indicate that artie has, or disease of the heart muscle
|
cardiomyopathy
|
|
|
which of the following conditions can cause hypoxia
|
all of the above
|
|
|
tests show that your patient, peeps, a male cat, has decreased cardiac output. the veterinarian see signs, too, of tissue hypoxia, which is causing poor venous return leading to fluid overload, the most likely diagnosis for peeps is
|
congestive heart failure
|
|
|
an echogram of your patient, a cat, shows an increased thickness of the left ventricle wall and a small ventricular lumen, which confirms a diagnosis of
|
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
|
|
|
your patient's fecal sample shows streaks of blood on the outside of otherwise normally formed stools, a symptom you quickly identify as
|
hematochezia
|
|
|
you are treating a dog who is suffering malabsorption, eating constantly yet losing weight. he has chronic diarrhea that is pale, fatty, and voluminous. he is diagnosed with EPI, which is
|
caused by insufficient production and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes
|
|
|
hepatic encephalopath can be caused by
|
exposure of the brain to gastrointestinal (GI) toxins as a consequence of decreased liver function or portosystemic shunts
|
|
|
your patient is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) when his tests reveal
|
both a and b
|
|
|
the veterinarian evaluates a complete blood count and full serum chemistry panel for gideon, a cocker spaniel. gideon's tests have come back revealing low serum T4 and free T4 levels and elevated thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels. his veterinarian can reasonably conclude that gideon has
|
hypothryoidism
|
|
|
addison's disease, or primarily affects dogs and is characterized by
|
hypoadreanocorticism; inadequate secretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, primarily, cortisol and aldosterone
|
|
|
treatment for galactostasis
|
is begun during weaning and focuses on decreasing milk production and inflammation, using warm compresses
|
|
|
cushing syndrome, or primarily affects dogs and is characterized by
|
hyperadrenocoricism; elevated circulating levels of cortisol produced by the adrenal cortex
|
|
|
casper, a sheepdog, has been diagnosed with primary immune mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA). this means that his immune system has
|
targeted the red blood cells as foreign (antigens) and developed autoantibodies against red blood cell membrane components
|
|
|
bob the dog has trouble walking at home and moves around as little as possible, which is not normal for him. on palpating the joints in bob's hind legs, the veterinary assistant detects the following symptoms: pain, swelling, crepitus, decreased range of motion, and joint lazity. these are consistent with a diagnosis of
|
OA
|
|
|
in the infection process, a reservoir refers to
|
an animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive
|
|
|
every time you enter a ward that holds infectious patients, you wash your hands and don shoe covers, a gown, and examination gloves before entering. this is referred to as nursing
|
barrier
|
|
|
in the process known as malignant transformation, an initiated cell undergoes mutations caused by an agent or event that stimulate proliferation of the cell to grow into a neoplasm. this stage is called
|
promotion
|
|
|
sarcomas can arise from, whereas carcinomas can arise from
|
cartilage; lymph nodes
|
|
|
in a cold source freezes superficial cancers and the treated tissue dies and sloughs away
|
cryosurgery
|
|
|
chemotherapeutic drugs
|
cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as cells of bone marrow, GI tract, or hair follicles
|
|
|
ionizing radiation
|
causes cell death by disrupting the cell's DNA or by destroying important molecules required for normal cell function
|
|
|
a dog begins exhibiting, or excessive thirst, which can be an indication of diabetes
|
polydipsia
|
|
|
which of the following is a syndrome characterized by weight loss and muscle wasting caused either by a tumor or the side effects of cancer treatments
|
cancer cachexia
|
|
|
which two of the five freedoms or animal welfare constitute what is often referred to as basic patient care in verterinary technology
|
freedom from hunger and thirst and freedom from discomfort
|
|
|
which of the following diseases is caused by streptococcus equi equi
|
strangles
|
|
|
the most common nurtritional disease of pot bellied pigs is
|
obesity
|
|
|
guttural pouch mycosis is caused by a
|
fungus
|
|
|
even if lambs survive an acute hemolytic crisis of copper toxicity, there is often significant irreversible damage to the due to
|
kidneys; hemoglobinuria
|
|
|
your equine patient develops rhinopneumonitis, caused by, which produces respiratory disease, abortion, and neonatal and neurologic disease (ascending paralysis) in horses
|
herpesvirus
|
|
|
an allergic disease associated with airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and excessive mucous production is
|
recurrent airway obstruction
|
|
|
two horses belonging to the same owner have the same infectious disease, you are in charge of seeing that they are monitored every hours
|
4 to 6
|
|
|
one symptom indicating that the arabian horse you are examining is in serious pain is the fact that he has a heart rate higher than beats/minute
|
60
|
|
|
you are in charge of training personnel for the new isolation ward of your veterinary hospital. your coverage of disease will most likely include a thorough discussion of
|
colitis, neurologic EHV-1, and strangles
|
|
|
the position of a recumbent horse should be changed every hours to help prevent the formation of decubital ulcers
|
6
|
|
|
intravenous catheters should be monitored a day and flushed with heparinized saline every hours
|
twice; 6
|
|
|
if using an aminoglycoside antimicrobial agent to treat a patient, it is important to monitor the patient because these agents are known to cause
|
kidney problems
|
|
|
what is the primary route of infection of caprine arthritis- encephalitis
|
through infected colostrum or milk of an infected dam
|
|
|
which nutritional myodegenerative disease may be caused by a deficiency of gestational vitamin E and/or selenium
|
white muscle disease
|
|
|
you notice a family of neonatal piglets establishing teat order. naturally, the mammary glands are most sought after
|
cranial
|
|
|
when do pot bellied pigs usually reach their full size
|
at 2 to 3 years of age
|
|
|
which of the following bacteria is most likely associated with the gangrenous form of mastitis in sheep and goats
|
staphylococcus aureus
|
|
|
can result from the rupture of retropharyngeal lymph nodes occuring secondary to infectious strangles in horses
|
guttural pouch empyema
|
|
|
which of the following tests is essential for the evaluation of primary renal disease
|
urinalysis
|
|
|
the pH of normal horse urine is
|
alkaline (pH 7 to 9)
|
|
|
cerebrospinal (CSF) fluid from a horse is collected at the
|
lumbosacral space
|
|
|
increased serum is a normal physiologic repsonse in the fasted horse
|
bilirubin
|
|
|
the veterinarian suspects a horse has salmonella infection. to detect his, you collect a total of fecal samples for culture at least hours between samplings
|
five; 12
|
|
|
all horses in the united states should be vaccinated against
|
eastern and western equine and west nile encephalomyelitis
|
|
|
young horses and performace horses are at high risk of contracting and should be vaccinated every 3 to 4 months
|
herpesvirus infection
|
|
|
pregnant boodmares should be vaccinated for to prevent abortion caused by this disease
|
equine herpesvirus infection
|
|
|
gagging and excessive salivation are most often indications of
|
choke
|
|
|
in the neonatal camelid, chronic diarrhea may lead to failure of which of the following organs
|
kidney
|
|
|
both a goat and a sheep are scheduled for surgery. which of the following presurgical injections will each animal be given
|
tetanus toxoid or antitoxin
|
|
|
eastern, western, and venezuelan viral encephalitis (EVE, WVE, VVE) are trasmitted to horses by
|
mosquitoes
|
|
|
the most common breed of alpacas are
|
suri
|
|
|
in situations in which the veterinary staff is having difficulty stimulating a calf to breathe, can be injected under the animal's
|
doxapram hydrochloride; tongue
|
|
|
it is imperative to a calf's survival to receive colostrum within the first of life
|
6 hours
|
|
|
which of the following statements is false regarding calves with diarrhea
|
milk and milk products should be warmed before being offered
|
|
|
actinobacillosis is usually greated with antibiotics, and antiinflammatory drug, and intravenous administration of
|
sodium iodide
|
|
|
why is it extremely important to exercise caution when using balling guns, dose syringes, and stomach tubes in cattle
|
to prevent the devlopment of pharyngeal cellulitis, abscess, or hematoma
|
|
|
camelids have a compartment stomach
|
three
|
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bovine respiratory disease sydrome (BRDS), commonly called, is caused by a combination of respiratory bacteria, viruses, and
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shipping fever; stress
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acute laminitis may be due to sudden excess ingestion of, or secondary to other diseases, which occur during the period
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grain; postparturient
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what is the most single most common disease syndrome in adult dairy cows
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mastitis
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a horse with anaplasmosis usually exhibits signs that include fever, edema and stiffness, icterus lethargy, and. it can be treated with
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anemia; oxytetracycline
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which of the following statements is not true regarding anthrax
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if an animals is suspected of having anthrax, necropsy should be performed and the brain sent to the state veterinarian
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the placenta in a bovine patient is considered retained if not expelled by hours
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12
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ketosis in dairy cows may result from a primary defiency of intake or may be secondary to other diseases that cause
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energy; anorexia
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which of the following does not predispose small ruminants to enterotoxemia
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feeding carrots
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is a CNS disease that results form an underlying defect in thiamine metabolism
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polioencephalomalacia
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a good holistic diet for herbivores is based on
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pasture on a soil with balanced minerals supplemented with hay and grains
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yogurt supplements a diet with to help balance the gastrointestinal (GI) system
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probiotics
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a cow with borderline low thyroid function is fed a product containing bovine thyroid gland. this is an example
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glandulars
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herbs used to support the general health of the patient are known as
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tonification
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which seeks wellness by keeping elements of nature in balance and means the science of life
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ayurveda
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which of the following medicinal system is based on the principle that like cures like
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homeopathy
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in homeopathy, extremely diluted herbs are called
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remedies
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according to hahnemann, the results of medication dilution is benefits side effects
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stronger; but less harmful
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in homeopathy, exacerbation of symptoms is called
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aggravation
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in homeopathy, miasmic treatment
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addresses genetic weakness to prevent disease
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in flower essence therapy, nach believed there are pathologic emotional states that will lead to physical disease
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12
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orthopedic cases such as may benefit from physical therapy
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hip displasia
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in acupuncture, there are two unpaired channels; they are channels
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conception vessel (CV) and governing vessel (GV)
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temporary tender areas that can move on and off of acupuncture meridians are known as
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trigger
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which of the following theories was postulated after observing that animals under acupuncture analgesia can transfer the analgesia through their blood or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to other animals
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humoral theory
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which of the following theories describes acupuncture as a way to amaplify or boost electrical signals along nerve pathways
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bioelectric theory
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what is the modality that provides both therapy and diagnostic imagery using high frequency sound waves
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ultrasound
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the goal of postevent sport massage is to
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flush out metabolic waste
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ultrasound with a frequency of 1 MHz can penetrate tissues from a depth of cm
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4 to 5 cm
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the length of one massage stroke is called the
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excursion
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signs of discomfort in horses receiving massage include
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swishing the tail
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endangerment sites for massage include the
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area over the kidneys
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cryotherapy is used to
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decrease enzyme activity
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class IIIb laser therapy is considered dangerous to the
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eyes
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the effects of using north pole of a magnet include
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stimulation of bone healing
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electromagnetic pulsed signal therapy (PST) has been shown to improve
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osteoarthritis
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the application of electrical current to elicit a muscle contraction, or, is used for muscle strengthening and reducing muscle atrophy
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NMES
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the massage stroke that is a gliding movement that follows the contour of the body is called
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effleurage
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which of the following is a synonym of trigger point massage
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myotherapy
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before performing a chiropractic manipulaiton, which of the following is not true
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the veterinarian must always ensure that a thorough western medical work up has been done before chiropractic treatment
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which of the following statements regarding the podiatry of a dog is true
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it is not painful to the dog to grind back the toenail until the nub of the quick is uncovered
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